Topic 8 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the key advantages of collective investments?

A
  1. Investment manager expertise
  2. Diversification
  3. Reduced dealing costs
  4. Wide choice of funds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the main legal forms of collective investment vehicles?

A

The main legal forms of collective investment vehicles include unit trusts, investment trusts, investment bonds, and Open-Ended Investment Companies (OEICs).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What advantages do collective investments offer individual investors?

A

Collective investments offer advantages such as access to professional investment management, risk reduction through diversification, lower dealing costs due to the scale of investments, a wide choice of funds, and access to assets that require larger initial investments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How do collective investments manage investment risk?

A

Investment risk is managed through diversification, as fund managers invest in a variety of companies. This spreads the risk, meaning if one company fails, the overall impact on the investment portfolio is minimized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why are the services of a skilled investment manager beneficial in collective investments?

A

Skilled investment managers handle the research, decision-making, and administrative tasks related to investments, such as responding to corporate actions like rights issues, which can be complex and time-consuming for individual investors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do collective investments reduce dealing costs?

A

Fund managers handling large sums can negotiate reduced dealing costs because of the volume of trades they conduct, which benefits individual investors by lowering the overall cost of investment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Could you explain how collective investments make it feasible for individual investors to access high-ticket assets?

A

Collective investments pool resources from multiple investors, allowing the fund to meet the minimum investment sizes required for high-ticket assets like corporate bonds, which individual investors might not afford on their own.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What role does diversification play in the appeal of collective investment schemes?

A

Diversification is crucial in reducing investment risk by spreading investments across various sectors and companies.

This strategy ensures that the failure of a single investment has a limited impact on the overall portfolio, which is particularly appealing to individual investors looking to mitigate risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How do the costs associated with professional investment management compare to its benefits in collective investment schemes?

A

While there are costs associated with hiring professional investment managers, these costs are shared among all investors in the fund, making it cost-effective.

The benefits include expert management of the portfolio, which can lead to better investment decisions and potentially higher returns, outweighing the shared costs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does diversification mean in the context of collective investments?

A

In collective investments, diversification means spreading the investment across a broad range of assets, which helps to mitigate risk by ensuring that the potential poor performance of one investment doesn’t overly impact the overall portfolio.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does collective investment provide access to professional investment management?

A

Collective investment schemes pool money from many investors, allowing them to collectively employ a professional investment manager whose expertise in selecting, managing, and timing investments helps achieve better returns than most individuals could manage on their own.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Can you discuss the potential cost benefits of investing through collective investment schemes compared to individual investing?

A

Investing through collective schemes allows individuals to benefit from lower transaction fees and better access to premium investment opportunities due to the scale of pooled investments, which individual investors typically couldn’t negotiate or afford on their own.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What implications do collective investment schemes have for individual investors regarding administrative responsibilities?

A

Collective investment schemes significantly reduce the administrative burden on individual investors as they do not need to handle the complex day-to-day decisions and paperwork associated with direct investment, such as tracking dividends, corporate actions, or managing rights issues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is diversification in the context of investing?

A

Diversification is the strategy of spreading investments across various geographical areas, asset classes, and economic sectors to mitigate risk.

It aims to ensure that poor performance in one area may be balanced by better performance in another.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Why is diversification important for investors?

A

Diversification is important because it helps reduce the risk of significant financial loss by not concentrating investments in a single area or type.

This strategy increases the chance of achieving consistent returns across different market conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does diversification help manage investment risk?

A

Diversification manages risk by spreading investments so that the potential negative performance of one investment is likely to be offset by the positive performance of others.

This approach minimizes the impact of any single underperforming investment on the overall portfolio.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Can you give an example of how diversification works?

A

An example of diversification is investing in both a sunscreen company and an umbrella company.

If you invest only in the sunscreen company, your returns might depend solely on sunny weather.

By also investing in an umbrella company, you balance your risk and potential for returns across different weather conditions, increasing your chances to profit regardless of the weather.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How might an investor effectively implement a diversification strategy?

A

An investor might implement a diversification strategy by investing in various asset types (stocks, bonds, real estate), different sectors (technology, healthcare, finance), and across multiple geographic locations.

This can involve direct investments or through diversified funds that automatically spread investments across these dimensions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the limitations of diversification?

A

While diversification reduces unsystematic risk (risk specific to a single asset or market), it cannot eliminate systematic risk, which affects all types of investments (e.g., economic downturns).

Additionally, over-diversification might lead to diminished returns, as too many investments can dilute the impact of high performers on the overall portfolio.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the basic categories of investment funds?

A

Investment funds can be categorized by:

  1. Location (e.g., UK, Europe, America, Far East)
  2. Industry (e.g., technology, energy)
  3. Type of investment (e.g., shares, gilts, fixed interest, property)
  4. Other forms of specialization such as recovery stocks or ethical investments.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How can investment funds be further categorized based on their financial goals?

A

Funds can be further categorized based on their financial goals into those aiming for:

  1. High income (with modest capital growth)
  2. Those focusing on capital growth (at the expense of income)
  3. Those seeking a balance between growth and income.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the different management styles of investment funds?

A

Investment funds can be managed:

  1. Actively, where fund managers make decisions on asset selection and trading

or

  1. Passively, where the fund aims to replicate the performance of a stock market index, often using computerized asset selection.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Could you explain how the categorization of investment funds by location impacts an investor’s portfolio?

A

Categorizing investment funds by location helps investors diversify their portfolios geographically, which can reduce risk and capitalize on growth opportunities in different markets.

This categorization allows investors to tailor their investments to specific regional dynamics and economic conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How does the choice between actively and passively managed funds affect investment outcomes?

A

Actively managed funds can potentially outperform the market due to the expertise of the fund managers in making investment decisions, though they often come with higher fees.

Passively managed funds, on the other hand, generally offer lower costs and closely match the returns of the market indices they track, providing more predictable outcomes but with less potential for above-market returns.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What considerations should an investor keep in mind when selecting funds based on type of investment?

A

When selecting funds based on the type of investment, investors should consider their own risk tolerance, investment horizon, and financial goals.

Different asset types offer varying levels of risk and return, so choosing the right type (such as shares, bonds, or property) can align an investor’s portfolio with their long-term financial objectives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How do specialized fund categories like ethical investments or recovery stocks function within a portfolio?

A

Specialized fund categories like ethical investments focus on companies that adhere to ethical standards or certain social criteria, while recovery stocks are funds that invest in companies expected to have a significant turnaround.

These specializations allow investors to align their investments with specific values or strategies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How might an investor decide between a fund focusing on income vs. capital growth?

A

An investor’s decision between focusing on income or capital growth generally depends on their financial goals, age, income needs, and risk tolerance.

Income-focused funds might appeal more to those needing steady cash flow, such as retirees, whereas capital growth funds might be more suitable for long-term investors looking to build wealth over time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What role do ethical investments play in modern investment portfolios?

A

Ethical investments play an increasingly significant role in modern portfolios by allowing investors to support environmental, social, and governance (ESG) principles through their investment choices.

This approach not only fulfills ethical standards but can also mitigate risks associated with companies that might face regulatory or reputational challenges.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is a managed fund?

A

A managed fund refers to an investment fund that is composed of holdings distributed across some or all of the other funds offered by a company.

It is managed by a fund manager who decides how to allocate investments among the company’s various funds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are typical examples of managed funds?

A

Examples of managed funds include “managed growth” or “managed income” funds, which are tailored to specific investment goals like capital growth or regular income, respectively.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the role of a manager in a managed fund?

A

In a managed fund, the manager’s role is primarily to determine the allocation of investments between the company’s other funds, managing the distribution based on the fund’s objectives and market conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Could you explain how a managed fund operates within a company’s portfolio of offerings?

A

Managed funds operate within a company’s portfolio by reallocating investments across the company’s range of funds.

This approach allows for diversified exposure across various asset classes and sectors, managed under a unified strategy that aligns with specific investment goals like growth or income.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What advantages do managed funds offer to investors?

A

Managed funds offer investors the advantage of diversification across multiple investment areas without the need for the investor to select individual funds or securities.

They also benefit from:

  1. Professional management, where the fund manager adjusts allocations to optimize returns
  2. Profesional management managing risks according to prevailing market conditions.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How does the strategy of a managed fund differ from that of a single strategy fund?

A

The strategy of a managed fund differs from that of a single strategy fund in that it involves dynamic allocation across various other funds under the company’s umbrella, allowing for broader market exposure and risk distribution.

In contrast, a single strategy fund focuses on specific asset classes or market sectors, providing more concentrated exposure to its chosen area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is a unit trust?

A

A unit trust is a type of pooled investment created under a trust deed where investors can contribute either a lump sum or make regular contributions.

It is open-ended, allowing the manager to create more units if there is demand.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How are unit trusts categorized?

A

Unit trusts are categorized based on the type of assets they primarily invest in.

Equity trusts invest mainly in shares and pay dividends, whereas fixed-interest trusts invest in interest-yielding assets and pay interest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the types of units available in a unit trust?

A

There are generally two types of units in a unit trust:

  1. Accumulation units, which automatically reinvest any income generated
  2. Distribution or income units, which distribute any income received to unit holders.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the difference between open-ended and closed-ended funds?

A

Open-ended funds like unit trusts allow for the creation of additional units to meet investor demand.

In contrast, closed-ended funds, such as investment trusts, have a fixed number of shares that do not change, and they trade on the stock market.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How does a unit trust aim to produce returns for investors?

A

A unit trust aims to produce returns by selecting investments that will appreciate in value and/or generate income.

The successful performance of these investments increases the unit price, potentially offering investors a profitable return when they sell their units.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Could you explain how the role of a unit trust manager impacts the performance of the fund?

A

The performance of a unit trust significantly depends on the fund manager’s ability to select and manage investments that align with the trust’s objectives for growth and/or income.

The manager’s expertise in choosing the right assets and timing their purchase and sale is crucial for achieving desired returns.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What should investors consider when choosing between accumulation and distribution units in a unit trust?

A

Investors should consider their financial goals and cash flow needs when choosing between accumulation and distribution units.

Accumulation units are suitable for those focusing on long-term capital growth, as they reinvest the income.

Distribution units are better for those seeking regular income from their investments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How do unit trusts manage to remain flexible in terms of unit supply?

A

Unit trusts manage flexibility in unit supply through their open-ended structure, which allows the fund manager to issue more units based on investor demand.

This adaptability helps accommodate more investments without significantly impacting the unit price.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What advantages do unit trusts offer over other forms of investment?

A

Unit trusts offer several advantages, including professional management, diversification, and the ability to invest in a broad range of assets.

The open-ended nature allows for easier liquidity compared to closed-ended investments, and the option to choose between different types of units can cater to various investment preferences.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is a trust in legal terms?

A

In legal terms, a trust is an arrangement where one person (the settlor) transfers assets to another party (the trustees) to manage those assets according to specific rules set out in a trust deed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How does a unit trust operate as a form of trust?

A

A unit trust operates similarly to a trust in that investors give their money to trustees under a trust deed, which outlines the investment rules and objectives.

The trustees oversee a fund manager who uses the funds to achieve the trust’s objectives, ensuring the manager adheres to the terms of the trust deed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What role do trustees play in a unit trust?

A

In a unit trust, trustees are responsible for ensuring that the fund manager complies with the trust deed’s stipulations, effectively safeguarding the investors’ assets and interests.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Could you explain the relationship between a trustee and a fund manager in a unit trust?

A

In a unit trust, the trustees hold the legal title to the trust’s assets and are responsible for oversight.

They monitor the fund manager’s actions to ensure compliance with the investment strategy and rules specified in the trust deed, thereby acting as a safeguard for the investors’ interests.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the responsibilities of trustees in ensuring a unit trust meets its objectives?

