Topic 9: Interest Parity Models Flashcards
What are the interest rate parity models?
- Covered Interest Rate Parity (CIP)
- Uncovered Interest Rate Parity (UIP)
- Real Interest Rate Parity (RIP) [we don’t look at this]
What is a forward contract?
An agreement to swap a specific amount of currency, at a specific rate, at a specific point in time.
What is the definition of CIP?
The condition that the return to similar assets in different countries are equal once we take into account that foreign exchange risk being covered in the forward market.
Give the CIP equation.
(1 + i) = F(d/f)/S(d/f) * (1 + i*)
- Right hand side is value of foreign asset in d.c.
- Left hand side is the value of foreign asset.
What are the conditions for CIP?
- Assets & forward rate must be of the same period, or converted to such
- Assets must be the same, meaning have the same risk
How is CIP derived?
From these conditions:
- If CIP is violated, there is risk free abitrage profits
- Exploiting arbitrage opportunities pushes towards the CIP equilibrium
- If arbitrage occurs fast and readily then we can assume CIP.
What are the types of CIP arbitrage?
- Inward: When the domestic interest rate is higher then the foreign. We borrow internationally and invest locally. We also purchase a forward contract that assures us an arbitrage profit.
- Outward: When the foriegn interest rate is higher then the local. We borrow locally and invest in the foriegn, purchasing a forward contract that assures us arbitrage profit.
What is the forward margin?
The proportional difference between the current spot and the current forward
f = (F - S)/S
What is approximate form of CIP?
i = i* + f(d/f)
What evidence is there for CIP?
Lots, it is very strong.
The CIP consistant exchange rate: S = F(1+i*)/(1+i)
The actual exchange rate is indistinguishable, no systemic differences.
What is it called when F > S?
What about F < S?
Trading forward at a premium.
Trading foward at a discount.
What is the definition of UIP?
The condition that returns to similar assets (i.e. assets with the same risk.) in different countries are equal after taking into account the expected changes in the exchange rate in the absence of forward cover.
Give the uncovered interest rate parity condition.
(1+i) = Se(d/f)/S(d/f) (1 + i*)
- Left hand side represents end of period value of domestic investment
- Right hand side is the expected end of period value of foreign investment in d.c. terms.
How do we derive UIP?
- If UIP is violated, there would be arbitrage
- The operations of arbitrage should push markets towards the UIP equilibrium.
Go through the tedious steps of UIP inward arbitrage.
Start of Period:
- Borrow at i* internationally.
- Convert to d.c. at S0.
- Invest domestically at i.
End of Period:
- Receive investment proceeds S0(1+i) per f.c.
- Convert enough to f.c. pay off at (1+i*), which is S1(1+i)
- Reap proceeds (S0(1+i) - S1(1+i*)) per f.c. in d.c. value
What is the implication of assuming UIP?
That actors are risk neutral.
What is the approximate form of UIP?
(1+i) = (Se/S) (1 + i*) or
(1+i) = (1 + S(dot)e) (1+i)
i ~= S(dot)e + i*
What does the variable S(dot)e denote?
The proportional difference between the expected spot rate and the current spot rate.
(Se - S) / S = S(dot)e
Are CIP and UIP the same?
Only when F = Se.
Called forward-market efficiency.
Compare the approximate forms of CIP & UIP
CIP: i ~= i* + f(d/f)
UIP: i ~= i* + S(dot)e (d/f)
How can we estimate Se?
- Surveys (Economists don’t like this. Actions inconsistant with statements.)
- Forecasting model
- Assume rational expectations
What are the problems with testing UIP?
- Hard to observe the expected exchange rate.
- None of the methods of observing the expected exchange rate work.
- We can also just test forward market efficiency with some estimage of the expected spot rate. Because if it is, then UIP = CIP.
Show how a forecasting model could be used to determine Set+n
Could use something simple, like:
St + n = α + βSt + εt+n
Or you could do the same, but with S(dot).
Show a test of forward market efficiency.
ftt+n = ρ0 + ρ1Stt+n + ε
H0: ρ0 = 0 and ρ1 = 1
Show how rational expectations could demonstrate forward market efficiency
- We just straight out assume Se(dot) = S + ε - i.e. forecasts are perfect.
- Where ε has a zero mean and is uncorrelated.
- This tells us that the futures market should on average predict the spot rate with zero error.
What is the evidence for UIP?
Nope nope nope.
The actual exchange rate systemically deviates from the predicted forward market rate.
Called the forward premium puzzle.
What can explain the forward premium puzzle?
- Maybe we can’t use rational expectations, or forecasting models.
- Maybe there is a risk premium.
- Transaction costs.
How do CIP and UIP fair theoretically as models?
Underdetermined.
There is only one equation.
What is a covered margin? uncovered margin?
The percentage profit to an arbitrage opportunity presented by a violation of CIP / UIP.
What is the random walk hypothesis?
That stock prices evolve according to a random walk model and thus cannot be predicted. The errors have a zero mean and are not correlated, and represent unpredictable news about the assets value. Hence the best prediction is the previous periods price.