A

Trustees are tasked with the crucial responsibility of monitoring the fund manager’s activities, ensuring that the investment decisions and actions are in line with the trust’s objectives as detailed in the trust deed.

This includes regular reviews and audits to maintain alignment with the legal and operational directives of the trust.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How does the structure of a trust enhance the security of investments in a unit trust?

A

The trust structure enhances security by dividing roles and responsibilities: trustees hold legal ownership and provide oversight, while fund managers handle the day-to-day investment activities.

This separation helps prevent misuse of funds and ensures that investment activities are conducted transparently and in the best interest of the investors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How is the price of a unit in a unit trust determined?

A

The price of a unit is determined by calculating the total value of the trust’s assets, subtracting appropriate costs, and then dividing this amount by the number of units issued.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the different prices associated with unit trust transactions?

A

The four key prices in unit trust transactions are:

  1. Creation price: the price at which new units are created by the manager.
  2. Offer price: the price at which investors buy units from the manager.
  3. Bid price: the price at which the manager buys back units from investors.
  4. Cancellation price: the minimum permitted bid price, accounting for the full costs of buying and selling the assets.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How often are unit prices calculated?

A

Unit prices are calculated on a daily basis by the fund manager, using a method outlined in the trust deed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What factors influence the bid price to be above the cancellation price?

A

The bid price can be above the cancellation price when there are both buyers and sellers of units, reducing the need to trade underlying assets and thereby lowering transaction costs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Could you explain why the unit price calculation includes cost adjustments?

A

Cost adjustments are included in the unit price calculation to account for the expenses involved in managing the fund’s assets, such as trading fees, administrative costs, and other operational expenses.

These adjustments ensure that the unit price accurately reflects the net value of the underlying assets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the significance of the cancellation price in unit trust operations?

A

The cancellation price serves as a safeguard that ensures the bid price covers the full costs of buying and selling the underlying assets.

This price is crucial during times of high redemption demands to prevent the fund from incurring losses that could affect remaining investors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How does the daily calculation of unit prices benefit investors?

A

Daily calculation of unit prices provides investors with up-to-date information, reflecting the current value of the underlying securities.

This regular update allows investors to make informed decisions about buying or selling units based on the latest market conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What role does the trust deed play in determining how unit prices are calculated?

A

The trust deed specifies the methodology for calculating unit prices, ensuring that the pricing process is transparent and consistent with the fund’s governing rules.

This formal documentation provides a clear guideline for fund managers and protects investor interests by standardizing how fund values are assessed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How do changes in the value of the underlying securities affect the unit prices of a unit trust?

A

Changes in the value of the underlying securities directly affect the unit prices of a unit trust.

If the value of the securities increases, the unit price will also increase, reflecting the increased value of the fund’s assets.

Conversely, if the value of the securities decreases, the unit price will drop, mirroring the reduced value of the fund’s assets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Can you explain how the offer price and bid price are used in managing investor entries and exits in a unit trust?

A

The offer price is used when investors want to buy units in the trust, typically set slightly higher to include operational costs and ensure the fund’s liquidity.

The bid price, which is generally lower, is used when investors sell their units back to the fund.

This spread between the offer and bid prices helps manage the flow of funds into and out of the trust, balancing new investments with redemptions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is meant by ‘Bid-Offer Spread’?

A

The difference between the price at which a unit is offered to an investor (offer price) and the price at which the fund manager will buy it back (the bid price).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the advantages of using a single-price system in unit trusts?

A

The single-price system in unit trusts simplifies the investment process for investors by providing one clear price for buying or selling units, eliminating the need to navigate the complexities of different buying and selling prices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Why might a unit trust manager opt for a single-price system over a bid-offer spread system?

A

A unit trust manager might opt for a single-price system to make the fund more accessible and understandable to investors, potentially attracting those who prefer straightforward pricing structures.

This can also streamline the pricing process despite the more complex mechanism needed to determine that single price.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Could you explain how the single-price system works in comparison to the bid-offer spread system?

A

In the single-price system, all transactions—whether buying or selling—are conducted at one uniform price.

This contrasts with the bid-offer spread system, where there are two prices, potentially leading to confusion or inefficiency for investors trying to calculate the cost or returns of buying and selling units.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are the implications for investors when choosing between unit trusts with different pricing systems?

A

Investors choosing between unit trusts with different pricing systems should consider their preference for simplicity versus potential cost savings.

A single-price system offers straightforward transactions, while a bid-offer spread might offer opportunities to optimize buying or selling times based on price variations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How does the complexity of determining a single price affect the management of a unit trust?

A

Determining a single price in a unit trust involves more complex calculations to ensure the price accurately reflects the net asset value of the trust’s holdings and associated costs.

This complexity requires precise management and frequent valuation to maintain fairness and accuracy in pricing for all investors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

How is the single price in a unit trust determined?

A

The single price in a unit trust is determined by calculating the net asset value (NAV) of the fund’s total assets, adjusting for any fees or costs associated with managing the fund, and then dividing by the number of outstanding units.

This price reflects the per-unit value of the fund’s assets at any given time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What factors influence the bid and offer prices in a bid-offer spread system?

A

In a bid-offer spread system, the offer price is influenced by factors such as the net asset value plus any additional fees or charges imposed by the fund to cover administrative costs and ensure profitability.

The bid price is generally set lower, reflecting the NAV minus any potential costs or discounts applied by the fund when units are sold back by investors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What should investors be aware of when funds transition from a bid-offer spread to a single-price system?

A

Investors should be aware that while a single-price system simplifies transactions, it may also incorporate all costs into one price, potentially making it slightly higher than the bid price in a spread system.

They should understand how the single price is calculated and consider how changes in fund management fees or cost structures could affect their returns.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

How do regulatory frameworks impact the choice between single-price and bid-offer spread systems in unit trusts?

A

Regulatory frameworks often aim to protect investors by ensuring transparency and fairness in how unit trusts are priced.

Regulations may influence a fund’s choice of pricing system by stipulating how costs are disclosed, how often valuations must occur, and the levels of fees that can be charged, pushing some funds towards more transparent single-price models.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How is the single price determined in a unit trust using a single-price system?

A

The single price in a unit trust is determined based on the net flows of the fund, which assess whether there are more subscriptions (investments) into the fund or more redemptions (withdrawals).

This reflects the overall demand and supply dynamics within the fund.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What does it mean when a fund is in ‘net inflow’?

A

A fund is in ‘net inflow’ when the value of subscriptions exceeds the value of redemptions.

This indicates that more money is entering the fund than leaving, typically leading the single price to be set closer to the offer price due to the need to purchase additional assets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

How does ‘net outflow’ affect the single price of a unit trust?

A

In cases of ‘net outflow,’ where redemptions exceed subscriptions, the single price tends to move closer to the bid price.

This adjustment reflects the costs associated with selling assets to meet redemption demands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What happens to the single price when subscriptions and redemptions are balanced?

A

When subscriptions and redemptions are balanced, resulting in neither significant inflows nor outflows, the single price will generally align with the mid-price of the fund’s assets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Under what circumstances might a unit trust impose an exit charge?

A

Although not common, a unit trust might impose an exit charge if units are sold within a short period, such as three or five years from the date of purchase, to discourage short-term trading and stabilize the fund’s capital.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Could you explain how the costs associated with asset purchases and sales influence the single price in a unit trust?

A

The single price is influenced by the costs of buying or selling assets within the fund.

When the fund experiences a net inflow, the price increases slightly to cover the cost of purchasing additional assets.

Conversely, during net outflows, the price decreases to reflect the costs related to asset sales necessary to fund redemptions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the implications of net inflows and outflows for long-term investors in unit trusts?

A

For long-term investors, net inflows can signal a growing fund, potentially leading to more diversified investments and possibly reduced costs per unit over time.

Net outflows might indicate a shrinking fund, which could lead to higher per-unit costs and might prompt the fund manager to liquidate assets, potentially at less favorable prices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

How do unit trust managers balance the single price amid fluctuating market conditions?

A

Unit trust managers balance the single price by regularly reviewing the fund’s asset values, subscription rates, and redemption demands.

This ongoing assessment helps ensure the price accurately reflects the current value of the fund’s assets and the transaction costs associated with entering or exiting positions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is forward pricing in the context of unit trusts?

A

Forward pricing is a method where the price at which clients buy or sell units is determined at the end of the dealing period, rather than at the time the order is placed.

This means the actual transaction price is unknown when the order is made and is calculated based on the next valuation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How does historic pricing differ from forward pricing?

A

Historic pricing sets the price of units based on the closing price at the end of the previous dealing period.

This means that the price is known at the time of the transaction, unlike in forward pricing where the price is determined after the dealing period closes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Why do unit trusts generally use forward pricing instead of historic pricing?

A

Forward pricing is generally used to ensure fairness among all investors by pricing units based on the most current asset valuations at the end of each dealing period.

This method prevents arbitrage opportunities that could arise if recent market changes were not reflected in the unit prices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Under what conditions are fund managers required to switch from historic to forward pricing?

A

Fund managers must switch from historic to forward pricing if an underlying market in which the trust is invested moves by more than 2% in either direction since the last valuation.

This rule helps ensure that the pricing remains fair and reflective of current market conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Could you explain how forward pricing enhances investor protection in unit trusts?

A

Forward pricing enhances investor protection by ensuring that all transactions are executed at prices that reflect the latest available market information.

This method prevents the potential for pricing errors or manipulations that could disadvantage any investors, especially in volatile markets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are the implications of using historic pricing for investors and fund managers?

A

Using historic pricing can simplify the transaction process for both investors and fund managers, as the price is known in advance.

However, it may also lead to potential disadvantages if market conditions change significantly after the price is set, possibly resulting in less favorable transaction terms for one party.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

How does the requirement to switch from historic to forward pricing affect the management of a unit trust?

A

The requirement to switch from historic to forward pricing necessitates vigilant monitoring of market conditions by fund managers.

This rule ensures that pricing adjustments are made swiftly in response to significant market movements, thereby maintaining pricing accuracy and fairness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What challenges might arise for investors with the uncertainty of forward pricing?

A

Investors may face challenges with forward pricing due to the uncertainty about the price at which their transactions will be executed.

This can make financial planning more complex, especially for those looking to time their investments or withdrawals closely.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

How can investors buy units in a unit trust?

A

Investors can purchase units directly from unit trust managers or through intermediaries.

Purchases can be made in writing, by telephone, or online.

All communications with the manager’s dealing desk are recorded to confirm that a contract has been established.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What documents do investors receive upon purchasing units in a unit trust?

A

Upon purchasing units, investors receive a contract note, which specifies the fund, number of units, unit price, and amount paid.

This document is essential for calculating capital gains tax when the units are sold.

Investors may also receive a unit certificate, which serves as proof of ownership.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

How are units sold in a unit trust?

A

To sell units, if the units are certificated, the holder must sign a form of renunciation on the reverse of the unit certificate and return it to the managers. If selling part of the holding, a new certificate for the remaining units is issued. For non-certificated holdings, a separate form of renunciation may be required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the process for investors using intermediaries to handle their unit trust transactions?

A

Investors using intermediaries such as fund supermarkets to subscribe to a unit trust typically receive their holdings confirmation on a non-certificated basis.

They receive regular statements from the intermediary outlining the number of units held and their current value, rather than directly from the unit trust manager.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Could you explain why unit trusts do not require a secondary market for trading their units?

A

Unit trusts do not require a secondary market because the unit trust managers are obligated to buy back units directly from investors who wish to sell.

This direct transaction simplifies the process and enhances the appeal of unit trusts, making them more accessible to ordinary investors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What advantages does the direct purchase and sale of unit trust units offer to investors?

A

The direct purchase and sale of units simplify the investment process, as investors deal directly with the fund managers or through straightforward channels like intermediaries.

This eliminates the complexities and potential delays associated with trading on a secondary market such as a stock exchange.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

How does the recording of calls to a manager’s dealing desk protect investors?

A

Recording calls to the manager’s dealing desk ensures that there is a verifiable record of each transaction, providing clear evidence of the terms and confirmation of the contract.

This practice protects both the investor and the manager by preventing disputes over transaction details.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What implications does the need for a contract note and unit certificate have for investors in terms of compliance and tax reporting?

A

The contract note is crucial for compliance and tax purposes as it provides the necessary details to report capital gains tax accurately when the units are sold.

The unit certificate acts as legal proof of ownership, which is essential for maintaining accurate records of the investor’s assets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

How does the contract note affect the calculation of capital gains tax?

A

The contract note details the purchase price of the units, which is essential for calculating capital gains tax when the units are sold.

Investors use this price as the cost basis to determine the gain or loss on their investment, which is reported for tax purposes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What are the implications of the renunciation process for investors wanting to sell their units?

A

The renunciation process involves formally relinquishing ownership of the units back to the fund manager.

This process is crucial for transferring the units legally and ensuring that the investor can receive the sale proceeds.

For partial sales, it ensures that the remaining units are accurately re-certificated to reflect the new holding amount.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

How do fund managers ensure the accuracy and fairness of unit pricing during buying and selling transactions?

A

Fund managers use forward pricing mechanisms to ensure accuracy and fairness in unit pricing.

This method calculates the unit price based on the net asset value at the close of each trading day, reflecting recent market conditions and ensuring that all investors buy or sell at a fair price.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What challenges might investors face when dealing with non-certificated units and how are these addressed?

A

Investors with non-certificated units might face challenges related to the lack of physical proof of ownership.

These are typically addressed through regular statements provided by intermediaries, which detail the investor’s holdings and their values, ensuring transparency and up-to-date information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Under what regulatory framework are unit trusts in the UK managed?

A

Unit trusts in the UK are regulated under the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 and must be authorized by the Financial Conduct Authority (FCA) if they are marketed to retail investors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What specific rules does the FCA enforce regarding unit trusts?

A

The FCA enforces rules that ensure unit trusts are suitably diversified and restricts them from borrowing more than 10% of the fund’s net asset value, and only temporarily, to reduce associated risks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What are the primary responsibilities of a unit trust manager?

A

The manager’s responsibilities include managing the trust fund according to the trust deed, valuing the fund’s assets, fixing unit prices, offering units for sale, and buying back units from unit holders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What roles do trustees play in the management of unit trusts?

A

Trustees are responsible for setting the trust’s investment directives, holding and controlling the trust’s assets, ensuring investor protection procedures are in place, approving marketing materials, collecting and distributing income, issuing unit certificates, and supervising the maintenance of the register of unit holders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Could you explain how the regulatory requirements impact the operation of unit trusts?

A

Regulatory requirements ensure that unit trusts operate within a framework that prioritizes investor protection and financial stability.

These rules mandate diversification and limit borrowing, which helps minimize risk and promote prudent management of the funds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

How does the relationship between managers and trustees ensure the protection of investors in unit trusts?

A

The relationship between managers and trustees in a unit trust is structured to ensure checks and balances.

While managers handle the day-to-day operations and investment decisions, trustees oversee these actions to ensure compliance with the regulatory and trust deed requirements, thus safeguarding investor interests.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What challenges might arise from the FCA’s borrowing restrictions on unit trusts, and how do managers cope with these?

A

The borrowing restriction can limit a manager’s ability to leverage for potential gains, especially in opportunities that require quick or significant capital.

Managers cope by ensuring efficient cash management and strategic asset allocation that aligns with the fund’s investment objectives without exceeding regulatory limits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

In what ways do trustees verify compliance with investment directives and protect investors?

A

Trustees verify compliance by regularly reviewing fund activities, ensuring that investments align with the directives specified in the trust deed.

They also protect investors by enforcing strict adherence to FCA regulations, overseeing the accuracy of financial reporting, and validating marketing materials to prevent misleading claims.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

How are unit trusts regulated in the UK?

A

Unit trusts are regulated under the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 and must be authorized by the Financial Conduct Authority (FCA).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What key rules does the FCA enforce for unit trusts?

A

The FCA mandates diversification and limits borrowing to no more than 10% of the fund’s net asset value for temporary periods.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What are the manager’s responsibilities in a unit trust?

A

Managers handle fund management according to the trust deed, set unit prices, manage asset valuations, and oversee unit transactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What are the trustees’ responsibilities?

A

Trustees ensure the fund complies with its investment directives, protect investors, manage the trust’s assets, approve marketing, and supervise the unit holder register.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Why are unit trusts not traded on a stock exchange?

A

Managers must buy back units, eliminating the need for a secondary market and simplifying transactions for investors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What does the trust deed do?

A

It sets obligations for managers and trustees, ensuring the trust operates within defined legal and regulatory frameworks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

How does FCA regulation protect unit trust investors?

A

By ensuring funds are well-diversified and financially stable, reducing the risk of significant losses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

How do unit trusts handle investor exits and entries?

A

Investors can buy units directly from the fund or through intermediaries and sell them back to the fund managers who are obliged to repurchase them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What happens if a unit trust’s market performance significantly changes?

A

If the market changes significantly (e.g., more than 2% movement), fund managers must adjust the fund’s pricing strategy from historic to forward pricing to reflect current market conditions accurately.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

How do the FCA’s rules influence the operational strategies of unit trusts?

A

FCA rules ensure unit trusts operate with financial stability and integrity, influencing fund managers to adopt strategies that prioritize investor protection and compliance with financial regulations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is the significance of the FCA’s borrowing limit for unit trusts?

A

The borrowing limit prevents excessive risk-taking by ensuring that unit trusts do not over-leverage, maintaining financial health and reducing the potential for significant financial distress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What are the two types of charges applied to unit trusts?

A
  1. Initial charge: Covers the cost of purchasing fund assets. The initial charge is typically covere by the bid-offer spread.
  2. Annual management (AUM) charge: A fee paid for the use of the professional investment manager. The charge varies but is typically between 0.5% to 1.5% of fund value. Although it is an annual fee, it is commonly deducted on a monthly or daily basis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

How are unit trusts categorized for tax purposes?

A

Unit trusts are categorized based on their underlying investments: if more than 60% are in cash or fixed-interest securities, they are classified as non-equity funds; if less, they are equity funds.

This classification affects how income distributions are taxed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

How are income distributions from equity and non-equity unit trusts taxed?

A

For non-equity funds, income distributions are treated as interest payments.

For equity funds, distributions are treated as dividends.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Is there any corporation tax on gains within unit trusts?

A

No.

There is no corporation tax on gains within either type of unit trust.

BUT investors may be liable for capital gains tax upon encashing their investment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

How is dividend income from equity-based unit trusts taxed?

A

Dividend income is paid without tax deduction.

It’s tax-free up to the dividend allowance.

Above this, it is taxed at different rates depending on the investor’s tax band.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What is the tax treatment for income from fixed-interest unit trusts?

A

Income from fixed-interest funds is paid gross and considered savings income.

It may be tax-free under certain conditions like falling within the personal savings allowance or starting-rate band for savings, but taxable beyond these limits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What implications do the tax classifications of unit trusts have for investors?

A

The tax classification impacts how investors plan their portfolios based on potential tax liabilities.

Understanding whether a fund is treated as an equity or non-equity can influence an investor’s choice depending on their income needs and tax situation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

How can investors manage potential capital gains tax liabilities from unit trusts?

A

Investors can manage capital gains tax liabilities by timing the sale of their units to coincide with years when they have lower overall capital gains, utilizing capital losses to offset gains, or planning sales to stay within the annual exempt amount.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What responsibilities do investors have in reporting income from unit trusts to HMRC?

A

Investors must declare income that exceeds their personal allowances or savings allowances on their self-assessment tax returns.

This includes any dividend income above the dividend allowance or interest income above the personal savings allowance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What happens to unused dividend or personal savings allowances related to unit trust income?

A

Unused dividend or personal savings allowances cannot be carried over to the next tax year; they must be used within the tax year they are allocated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Are there specific forms or procedures for declaring unit trust income on a self-assessment tax return?

A

Yes.

Investors need to report unit trust income on their self-assessment tax return, detailing the type of income (dividend or interest) and the amount on the appropriate sections of the form.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

How can investors in unit trusts minimize tax liabilities?

A

By timing transactions to use the capital gains tax exemption and balancing between equity and non-equity funds to utilize tax allowances effectively.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Under what conditions is interest income from fixed-interest unit trusts not taxed?

A

Interest income isn’t taxed if it falls within the personal savings allowance or the starting rate band for savings for non-taxpayers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

How does the legal constitution of a unit trust mitigate the risk of fraud?

A

The legal constitution of a unit trust involves trustees who ensure proper management and oversight, significantly reducing the risk of fraud.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What are the general risks of investing in a unit trust compared to direct equity investments?

A

Investing in a unit trust generally involves lower risks compared to direct equity investments because unit trusts pool investments and diversify across a range of 30 to 150 different shares, spreading and reducing individual investment risks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

How does the risk level vary among different types of unit trusts?

A

The risk varies depending on the type of unit trust.

For example, cash funds have risks similar to deposit accounts and are relatively low risk, while specialist funds investing in emerging markets carry higher risks due to their volatility and potential for rapid changes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What additional risks do overseas unit trusts entail?

A

Overseas unit trusts carry the added risk of currency fluctuations, which can affect the value of the investment depending on changes in exchange rates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Can you explain why a pooled investment strategy in unit trusts is considered safer?

A

A pooled investment strategy is safer because it allows for diversification across many different assets, which dilutes the impact of poor performance of any single investment on the overall portfolio.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What should investors consider when choosing a unit trust to match their risk profile?

A

Investors should consider the specific assets included in the fund, the fund’s historical performance, the regions and sectors it invests in, and their own financial goals and risk tolerance to choose a unit trust that best fits their risk profile.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What are the financial risks associated with unit trust investments?

A

Financial risks include the possibility of not recovering the initial capital invested and the potential for fluctuating returns, meaning that there are no guarantees of sustained income or capital growth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

How does the diversification within a unit trust reduce risk?

A

Diversification reduces risk by spreading investments across various sectors and assets, which can mitigate the impact of a downturn in any single sector or asset class on the overall portfolio.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Are there any regulatory risks involved in unit trust investments?

A

Regulatory risks could arise from changes in investment or tax laws that might affect the performance of a unit trust or alter its tax advantages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

How should investors approach unit trust investments considering their varying risk levels?

A

Investors should perform due diligence, assessing their own risk tolerance and financial goals in relation to the specific risks associated with different types of unit trusts, such as market volatility, currency risk, and sector-specific risks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What role do trustees play in managing the risks of a unit trust?

A

Trustees oversee the fund’s management to ensure compliance with regulatory standards and the trust deed, providing an additional layer of security and risk management by verifying that the fund’s assets are managed properly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What is an investment trust?

A

An investment trust is a publicly listed company that invests in other companies’ stocks and shares.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

How does an investment trust differ from a unit trust and an OEIC?

A

Investment trusts are closed-ended, meaning they have a fixed number of shares, unlike open-ended unit trusts and OEICs that issue new shares or units based on investor demand.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What legal and regulatory frameworks govern investment trusts?

A

They are governed by company law, must meet FCA requirements for a stock market listing, and operate under their memorandum and articles of association.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Why might an investor choose an investment trust over a unit trust or an OEIC?

A

Investment trusts can offer price stability and the potential for higher returns due to their fixed share structure, allowing for long-term investment strategies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What implications does the closed-ended structure of investment trusts have for investors?

A

Shares may trade at a premium or discount to the net asset value, offering potential bargains or gains but also posing liquidity risks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

How are investment trusts managed?

A

Investment trusts are managed by a board of directors and a fund manager who makes decisions about which assets to invest in, aiming to maximize returns for shareholders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What are the tax implications for investment trust shareholders?

A

Shareholders in investment trusts may have to pay capital gains tax on any profits made from selling their shares if the gains exceed their annual exempt amount.

Dividends received may also be subject to income tax beyond the dividend allowance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

How does the fixed number of shares in an investment trust affect its market price?

A

Since the number of shares is fixed, market prices can fluctuate based on supply and demand dynamics, potentially leading the shares to trade at prices above (premium) or below (discount) the actual net asset value of the trust’s portfolio.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What strategies should investors consider when buying shares in investment trusts to maximize returns?

A

Investors should consider buying shares when they trade at a discount to the net asset value and selling when they trade at a premium, as well as paying attention to the historical performance and management strategy of the trust.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

How does the performance of an investment trust compare to direct stock investments?

A

Investment trusts may provide more stable returns through diversification and professional management, though they can still be subject to market risks similar to direct stock investments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What is Net Asset Value (NAV) per share?

A

Total value of the investment fund’s assets less its liabilities, divided by the number of shares issued.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

How can you invest in an investment trust?

A

You can invest in an investment trust through a stockbroker, a financial adviser, or directly from the investment trust manager.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

How are shares of an investment trust sold?

A

Shares of an investment trust are sold via a stockbroker or directly back to the investment trust manager.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What fees are associated with buying and selling shares in an investment trust?

A

Dealing fees are added to any purchase and deducted from any sale of shares.

Additionally, an annual management charge between 0.5% and 1.5% is also payable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

How is the share price of an investment trust determined?

A

The share price of an investment trust is influenced by the value of the underlying investments, but also by supply and demand factors that can cause the shares to trade at a premium or discount to the net asset value (NAV).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What does it mean when an investment trust trades at a discount or a premium?

A

An investment trust trades at a discount when its share price is less than the NAV, indicating lower demand. It trades at a premium when its share price is higher than the NAV, reflecting higher demand.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What factors might influence the demand for shares in an investment trust?

A

Demand for shares in an investment trust can be influenced by factors such as the trust’s performance, market conditions, investor sentiment, and broader economic factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

How does the pricing mechanism of investment trusts compare to that of unit trusts?

A

Unlike unit trusts, where the price directly reflects the NAV, the price of investment trust shares can deviate from the NAV due to market-driven supply and demand, leading to trading at premiums or discounts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What is ‘Gearing’?

A

The level of debt as a percentage of a company’s equity.

It is a way of measuring the extent to which a company’s operations are funde by borrowing rather than by shareholer capital.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

What is gearing in the context of investment trusts?

A

Gearing, also known as leverage, refers to the practice of investment trusts borrowing money to invest in opportunities, aiming to amplify returns.

161
Q

How does gearing differentiate investment trusts from unit trusts and OEICs?

A

Unlike investment trusts, unit trusts and OEICs can only borrow money short-term and against known future cash inflows, making investment trusts unique in their ability to use long-term debt for investment purposes.

162
Q

What are the potential effects of gearing in investment trusts?

A

Gearing can enhance returns in a rising market by increasing the investment capital.

However, it also increases risk as it can amplify losses in a falling market.

163
Q

What does it mean when an investment trust is described as ‘highly geared’ or ‘highly leveraged’?

A

An investment trust described as ‘highly geared’ has a high level of borrowing relative to its assets, indicating an aggressive strategy to achieve high returns but also facing increased risks of financial distress if unable to meet debt obligations.

164
Q

Why might an investment trust choose to use high levels of gearing?

A

An investment trust might use high levels of gearing to capitalize on potential high-return investment opportunities that require more capital than available through equity alone, aiming for substantial growth.

165
Q

What should investors consider before investing in a highly geared investment trust?

A

Investors should consider their risk tolerance and the potential for both high returns and significant losses.

Understanding the market conditions and the specific investment strategy of the trust is crucial due to the increased volatility introduced by high gearing.

166
Q

How does gearing impact the financial stability of investment trusts?

A

Gearing increases financial obligations in the form of interest payments and debt repayment. In stable or rising markets, the additional capital can lead to higher returns, but during downturns, the financial burden can compromise stability and lead to losses.

167
Q

How must income received by investment trusts be managed?

A

At least 85% of the income received by the fund managers of investment trusts must be distributed as dividends to shareholders.

168
Q

How are dividends from investment trusts taxed?

A

Dividends from investment trusts are taxed in the same manner as dividends from equity unit trusts.

Investors may owe income tax on these dividends depending on their total income and the dividend allowance.

169
Q

Are investment trusts subject to corporation tax on capital gains?

A

No, like unit trusts, investment trusts are exempt from corporation tax on capital gains.

170
Q

When are investors in investment trusts liable for capital gains tax (CGT)?

A

Investors are liable for CGT on the sale of their investment trust shares if the total gains for the tax year, including other realized gains, exceed the CGT annual exempt amount.

171
Q

What financial obligations do shareholders of investment trusts have regarding dividend income?

A

Shareholders are responsible for reporting dividend income on their tax returns and may have to pay tax if their total dividend income exceeds the annual dividend allowance.

172
Q

How does the tax treatment of investment trusts affect investor returns?

A

The tax treatment of investment trusts can affect net returns, as investors may need to pay income tax on dividends and CGT on gains, reducing the effective yield and growth achieved through these investments.

173
Q

What happens if an investor’s dividend income from an investment trust falls below the dividend allowance?

A

If an investor’s dividend income from an investment trust falls below the dividend allowance, no income tax is due on that dividend income.

174
Q

How can investors in investment trusts minimize their tax liability on dividends?

A

Investors can minimize their tax liability on dividends by utilizing their annual dividend allowance effectively, and where possible, holding investment trust shares within tax-advantaged accounts like ISAs, where dividends are not subject to income tax.

175
Q

What are the implications of the CGT exemption for the fund managers of investment trusts?

A

The exemption from corporation tax on capital gains for fund managers allows investment trusts to reinvest more of their profits, potentially enhancing the fund’s growth and the value of shareholders’ investments without the burden of tax on those gains.

176
Q

How should investors prepare for potential CGT liabilities when selling investment trust shares?

A

Investors should track the acquisition cost of their shares and the disposal proceeds to accurately calculate any capital gain.

They should also be aware of the annual CGT exempt amount and plan disposals to potentially spread gains across tax years if nearing the threshold.

177
Q

What is a split-capital investment trust?

A

A split-capital investment trust is a type of fixed-term investment trust that offers multiple types of shares, each catering to different investment preferences regarding income and capital growth.

178
Q

What types of shares do split-capital investment trusts offer?

A

Common types include:

  1. Income shares: These provide all the income generated by the trust’s portfolio but no capital growth.
  2. Capital shares: These offer no income but entitle holders to all the capital growth after meeting fixed capital requirements upon the trust’s termination.
179
Q

How do split-capital investment trusts cater to different investor needs?

A

Besides income and capital shares, these trusts often offer additional share classes that combine varying proportions of income and growth potential, allowing investors to select options that best align with their financial goals.

180
Q

Why might an investor choose income shares over capital shares in a split-capital investment trust?

A

Investors might choose income shares if they prioritize regular income over capital appreciation, such as retirees seeking steady cash flow, whereas capital shares might appeal to those focused on long-term asset growth.

181
Q

What are the risks associated with investing in split-capital investment trusts?

A

The risks include:

  1. Market volatility affecting capital growth shares and the potential for low income if the underlying assets perform poorly.

Additionally…

  1. The fixed-term nature means liquidity might be limited until the trust is wound up.
182
Q

How do the different share types in split-capital investment trusts affect the overall risk profile of these investments?

A

Each share type has a different risk profile: income shares generally have lower risk and provide steady returns, while capital shares carry higher risk with the potential for greater returns.

Investors must balance their risk tolerance with their need for income or growth.

183
Q

What is a Real Estate Investment Trust (REIT)?

A

A REIT is a tax-efficient property investment vehicle that allows private investors to invest in property markets without many of the disadvantages of direct property ownership, such as high initial costs and management complexities.

184
Q

What are the tax advantages of investing in a REIT?

A

REITs are exempt from paying corporation tax on the property rental income and growth, provided they meet certain conditions.

Additionally, purchases of REIT shares are subject to a lower stamp duty reserve tax rate of 0.5%.

185
Q

What requirements must REITs meet to maintain their tax-efficient status?

A

REITs must derive at least 75% of their gross income from property rent, distribute at least 90% of their rental profits to shareholders, and no individual shareholder can hold more than 10% of the shares.

186
Q

How are REIT dividends taxed?

A

Dividends are distributed net of basic-rate tax, and higher- and additional-rate taxpayers may owe additional tax.

Dividends can be paid in cash or as stock dividends and are taxable according to dividend tax rates.

187
Q

Why might an investor consider REITs over direct property investment?

A

Investors might consider REITs for lower entry costs, reduced management hassle, and significant tax advantages, making it easier to gain exposure to real estate markets.

188
Q

What are the limitations or risks associated with investing in REITs?

A

Risks include market volatility affecting property values and rents, potential regulatory changes impacting tax benefits, and the specific risk profile of properties owned by the REIT, such as geographic or sector concentration.

189
Q

How do the distribution requirements of REITs affect investor returns?

A

The requirement to distribute at least 90% of rental profits ensures that shareholders receive regular income, which can be attractive to income-focused investors, but may limit the amount of capital REITs can reinvest for growth.

190
Q

What is an OEIC?

A

An OEIC (Open-Ended Investment Company) is a type of limited liability company that pools investors’ funds to buy and sell shares of other companies and engage in other investment activities, operating with the ability to issue an unlimited number of shares.

191
Q

How does the open-ended structure of an OEIC work?

A

The open-ended nature of an OEIC allows it to issue new shares or redeem shares based on investor demand, with the fund’s size adjusting accordingly.

This flexibility helps manage inflows and outflows without disrupting the portfolio balance.

192
Q

What are the borrowing capabilities of an OEIC compared to an investment trust?

A

Unlike investment trusts, which can borrow money to finance long-term investments, OEICs are only permitted to borrow money for short-term purposes.

193
Q

How is the value of OEIC shares determined?

A

The value of OEIC shares is determined by the market value of the underlying investments held by the company, fluctuating based on the performance of these assets.

194
Q

What are the benefits of investing in an OEIC compared to direct stock investments?

A

Investing in an OEIC offers diversification, professional management, and the flexibility of adjusting investment size through the purchase or sale of shares, reducing the risk and complexity involved in direct stock investments.

195
Q

How do umbrella structures within OEICs benefit investors?

A

Umbrella structures in OEICs allow for the creation of sub-funds under the main company, enabling investors to choose from different types of shares and investment strategies within the same organizational framework, catering to varying risk tolerances and investment objectives.

196
Q

What similarities and differences exist between OEICs, unit trusts, and investment trusts?

A

OEICs share similarities with unit trusts and investment trusts in terms of investment pooling and the option for lump sum or regular contributions.

However, they differ in corporate structure and borrowing capabilities, with OEICs and investment trusts operating as companies but having different borrowing limits.

197
Q

How are OEICs regulated?

A

OEICs are regulated by the Financial Conduct Authority (FCA) in the UK, ensuring they adhere to specific standards of operation and investor protection.

198
Q

What types of assets can OEICs invest in?

A

OEICs can invest in a wide range of assets including stocks, bonds, real estate, and other financial instruments, depending on the specific objectives of the fund.

199
Q

What are the tax implications for investors in OEICs?

A

Investors in OEICs may be subject to capital gains tax on any profits made from selling their shares, and dividends received may be subject to income tax, depending on individual circumstances and existing tax legislation.

200
Q

How do the fees for investing in OEICs compare to other investment vehicles?

A

OEICs typically charge management fees and potentially other charges like initial service fees or performance fees, which can vary widely and may be competitive with or differ from fees charged by unit trusts or investment trusts.

201
Q

What factors should investors consider when choosing between different OEICs?

A

Investors should consider the OEIC’s investment strategy, historical performance, fee structure, the risk associated with its assets, and how well it aligns with their own investment goals and risk tolerance.

202
Q

How might market conditions affect the performance and management of OEICs?

A

Market conditions can significantly impact the asset value within an OEIC, influencing the performance.

Managers may adjust strategies in response to market changes to protect investments or capitalize on opportunities.

203
Q

How are OEICs regulated?

A

OEICs are regulated under the Open-Ended Investment Companies Regulations 2001 and must be authorized by the Financial Conduct Authority (FCA).

They follow a regulatory framework similar to that for unit trusts.

204
Q

What is the role of a depositary in an OEIC?

A

The depositary oversees the operation of the OEIC, ensuring compliance with FCA regulations and investor protection requirements. This role is analogous to the trustee in a unit trust.

205
Q

What are the responsibilities of an authorized corporate director (ACD) in an OEIC?

A

The ACD manages the OEIC’s investments, handles the buying and selling of shares according to investor demand, and ensures that the share price accurately reflects the underlying net asset value of the investments.

206
Q

What types of investment options do OEICs offer?

A

OEICs offer a range of investment options similar to unit trusts, including income, capital growth, fixed income, access to overseas and specialist markets, and index tracking.

207
Q

Why is FCA authorization crucial for the operation of an OEIC?

A

FCA authorization ensures that OEICs adhere to stringent standards for operation and investor protection, maintaining trust and integrity within the financial market.

208
Q

How does the structure of an OEIC affect its investment flexibility and appeal to investors?

A

The structure of an OEIC allows for a wide range of investment strategies and markets, making it appealing to investors seeking diversification and access to specialized sectors through a regulated, flexible investment vehicle.

209
Q

What similarities do OEICs share with unit trusts, and why are these similarities important?

A

Both OEICs and unit trusts are collective investment schemes that pool investor funds to purchase a diversified portfolio of assets.

Their similarities in structure and regulation make them both accessible and attractive to a broad range of investors, offering various risk-return profiles suitable for different investment goals.

210
Q

How is the share price of an OEIC determined?

A

The share price of an OEIC is calculated by dividing the total value of its assets by the number of shares in issue, similar to how unit prices are determined in unit trusts.

211
Q

What is swing pricing in the context of OEICs?

A

Swing pricing is a method used by some OEICs where the single quoted share price adjusts or ‘swings’ to reflect transaction costs associated with buying assets during net inflows or selling assets during net outflows, effectively shifting towards a bid or offer price.

212
Q

How does swing pricing affect the share price of an OEIC?

A

Swing pricing adjusts the share price to account for transaction costs, ensuring that these costs are borne by the investors who cause them (either entering or exiting the fund), rather than by all investors in the fund.

213
Q

Why might an OEIC use swing pricing instead of having separate bid and offer prices?

A

OEICs use swing pricing to manage the impact of transaction costs on the fund’s assets, ensuring fair treatment of all shareholders by preventing existing investors from bearing the costs associated with accommodating large purchases or sales by others.

214
Q

What are the benefits of single pricing for investors in OEICs?

A

Single pricing simplifies the investment process by offering a clear, straightforward price at which all shares are bought and sold, making it easier for investors to understand their transactions without needing to navigate a spread between bid and offer prices.

215
Q

How does swing pricing compare to traditional bid and offer pricing in terms of investor impact?

A

Swing pricing can be more equitable, as it ensures that those causing the fund to incur transaction costs (by subscribing to or redeeming from the fund) directly cover these costs, unlike traditional bid and offer pricing, which can create discrepancies that might disadvantage either incoming or outgoing investors depending on market conditions.

216
Q

What is an initial or buying charge in the context of OEICs?

A

The initial or buying charge is a fee added to the unit price when purchasing shares of an OEIC, typically ranging from 3% to 5% of the investment amount.

217
Q

What are annual management charges in OEICs?

A

Annual management charges are fees levied based on the value of the fund, generally between 0.5% for indexed funds and 1.5% for more actively managed funds.

218
Q

What is a dilution levy in an OEIC?

A

A dilution levy is an additional charge that may be applied to the unit price on the purchase or deducted from the price on sale of shares, particularly in situations of large fund inflows or outflows to protect existing investors from the costs associated with these large trades.

219
Q

How do the charges associated with OEICs affect an investor’s overall return?

A

Charges such as initial buying fees, annual management charges, and dilution levies can significantly impact an investor’s overall return by reducing the net gains or increasing the net losses, especially in the case of short-term investments.

220
Q

Why do OEICs implement charges like the dilution levy?

A

OEICs implement a dilution levy to ensure that the costs incurred from large individual transactions do not affect the fund’s overall value, thereby protecting existing investors from the effects of substantial capital movements into or out of the fund.

221
Q

What should investors consider regarding fees when choosing to invest in an OEIC?

A

Investors should carefully consider the total cost of investment, including initial charges, annual fees, and any potential dilution levies, as these can vary widely between funds and significantly affect long-term investment growth.

222
Q

How are OEICs taxed in terms of income?

A

OEICs are taxed on their income based on whether they are classified as fixed-income or equity-based.

Fixed-income OEICs distribute interest without tax deducted but are subject to income tax.

Equity-based OEICs distribute dividends without tax deducted, and these are subject to income tax if they exceed the dividend allowance.

223
Q

What are the tax implications for fixed-income OEICs?

A

Interest from fixed-income OEICs is taxed as savings income.

Basic and higher-rate taxpayers will pay income tax on interest that exceeds their personal savings allowance and starting-rate band for savings.

Additional-rate taxpayers are liable for income tax on the full interest amount received.

224
Q

How are dividends from equity-based OEICs taxed?

A

Dividends from equity-based OEICs are paid without tax deduction.

Tax liability arises for basic, higher, and additional-rate taxpayers only if total dividend income exceeds their dividend allowance.

225
Q

Are OEIC fund managers subject to corporation tax on capital gains?

A

No, OEIC fund managers are not subject to corporation tax on capital gains.

226
Q

When are individual investors liable for capital gains tax (CGT) in relation to OEICs?

A

Individual investors may be liable for CGT when they encash their shares in an OEIC, if the realized gains exceed the annual CGT exempt amount.

227
Q

What tax considerations should investors keep in mind when investing in OEICs?

A

Investors should consider their income tax bracket, the type of OEIC (equity or fixed-income), and their available tax allowances (personal savings and dividend allowances) to understand potential tax liabilities on the income received from OEICs.

228
Q

How can investors manage potential tax liabilities from investments in OEICs?

A

Investors can manage tax liabilities by utilizing tax-efficient wrappers like ISAs, where interest and dividends are not subject to income tax, and by planning the timing of buy and sell transactions to optimize capital gains tax liabilities.

229
Q

What is a reporting fund?

A

A reporting fund is an offshore investment vehicle that reports all annual income attributable to an investor, distributed or not, to tax authorities. Investors are taxed on this reported income and gains.

230
Q

What are the tax implications for investments in a reporting fund?

A

Investors in reporting funds are liable for income tax on the income reported by the fund and capital gains tax (CGT) on any gains realized upon disposal of their investment.

231
Q

What is a non-reporting fund?

A

A non-reporting fund is an offshore fund that does not report the income attributable to investors.

Instead, gains realized upon disposal are taxed as income, not as capital gains.

232
Q

How are gains from non-reporting funds taxed for UK residents?

A

Gains from non-reporting funds are taxed as income rather than under capital gains tax, potentially resulting in higher tax rates depending on the investor’s income tax bracket.

233
Q

Why might an investor choose to invest in a reporting fund over a non-reporting fund?

A

Investors might prefer reporting funds due to the potential tax benefits of capital gains tax rates on disposals, which can be lower than income tax rates, and for greater transparency and predictability in tax planning.

234
Q

What should UK investors consider when investing in offshore funds in terms of tax compliance?

A

UK investors should consider the reporting status of the fund, understand the tax obligations for both income and disposals, and ensure they are compliant with all UK tax reporting and payment requirements.

235
Q

How does the tax treatment of reporting and non-reporting funds impact investment returns?

A

The tax treatment can significantly impact the net returns from investments in offshore funds.

Reporting funds offer the advantage of capital gains tax, which might have lower rates compared to income tax rates applied to gains from non-reporting funds.

236
Q

What are the general risks of investing in an OEIC?

A

Investing in an OEIC carries risks such as the possibility of not maintaining the original capital value and uncertainty regarding the level of income that will be generated, despite professional management and diversification.

237
Q

How do FCA rules on diversification and borrowing affect the risk profile of an OEIC?

A

FCA rules require OEICs to diversify their investments and limit their borrowing, which helps reduce the overall risk by spreading exposure across various assets and minimizing the potential negative impact of high leverage.

238
Q

How does the pooled nature of an OEIC mitigate individual investment risk?

A

The pooled nature of an OEIC allows for professional management and diversification across a wider range of assets than most individuals could achieve on their own, thus reducing the risk associated with individual equity investments.

239
Q

Why might an investor consider an OEIC less risky compared to direct equity investments?

A

An investor might consider an OEIC less risky because it combines the expertise of professional managers who can navigate market complexities and the diversified approach which spreads out potential losses across various investments.

240
Q

What should potential investors consider regarding the lack of capital and income guarantees in OEICs?

A

Potential investors should assess their risk tolerance and investment goals in light of the fact that OEICs do not guarantee capital preservation or a certain income level, and they should consider how these factors align with their financial planning needs.

241
Q

How can investors manage the inherent risks when investing in OEICs?

A

Investors can manage risks by choosing OEICs with investment strategies that match their risk tolerance, diversifying their overall investment portfolio to include various types of assets, and regularly reviewing their investment positions in response to market changes and personal financial goals.

242
Q

What is an endowment?

A

An endowment is an investment product that combines life assurance with regular savings, providing a lump sum upon the death of the insured during the term, or at maturity if the insured survives.

243
Q

How have ISAs impacted the popularity of endowments?

A

The introduction of Individual Savings Accounts (ISAs) has reduced the popularity of endowments, as ISAs often provide more flexible and potentially tax-efficient savings options.

244
Q

What are the main types of endowments?

A

The common types of endowments are with-profits and unit-linked.

With-profits endowments offer a minimum guaranteed value at maturity, whereas unit-linked plans’ values depend on the performance of the underlying investments.

245
Q

What risks are associated with unit-linked endowment plans?

A

Unit-linked endowment plans carry higher risk as there is no guaranteed minimum value at maturity; the return depends entirely on the market performance of the underlying investments.

246
Q

Why might someone choose a with-profits endowment over a unit-linked plan?

A

Someone might choose a with-profits endowment for the security of a guaranteed minimum return at maturity, making it suitable for investors seeking lower-risk options.

247
Q

How are endowments used in conjunction with mortgages?

A

Endowments are commonly used as a repayment vehicle for interest-only mortgages, where the endowment policy is intended to grow sufficiently to repay the loan at the end of the mortgage term.

248
Q

What should potential investors consider before investing in an endowment?

A

Investors should consider their long-term financial goals, risk tolerance, and the specific features of the endowment type, such as guarantees, potential returns, and associated costs.

249
Q

What are the tax implications of investing in endowments?

A

While specific tax implications can vary, endowments typically offer tax benefits such as the growth within the policy being largely tax-free.

However, depending on the jurisdiction and specific policy terms, the payout may still be subject to taxes.

250
Q

How do the guarantees in a with-profits endowment work?

A

In a with-profits endowment, the insurer adds annual bonuses to the policy, which, once added, cannot be taken away and form part of the guaranteed amount payable at maturity or on death.

There may also be a terminal bonus paid at the end of the policy term.

251
Q

What factors affect the bonuses added to a with-profits endowment?

A

Bonuses are affected by the performance of the insurer’s investment pool, economic conditions, and the actuarial assumptions of future obligations and current surplus.

252
Q

What are the potential drawbacks of investing in endowments for long-term financial planning?

A

Potential drawbacks include the possibility of returns not keeping pace with other investment options due to conservative investment strategies typically employed in with-profits funds, and the inflexibility of regular premium payments which may not be suitable for all financial situations.

253
Q

How do economic conditions influence the performance of unit-linked endowments?

A

Since unit-linked endowments are directly tied to the market performance of their underlying investments, economic downturns can significantly reduce their value, while upturns can enhance their growth, making them more volatile.

254
Q

What should investors consider when choosing between a with-profits and a unit-linked endowment?

A

Investors should consider their risk tolerance, financial goals, need for potential guarantees, and their comfort with market volatility.

With-profits offer more stability and guarantees, whereas unit-linked plans offer higher growth potential but with greater risk.

255
Q

What is a Friendly Society?

A

Friendly societies are mutual self-help organizations that originated in the eighteenth century, offering a range of financial services including tax-exempt savings plans.

256
Q

What are the tax benefits of a Friendly Society plan?

A

Friendly Society plans are exempt from corporation tax on investment returns, and there is no tax charged upon encashment of the plan, providing significant tax advantages over conventional endowments.

257
Q

What are the contribution limits for Friendly Society plans?

A

Contributions to a Friendly Society plan are limited to £270 per year as a lump sum, £25 per month, or £75 per quarter to maintain the tax-exempt status.

258
Q

What is the typical term for a Friendly Society plan?

A

These plans are typically set up over an initial ten-year term.

259
Q

Why might Friendly Society plans be particularly attractive for saving on behalf of children or grandchildren?

A

These plans are attractive for saving for children or grandchildren due to their tax-exempt status and the structured long-term saving approach, making them ideal for accumulating funds for future expenses like education.

260
Q

How do Friendly Society plans compare to other long-term saving options?

A

Compared to other savings options, Friendly Society plans offer unique tax benefits, but with relatively low contribution limits.

They are ideal for small, regular contributions that grow over time without tax implications.

261
Q

What should potential investors consider before investing in a Friendly Society plan?

A

Investors should consider the contribution limits, the long-term nature of the investment, the specific financial goals they have for the funds, and the potential returns in comparison to other tax-advantaged investment vehicles.

262
Q

What are investment bonds?

A

Investment bonds are single-premium, whole-of-life assurance policies offered by life assurance companies that allow an investor to make a lump-sum investment into a unitized fund.

263
Q

How do investment bonds work if they are unit-linked?

A

In unit-linked investment bonds, the lump-sum premium buys a certain number of units in a chosen fund at the offer price.

The policy’s value is equivalent to the value of these units at the bid price upon surrender.

264
Q

What are the advantages of investment bonds?

A

Investment bonds offer ease of investment and surrender, simple documentation, and flexibility to switch between funds within the same company without incurring costs from bid-offer spreads.

265
Q

What happens upon the death of the person assured under an investment bond?

A

Upon the death of the life assured, the policy ceases, and the payout is typically 101% of the value of the units at the bid price on the date of death.

266
Q

Why might an investor choose investment bonds over direct investments in unit trusts or investment trusts?

A

Investors might choose investment bonds for the additional life assurance benefit, the tax treatment, and the simplicity of managing investments with features like easy fund switches and straightforward documentation.

267
Q

What should investors consider before investing in a with-profits investment bond?

A

Investors should consider the potential penalties for early surrender, particularly within the first few years, and the overall performance of the with-profits fund, which can vary based on the life company’s investment success and bonus allocation.

268
Q

How do the tax implications of investment bonds compare to other investment vehicles?

A

Investment bonds may offer tax advantages such as deferred taxation or tax-efficient withdrawals, making them suitable for long-term investment planning, especially for higher-rate taxpayers seeking to manage their tax liabilities.

269
Q

How are the funds within investment bonds taxed?

A

The funds within investment bonds are taxed internally at a rate of 20% on capital gains, unlike unit trust funds which are exempt from such tax.

This tax paid within the fund is not recoverable by investors, regardless of their personal tax situation.

270
Q

What distinguishes the tax treatment of investment bonds from that of unit trusts?

A

nvestment bonds are taxed internally at 20% on capital gains, and this cost is absorbed within the fund.

In contrast, unit trusts do not pay this tax, potentially making unit trusts more tax-efficient for investors who are exempt from capital gains tax.

271
Q

What are the tax implications for policyholders when they encash investment bonds?

A

When policyholders encash their investment bonds, they are considered to have already paid 20% tax within the fund.

Therefore, higher- and additional-rate taxpayers may have additional tax liabilities if their effective tax rate exceeds this amount.

272
Q

Why are investment bonds considered non-qualifying policies and what are the implications?

A

Investment bonds are non-qualifying policies because they do not meet certain criteria that would make them qualifying, such as regular premium payments over a minimum term.

As non-qualifying policies, they do not offer the same tax benefits as qualifying policies, such as tax-free proceeds on maturity.

273
Q

How should investors manage the potential tax impacts of investing in non-qualifying investment bonds?

A

Investors should plan for potential tax liabilities upon encashment, particularly if they are higher- or additional-rate taxpayers.

Consulting with a tax advisor can help manage these liabilities and integrate the investment into broader tax planning strategies.

274
Q

What strategic considerations should investors make due to the internal tax paid on investment bonds?

A

Investors should consider the impact of the internal 20% tax on the overall return of their investment bonds.

This might make investment bonds less attractive compared to other investment vehicles, especially for those who are not subject to capital gains tax, or it might influence the timing of when to encash the policy to optimize tax outcomes.

275
Q

What is a qualifying life assurance policy?

A

A qualifying life policy meets certain criteria such as regular premium payments over a minimum term, leading to tax-free proceeds on death or maturity.

276
Q

What is a non-qualifying life assurance policy?

A

A non-qualifying policy does not meet these specific criteria and may result in tax liabilities on the proceeds for higher- and additional-rate taxpayers.

277
Q

What are the tax implications for non-qualifying life policies?

A

Proceeds from non-qualifying policies may be subject to income tax on gains above the premiums paid, particularly affecting higher tax bracket individuals.

278
Q

Why might an individual choose a non-qualifying policy?

A

Individuals may opt for non-qualifying policies for their flexibility in premium contributions or potential for higher returns not typically available in qualifying policies.

279
Q

How can policyholders manage the tax implications of non-qualifying policies?

A

Policyholders should consider their future tax situation and possibly consult with a financial advisor to plan for any potential tax liabilities upon maturity or withdrawal.

280
Q

What should be considered when choosing between qualifying and non-qualifying policies?

A

Considerations should include the individual’s tax bracket, financial goals, premium payment flexibility, and the importance of tax-free policy proceeds.

281
Q

What specific criteria must a life assurance policy meet to be considered qualifying?

A

To be qualifying, a policy generally must involve regular premium payments over a minimum term of 10 years, and there must be no large variations in the amount paid in the premiums during that time.

282
Q

Can non-qualifying policies ever become qualifying during their term?

A

Typically, a non-qualifying policy cannot be altered to meet the qualifying criteria after it has been issued; the status is based on the terms set at the start of the policy.

283
Q

Are there different types of non-qualifying policies?

A

Yes, there are different types of non-qualifying policies, including single-premium bonds, and policies that allow flexible or variable premium payments which exceed the set thresholds for qualifying policies.

284
Q

What financial strategies can minimize the tax impact on non-qualifying policy proceeds?

A

Strategies might include allocating non-qualifying policy investments in years with lower individual income to minimize tax rates on proceeds or using tax-deferred accounts for other investments to balance the tax liability.

285
Q

How do changes in tax laws affect qualifying and non-qualifying life assurance policies?

A

Changes in tax laws can alter the relative benefits of these policies, potentially impacting decisions about which type of policy is more advantageous under new tax conditions.

286
Q

What are the estate planning implications of owning qualifying versus non-qualifying life policies?

A

Qualifying policies can offer straightforward estate planning benefits due to their tax-free nature at payout, while non-qualifying policies might require more careful planning to mitigate potential tax burdens on beneficiaries.

287
Q

What are the specific criteria for a life assurance policy to qualify for tax benefits?

A

A life assurance policy qualifies for tax benefits if it meets these conditions:

  1. Premiums - Must be payable annually, half-yearly, quarterly or monthly and set up for MINIMUM 10 years.
  2. Discontinuing payments of premiums - If premiums cease WITHIN 10 years, or three-quarters of the original term if this is less than 10 years, the policy becomes non-qualifying.
  3. Sum payable on death - Must be at least equal to 75% of the total premiums payable.
  4. Premiums in any one year must NOT exceed twice the premiums in any other year, or 1/8 of the total premiums payable.
288
Q

What triggers a qualifying life policy to lose its qualifying status?

A

A qualifying policy becomes non-qualifying if premiums cease within the first ten years or before three-quarters of the policy term is completed, whichever is less.

289
Q

Why do qualifying policies have restrictions on premium variability?

A

Restrictions on premium variability ensure that the policy remains fundamentally a protection product, rather than being used primarily as an investment tool, which helps maintain the integrity of the tax benefits associated with life assurance.

290
Q

What are the tax implications if a life policy is non-qualifying?

A

For non-qualifying policies, any proceeds received upon maturity or surrender of the policy may be subject to income tax, especially for higher and additional-rate taxpayers, as opposed to qualifying policies where the proceeds are generally tax-free.

291
Q

What are the additional tax implications for higher-rate and additional-rate taxpayers on gains from investment bonds?

A

Higher-rate taxpayers will pay an additional 20% income tax on gains from investment bonds, while additional-rate taxpayers will pay an additional 25%.

292
Q

How is the gain from an investment bond calculated?

A

The gain is calculated by taking the surrender value plus any withdrawals previously made that haven’t been taxed, and subtracting the original investment.

293
Q

What is top slicing in the context of investment bonds, and how does it benefit taxpayers?

A

Top slicing allows the gain to be averaged over the term of the policy, potentially keeping part of the gain within a lower tax band or making use of the personal savings allowance, reducing the immediate income tax liability.

294
Q

How does top slicing work when a gain might push a basic-rate taxpayer into a higher tax bracket?

A

If top slicing results in the gain remaining within the basic-rate tax band, no further income tax is payable beyond what is deemed to have been paid at source, as the basic-rate tax liability is considered settled.

295
Q

What options do investment bond holders have for withdrawing funds without immediate tax implications?

A

Investors can withdraw up to 5% of the original investment each year without incurring an immediate tax liability.

This allowance can be carried forward and accumulated up to 100% of the original investment.

296
Q

Are withdrawals from investment bonds tax-free?

A

Withdrawals up to 5% per year are tax-deferred, not tax-exempt.

This means while there is no immediate tax on these withdrawals, they could be subject to tax when the bond is encashed or upon the death of the holder, depending on total gains.

297
Q

How is the tax on gains from investment bonds calculated for higher and additional-rate taxpayers?

A

For higher-rate taxpayers, an additional 20% income tax is applied to the gain, and for additional-rate taxpayers, an extra 25% is applied.

The gain includes the surrender value plus any untaxed withdrawals minus the original investment.

298
Q

What is top slicing in investment bonds, and how does it affect tax calculations?

A

Top slicing averages the gain over the term of the policy, which can help manage tax liabilities, particularly useful when the gain might push a basic-rate taxpayer into a higher tax bracket.

If top slicing keeps the gain within the basic-rate band, no further income tax is payable.

299
Q

How can investors use the 5% withdrawal allowance from investment bonds?

A

Investors can withdraw up to 5% of the original investment each year without immediate tax liability.

This allowance is cumulative; if not used, it can be carried forward, allowing for future withdrawals up to 100% of the initial investment over time.

300
Q

Why might an investor prefer investment bonds over unit trusts or investment trusts for generating income?

A

Investment bonds allow for tax-deferred income through 5% annual withdrawals, providing a regular income without immediate tax consequences.

This feature can be particularly attractive compared to the potential taxable income from dividends or distributions in unit or investment trusts.

301
Q

How can top slicing be beneficial in long-term financial planning?

A

Top slicing can significantly reduce the tax burden by averaging out gains, potentially keeping taxpayers in a lower tax bracket and making use of personal savings allowances more effectively, which is crucial for optimizing tax liabilities over the policy’s term.

302
Q

What strategies should investors consider to maximize the benefits of the 5% withdrawal allowance?

A

Investors should consider their annual cash flow needs and tax situations.

Strategically using the 5% withdrawal can provide a tax-efficient income stream while preserving the bond’s capital growth potential, especially useful in years when other income might be lower.

303
Q

What tax liabilities arise when an investment bond is encashed or upon the death of the policyholder?

A

When the bond is encashed or the policyholder dies, any accumulated gains including previously withdrawn amounts that were tax-deferred will be assessed for tax.

The total taxable amount will depend on the individual’s tax bracket at that time.

304
Q

What is a non-mainstream pooled investment (NMPI)?

A

An NMPI includes investments like units in unregulated collective investment schemes (UCIS), units in qualified investor schemes, securities issued by special purpose vehicles (unless classified as excluded), traded life policies, and interests in these investments.

305
Q

Why are NMPIs not typically available to the general public?

A

NMPIs involve higher risks and often lack the regulatory safeguards that apply to mainstream investments.

They may also involve assets that are less traditional and more complex, increasing the potential for significant losses.

306
Q

What restrictions apply to the marketing of NMPIs in the UK?

A

The FCA restricts the marketing of NMPIs to retail customers due to their high risk and complex nature.

They are generally only marketed to high-net-worth or sophisticated investors who can understand and bear the investment risks.

307
Q

What should investors consider before investing in an NMPI?

A

Investors should assess their own risk tolerance, investment experience, and financial capacity.

They should also consider the limited protections available in terms of recourse to the Financial Ombudsman Service and the Financial Services Compensation Scheme if the provider is based abroad.

308
Q

How do the risks of NMPIs compare to those of regulated collective investment schemes?

A

NMPIs typically carry higher risks due to their investment in non-traditional assets and their lack of regulation, which might expose investors to greater volatility and potential for loss compared to regulated schemes.

309
Q

Who is ideally suited to invest in NMPIs and why?

A

NMPIs are best suited for high-net-worth individuals or sophisticated investors who have a deep understanding of financial markets and can afford to take on the higher risks associated with these investments.

This group is more likely to have the resources to absorb potential losses without significantly impacting their overall financial stability.

310
Q

What are structured products?

A

Structured products are financial instruments designed to facilitate capital protection while offering exposure to potentially higher returns through investments in high-risk assets like ordinary shares.

311
Q

How do structured products protect capital?

A

Structured products often include capital protection mechanisms, where part or all of the initial investment (up to 100%) is protected against market downturns, depending on the product structure.

312
Q

In what ways does the FCA classify structured products?

A

The FCA classifies structured products as either deposits or investments.

This classification affects how these products are regulated and the level of protection offered to investors.

313
Q

Why might a cautious investor choose structured products over direct stock investments?

A

Cautious investors might prefer structured products because they provide a safeguard against losing the initial capital while still offering the possibility to gain from stock market growth, making it a balanced choice for those wary of direct market exposure.

314
Q

How do structured products fit into an overall investment strategy?

A

Structured products can serve as a risk management tool within a diversified portfolio, offering a middle ground between high-risk options like direct stock investments and low-risk, low-return options like bonds or savings accounts.

315
Q

What factors should investors consider when selecting structured products?

A

Investors should consider the terms of capital protection, the risk profile of the underlying assets, potential returns, and how these align with their investment goals and risk tolerance.

Understanding the product’s structure and how returns are calculated is also crucial.

316
Q

What is a Structured Capital-at-Risk Product (SCARP)?

A

A SCARP is an investment product that offers potential income or growth over a fixed period.

The return of the initial capital is linked to the performance of an index, basket of stocks, or other financial factors, with the risk that some or all of the capital may be lost if certain performance thresholds are not met.

317
Q

What are the key characteristics of SCARPs?

A

SCARPs expose investors to varying outcomes based on a preset formula tied to the performance of an index or basket of assets.

If the performance meets specified conditions, the capital is returned. If not, the investor may lose part or all of their initial investment.

318
Q

How is the return on capital determined in SCARPs?

A

The return of capital is determined by the performance of an index or selected stocks.

A formula predefines the range of outcomes, where returns may vary depending on how the underlying assets perform within the limits.

319
Q

Why might an investor choose a SCARP over a more traditional investment?

A

Investors might choose a SCARP for its potential for higher returns, with the knowledge that the risk to capital is tied to specific market outcomes.

SCARPs can be attractive to those seeking better growth prospects with a more structured risk profile than traditional investments like bonds.

320
Q

What are the risks associated with SCARPs?

A

The main risk is that if the underlying index or stocks perform outside of the specified limits, the investor could lose some or all of the initial capital.

This makes SCARPs riskier than many traditional investments that guarantee capital return.

321
Q

How should SCARPs be positioned within a diversified investment portfolio?

A

SCARPs should be considered as part of the high-risk portion of a diversified portfolio.

They are suitable for investors willing to accept potential capital loss in exchange for the possibility of higher returns, while still maintaining safer assets in other parts of the portfolio.

322
Q

What is a non-SCARP structured investment product?

A

A non-SCARP structured investment product guarantees the return of 100% of the initial capital, provided the issuer of the financial instruments underlying the product remains solvent.

This return is not influenced by the market performance of the underlying assets.

323
Q

What is the key difference between SCARPs and non-SCARPs?

A

The key difference is that non-SCARPs guarantee the return of the initial capital as long as the issuer remains solvent, whereas SCARPs expose the investor’s capital to potential losses based on the performance of an index or asset basket.

324
Q

What condition must be met for capital protection in non-SCARPs?

A

The issuer of the financial instruments backing the non-SCARP must remain solvent for the initial capital to be fully protected and returned to the investor.

325
Q

Why might a cautious investor choose a non-SCARP structured investment product?

A

A cautious investor might prefer a non-SCARP because it provides capital protection, ensuring the return of the initial investment even if the market performs poorly, as long as the issuer remains solvent.

326
Q

What risks remain in a non-SCARP product despite the capital guarantee?

A

The primary risk is issuer insolvency. If the issuer of the underlying financial instruments goes bankrupt, the capital protection is no longer guaranteed.

Additionally, while the capital is protected, the potential returns may be lower compared to riskier SCARPs.

327
Q

How should non-SCARPs fit into a diversified investment strategy?

A

Non-SCARPs can serve as a lower-risk element of an investment portfolio, offering some capital protection while still providing exposure to potential returns.

They are suitable for investors who seek a balance between security and growth.

328
Q

What is counterparty risk in structured products?

A

Counterparty risk is the risk that the issuer of the structured product, often a financial institution, may default or become insolvent, meaning that the capital protection or returns promised may not be delivered.

329
Q

What is market risk in structured products?

A

Market risk refers to the possibility that the underlying assets (such as stocks or indices) perform poorly, which could result in lower-than-expected returns, or in the case of some structured products (like SCARPs), the loss of initial capital.

330
Q

What is inflation risk in structured products?

A

Inflation risk is the risk that the returns on the structured product may not keep pace with inflation, potentially eroding the purchasing power of the returns or even the initial capital invested over time.

331
Q

How does counterparty risk affect the capital protection offered by some structured products?

A

Even if a structured product promises capital protection, if the issuer (counterparty) becomes insolvent, this protection may no longer be valid.

Investors should carefully assess the creditworthiness of the issuer to minimize counterparty risk.

332
Q

What strategies can investors use to mitigate the risks associated with structured products?

A

Investors can mitigate risks by diversifying their investments across multiple financial products or providers, thoroughly understanding the terms and conditions of the product, and selecting structured products from reputable institutions with strong credit ratings.

333
Q

What are the risks associated with structured products?

A

Counterparty risk

Market risk

Inflation risk

334
Q

What does a wrap account do?

A

A wrap account consolidates all an investor’s holdings into one platform, offering a full overview of assets, tax treatment, and performance.

335
Q

What assets can be held in a wrap account?

A

Wrap accounts can hold a variety of assets, including investment trusts, direct equities, OEICs, unit trusts, ISAs, and offshore investments.

336
Q

What is the primary difference between a wrap and a fund supermarket?

A

A fund supermarket offers a limited range of investments like OEICs and ISAs, while a wrap offers those plus additional assets like investment trusts and direct equities.

337
Q

Why are wrap accounts appealing to investors?

A

Wrap accounts offer a single platform to manage diverse assets, making it easier to track performance and tax treatment across different investments.

338
Q

How do the fees for wrap accounts compare to fund supermarkets?

A

Wrap accounts generally charge higher fees because they offer a broader range of services and investment options than fund supermarkets.

339
Q

Who would benefit most from a wrap platform?

A

Investors with complex portfolios seeking more investment options and comprehensive management tools would benefit most from a wrap platform.

340
Q

Who typically uses fund supermarkets?

A

Fund supermarkets are typically used by retail investors who want easy access to a wide range of funds like OEICs, unit trusts, and ISAs, without the need for more complex investments.

341
Q

What kind of fees are charged by platforms like wraps and fund supermarkets?

A

Fees can be either a flat fee or a percentage of the assets held on the platform.

Wraps may also have additional charges for financial advice.

342
Q

Are ISAs and other tax-free accounts available on both wraps and fund supermarkets?

A

Yes

Both wraps and fund supermarkets offer ISAs and other tax-free accounts to investors.

343
Q

Why might an investor choose a fund supermarket over a wrap platform?

A

Investors looking for simpler options with lower fees, and who only need access to funds like OEICs and unit trusts, may prefer a fund supermarket.

344
Q

How does the choice of platform impact an investor’s tax management?

A

Wraps help manage tax by consolidating various tax treatments and showing how different investments impact overall tax exposure, whereas fund supermarkets might offer simpler tax visibility.

345
Q

What additional services do independent financial advisers (IFAs) offer with wrap accounts?

A

IFAs often provide personalized investment advice and portfolio management, which is why wrap accounts generally come with higher fees.

346
Q

What is sustainable finance?

A

Sustainable finance involves incorporating environmental, social, and governance (ESG) factors into investment decisions, considering how these elements might impact a firm’s profitability.

347
Q

What are examples of ESG factors in sustainable finance?

A

Environmental factors could include practices like recycling, social factors could involve fair employee treatment and wages, and governance factors relate to company ethics, tax transparency, and corporate governance.

348
Q

What are the potential advantages of sustainable investing?

A

Advantages include investing in forward-looking firms, aligning investments with personal ethical values, and the fact that many socially responsible funds have performed well.

349
Q

What are the potential disadvantages of sustainable investing?

A

Disadvantages include a lack of diversification, higher volatility due to investing in smaller companies, potentially higher charges due to active management, and the risk of ‘greenwashing’ (false sustainability claims).

350
Q

Why might an investor choose sustainable finance over traditional investing?

A

An investor might prefer sustainable finance to align their financial decisions with personal values related to social responsibility, environmental protection, and good governance, while also seeking to support forward-looking companies.

351
Q

How can investing solely in ESG-focused funds impact portfolio diversification?

A

ESG-focused funds can limit diversification because they exclude companies that don’t meet ESG criteria, which may expose investors to greater volatility and potential losses compared to a more diversified portfolio.

352
Q

What is ‘greenwashing’ and why is it a concern in sustainable finance?

A

Greenwashing is when firms make unsubstantiated claims about the sustainability of their products or practices, misleading investors into thinking they are supporting socially responsible companies when they may not be.

353
Q

How does the size of companies in ESG funds affect the risk for investors?

A

Companies that score highly in ESG criteria tend to be smaller or medium-sized, which can be more volatile and riskier compared to investing in larger, more established companies.

354
Q

What is greenwashing in the context of sustainable investments?

A

Greenwashing refers to firms making exaggerated or misleading claims about the sustainability of their investment products, creating a false impression that they are environmentally friendly or socially responsible.

355
Q

What is the purpose of ‘PS23/16: Sustainability Disclosure Requirements (SDR) and investment labels’?

A

The purpose of PS23/16 is to help consumers make informed decisions by regulating the naming and marketing of sustainable investment products, introducing labels for transparency, and implementing an anti-greenwashing rule to enhance consumer trust.

356
Q

What are the key requirements under the FCA’s new sustainability disclosure regulations?

A

Key requirements include regulations on naming and marketing of products, an anti-greenwashing rule, the introduction of four labels to guide consumers, and product-level and entity-level disclosures aimed at providing more transparency.

357
Q

Why did the FCA introduce new regulations on sustainable investment products?

A

The FCA introduced these regulations in response to concerns that firms were misleading consumers with false sustainability claims.

The regulations aim to protect consumers and improve trust in sustainable finance by providing clearer, more reliable information.

358
Q

How do the new labels help consumers navigate sustainable investment products?

A

The labels provide a clear, standardized way for consumers to identify and compare sustainable investment products, helping them understand how different funds align with environmental, social, and governance (ESG) goals.

359
Q

What responsibilities do distributors have under the new SDR rules?

A

Distributors must ensure that product-level information, including the newly introduced labels, is easily accessible to consumers.

They are responsible for making the relevant sustainability disclosures available to both institutional investors and retail consumers.

360
Q

What are cryptoassets?

A

Cryptoassets are digital representations of value, whose ownership is proven through cryptographic methods.

They do not have physical equivalents and exist only digitally, with Bitcoin being the most well-known example.

361
Q

How do cryptoasset transactions work?

A

Users create a digital wallet that generates a pair of keys: one public key (similar to an account number) and one private key (like a PIN).

These keys are used to send, receive, and verify ownership of cryptoassets during transactions.

362
Q

What is Distributed Ledger Technology (DLT)?

A

DLT is the technology that records transactions across a distributed network of computers, removing the need for a central authority.

Blockchain is a widely known form of DLT where verified transactions are recorded in blocks.

363
Q

Why is blockchain considered transparent and secure?

A

Blockchain is transparent because it is publicly available, allowing anyone to view transactions.

It is secure due to its use of cryptography, where each block of transactions is linked to the previous one, making the chain immutable and irreversible.

364
Q

How does a digital wallet ensure security during cryptoasset transactions?

A

The security comes from the private and public keys generated by the wallet.

The private key is kept secret and used to sign transactions, proving ownership, while the public key allows others to send cryptoassets to the wallet without compromising security.

365
Q

What role does the peer-to-peer network play in validating cryptoasset transactions?

A

The peer-to-peer network validates transactions by having participants compete to solve complex puzzles.

Once solved, the transaction is verified and added to the blockchain, ensuring that there are no double-spends or invalid transactions without a central authority.

366
Q

What are exchange tokens?

A

Exchange tokens are a form of cryptoasset not issued or backed by any central authority. They are designed to be used as a means of exchange, allowing for the buying and selling of goods and services without intermediaries, such as Bitcoin.

367
Q

What are utility tokens?

A

Utility tokens grant holders access to a specific product or service but do not provide rights equivalent to investments like shares.

In certain cases, they might meet the definition of e-money.

368
Q

What are security tokens?

A

Security tokens are cryptoassets that provide rights similar to traditional investments, such as shares or debt instruments, as outlined in the Regulated Activities Order (RAO).

369
Q

Why might someone use an exchange token over traditional currency?

A

Exchange tokens allow for decentralized transactions without the need for a central authority or intermediaries, providing a fast, borderless, and often lower-cost method of transferring value.

370
Q

How do utility tokens differ from traditional investments?

A

Utility tokens grant access to a product or service rather than representing ownership or rights like traditional investments, such as stocks.

They are primarily used within specific platforms or ecosystems rather than for financial returns.

371
Q

What makes security tokens similar to traditional financial instruments?

A

Security tokens carry rights and obligations akin to traditional securities, such as ownership stakes (similar to shares) or the promise of repayment (similar to bonds).

These tokens are often subject to regulation under the RAO.

372
Q

What is a qualifying cryptoasset under the FSMA 2000 (Financial Promotion) (Amendment) Order 2023?

A

A qualifying cryptoasset is a digital representation of value or contractual rights that is cryptographically secured, transferable, and fungible.

Examples include exchange tokens like Bitcoin, but not CBDCs or cryptoassets defined as e-money.

373
Q

When did the FCA start regulating financial promotions of cryptoassets?

A

The FCA began regulating financial promotions of qualifying cryptoassets from October 8, 2023, under the FSMA 2000 (Financial Promotion) (Amendment) Order 2023.

374
Q

What is fungibility in the context of cryptoassets?

A

Fungibility refers to an asset’s ability to be exchanged for other assets of the same kind and equal value.

For example, one Bitcoin is fungible because it can be exchanged for another Bitcoin with no difference in value.

375
Q

Why did the FCA introduce new regulations for cryptoassets in 2023?

A

The FCA introduced new regulations to increase consumer protection, ensuring that firms marketing qualifying cryptoassets to UK consumers adhere to standards for financial promotions, helping prevent misleading or inappropriate marketing.

376
Q

Why are certain cryptoassets like CBDCs or e-money excluded from new crypto asset regulations?

A

Central bank digital currencies (CBDCs) and e-money are excluded because they are already subject to other specific regulations and oversight, ensuring they adhere to different financial and legal frameworks.

377
Q

What must firms wishing to promote cryptoassets in the UK to retail consumers do?

A

Firms must be authorised or registered by the FCA or have their marketing approved by an authorised firm.

They must also ensure that marketing materials include clear risk warnings and that ads are fair and not misleading.

378
Q

What is the 24-hour cooling-off period for cryptoasset investments?

A

The 24-hour cooling-off period is a mandatory time frame that allows first-time investors to reconsider their decision before proceeding with their investment, providing an extra layer of consumer protection.

379
Q

Which categories of investors can receive direct offer financial promotions for cryptoassets?

A

Direct offer financial promotions can only be made to restricted investors, high-net-worth investors, and certified sophisticated investors.

380
Q

Why did the FCA introduce client appropriateness testing for cryptoasset investments?

A

Client appropriateness testing ensures that retail investors have sufficient knowledge and experience to understand the risks involved with cryptoasset investments, helping to protect inexperienced individuals from potential losses.

381
Q

How does the 24-hour cooling-off period benefit first-time cryptoasset investors?

A

The cooling-off period allows first-time investors to take a step back and assess the risks of their investment decision, reducing the likelihood of hasty or impulsive investments.

382
Q

What criteria must a firm meet to promote cryptoassets to UK consumers?

A

Firms must either be authorised or registered by the FCA, or have their marketing materials approved by an FCA-authorised firm.

Additionally, firms must implement risk warnings, fair marketing, appropriateness testing, and investor categorisation to ensure the suitability of their offerings.

383
Q

What is a stablecoin?

A

A stablecoin is a type of cryptocurrency designed to maintain a consistent value by being pegged to a particular asset or group of assets, offering more stability compared to volatile unbacked cryptocurrencies.

384
Q

What distinguishes fiat-backed stablecoins from other types of stablecoins?

A

Fiat-backed stablecoins are tied to the value of one or more specific fiat currencies, such as the US dollar or British pound, and may require the holding of these currencies to maintain the stable value.

385
Q

What does the FCA’s discussion paper focus on regarding fiat-backed stablecoins?

A

The paper focuses on how the FCA may regulate the issuance and custody of fiat-backed stablecoins and their use as a form of payment.

386
Q

Why might fiat-backed stablecoins be considered more stable than other cryptocurrencies?

A

Fiat-backed stablecoins maintain their value relative to a stable fiat currency, reducing the high volatility that unbacked cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin often experience.

387
Q

How might the FCA’s regulation of fiat-backed stablecoins affect their use as a payment method?

A

Regulation by the FCA could provide greater trust and security for the use of fiat-backed stablecoins as a payment method, ensuring that the stablecoin issuers follow strict guidelines related to custody, backing assets, and overall stability.

388
Q

What advantages do fiat-backed stablecoins offer compared to unbacked cryptocurrencies?

A

Fiat-backed stablecoins offer stability, making them more suitable for use in everyday transactions or as a store of value, unlike unbacked cryptocurrencies that can experience large fluctuations in value over short periods.

389
Q

With regard to unit trusts, what does the term ‘open‑ended’ mean?

a) Clients can buy more units.
b) The fund manager can create an unlimited amount of units according to demand.
c) The fund manager does not need to value the units.
d) There is flexibility in the taxation of unit

A

Answer: b) The fund manager can create an unlimited amount of units according to demand

390
Q

A unit trust fund’s assets are owned and controlled by the fund manager.

True or false?

A

False. They are owned and controlled by the trustee

391
Q

Who is responsible for payment of capital gains tax on any gain realised on the encashment of a unit trust?

a) The unit holder.
b) The trustees.
c) The unit trust company.
d) The fund manager

A

Answer: a) The unit holder

392
Q

An investment trust is best described as:

a) a unit‑linked, single‑premium whole‑of‑life policy investing solely in shares.
b) a trust that invests solely in fledgling companies.
c) a company that invests in the shares of other companies.
d) a partnership that invests in gilt

A

Answer: c) A company that invests in the shares of other companies

393
Q

How can a private individual invest in an investment trust?

a) The investment trust manager creates more units.
b) By purchasing shares of the investment trust company on the stock exchange.
c) The fund manager issues new shares.
d) By completing an application form for a share account and submitting it to the investment trust trustees.

A

Answer: b) By purchasing shares of the investment trust company on the stock exchange

394
Q

What potential benefit does gearing offer to an investment trust that is not available to a unit trust or OEIC?

A

Leverage returns.

An investment trust can borrow in order to take advantage of investment opportunities.

Unit trusts and OEICs cannot do this.

395
Q

How are shares in an open‑ended investment company priced?

a) There is a bid and offer price based on the underlying value of the shares.
b) Shares are based on a historic valuation.
c) There is one price, based on the value of the assets divided by the number of shares.
d) There is a cancellation price at which all shares are trade

A

Answer: c) There is one price, based on the value of the assets divided by the number of shares

396
Q

What rate of tax is deemed to have been deducted from the investment fund underlying an investment bond?

a) 0 per cent.
b) 10 per cent.
c) 20 per cent.
d) 40 per cent

A

Answer: c) 20 per cent is deemed to have been taken within the investment with a potential further liability of 20 per cent for higher‑rate taxpayers or 25 per cent for additional‑rate taxpayers.

397
Q

Investment bonds are attractive to investors because withdrawals are tax‑free.

True or false?

A

False.

The investor may withdraw up to 5 per cent of the value of the original investment per annum without paying tax at the time of withdrawal but a tax liability may arise when the bond matures, on encashment of the bond or on death of the bondholder

398
Q

Noah is a higher‑rate taxpayer and is considering a range of investments. He wants to know which investment, out of unit trusts, investment trusts or OEICS, would be most likely to help him meet his objective of achieving capital growth. What would you advise?

a) A unit trust.
b) An investment trust.
c) An OEIC.
d) Any of the above.

A

Answer: d) Noah could choose any of the above. The fact that he is a higher‑rate taxpayer has no bearing on his decision – they are all taxed in the same way.