topic 8 Flashcards

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1
Q

Explain how a single base
substitution causes a change in
the structure of a polypeptide.

A
  1. Change in (sequence of) amino acid(s)/primary structure;
    Reject amino acids are formed.
    Reject amino acids code.
  2. Change in hydrogen/ionic/disulfide bonds;
  3. Alters tertiary/3 0 structure;
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2
Q

What is a substitution
mutation?

A

Replacement of a base by a different base (in DNA);

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3
Q

Suggest ways that putting ESCs
into a person’s heart might lead to more harm to the person.

A
  1. Might divide out of control;
  2. Leading to tumour / cancer;
  3. differentiating into the wrong types of cells
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4
Q

Current research into the
treatment of red-green colour
blindness involves the use of
induced pluripotent stem cells
(iPS cells).
Suggest how iPS cells could
correct red-green colour
blindness.

A
  1. (iPS cells) divide;
  2. (iPS cells) develop/differentiate into (green sensitive) cones
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5
Q

The use of iPS cells could have
advantages over the use of
gene therapy to correct red-
green colour blindness

A
  1. (Use of iPS cells) long-term;
    Accept ‘gene therapy short-term’ or ‘only two years’
    Accept ‘permanent’
  2. (Use of iPS cells) less chance of rejection/immune response;
  3. (Use of iPS cells) single treatment;
    Accept ‘gene therapy ‘regular/frequent treatment’’
  4. Harm/side effects from using viruses (in gene therapy);
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6
Q

Suggest how transcription
factors can reprogramme cells
to form iPS cells.

A
  1. Attach to gene / DNA / promoter region;
  2. Stimulate / inhibit transcription / RNA polymerase;
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7
Q

Describe how alterations to
tumour suppressor genes can
lead to the development of
tumours.

A
  1. (Increased) methylation (of tumour suppressor genes);
  2. Mutation (in tumour suppressor genes);
  3. Tumour suppressor genes are not transcribed/expressed
    OR
    Amino acid sequence/primary structure altered;
  4. (Results in) rapid/uncontrollable cell division;
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8
Q

Give one way in which benign
tumours differ from malignant
tumours.

A

Cells of benign tumours cannot spread to other parts of the body / metastasise;
OR
Cells of benign tumours cannot invade neighbouring tissues.

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9
Q

Lactase persistence is caused
by a mutation in DNA. This
mutation does not occur in the
gene coding for lactase.
Suggest and explain how this
mutation causes LP.

A
  1. Mutation in promoter (DNA/gene) for transcription factor
    OR
    Mutation in promoter (region/DNA) for the gene
    OR
    Mutation in gene for transcription factor;
    Accept mutation in an epistatic gene
  2. Lactase gene continues to be transcribed/active;
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10
Q

What is meant by a genome?

A

(All) the DNA in a cell/organism;

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11
Q

Describe the roles
of two named types of
enzymes used to insert DNA
fragments into plasmids.

A
  1. Restriction (endonuclease/enzyme) to cut plasmid/vector;
  2. Ligase joins gene/DNA to plasmid/vector;
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12
Q

Describe how a geneticist
would attempt to insert copies

A
  1. Cut the plasmid with a restriction endonuclease;
    Allow ‘add base sequences to blunt ends of plasmid and HGH gene’
  2. (So that) both have complementary / sticky ends;
  3. (Mix together) and add ligase to join the complementary /
    sticky ends;
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13
Q

To enable her to identify which
bacteria have taken up the
plasmid with the gene, the
plasmids she intends to use
contain a gene that codes for a
green fluorescent protein
(GFP).
Suggest one advantage of using this gene for GFP to identify bacteria that have taken up plasmids.

A

Can quickly identify transformed bacteria using UV light

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14
Q

From a sample of mitochondrial
DNA:
* how would enough DNA
be obtained for sequencing?
* how would sequencing
allow the identification of a
mutation?

A
  1. Enough DNA using PCR;
  2. Compare DNA sequence with ‘normal’ DNA.
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15
Q

What is a DNA probe?

A
  1. (Short) single strand of DNA;
  2. Bases complementary (with DNA/allele/gene);
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16
Q

Describe how DNA can be
broken down into smaller
fragments.

A
  1. Restriction endonuclease/enzyme;
  2. (Cuts DNA at specific) base sequence
    OR
    (Breaks) phosphodiester bonds
    OR
    (Cuts DNA) at recognition/restriction site;
17
Q

In electrophoresis, the DNA on
the nylon membrane is treated
to form single strands. Explain
why.

A

(So DNA) probe binds/attaches/anneals;

18
Q

Suggest two features of the
structure of different proteins
that enable them to be
separated by gel
electrophoresis.

A
  1. Mass/number of amino acids/polypeptides;
  2. Charge;
  3. R groups (differ);
19
Q

Explain the role of reverse
transcriptase in RT-PCR

A

Produces (c)DNA using (m)RNA;

20
Q

Explain the role of DNA
polymerase in RT-PCR.

A

Joins nucleotides to produce (complementary strand/s of) DNA;

21
Q

Define what is meant by
epigenetics.

A
  1. Heritable changes in gene function;
  2. Without changes to the base sequence of DNA;
22
Q

Explain how increased
methylation could lead to
cancer.

A
  1. Methyl groups (could be) added to (both copies of) a tumour
    suppressor gene;
  2. The transcription of tumour suppressor genes is inhibited;
  3. Leading to uncontrolled cell division.
23
Q

Suggest and explain one way
epigenetics may affect the age
when symptoms of
Huntington’s disease start,
caused due to an increase in
the protein huntingtin.

A
  1. (Increased) methylation of DNA/gene/allele;
    Reject acetylation of DNA.
    Accept gene expression for transcription but ignore gene switched
    on/off.
    Ignore methylation of histones.
    Accept DNA-histone complex as equivalent to histone(s).
  2. Inhibits/prevents transcription;
    OR
  3. Decreased methylation of DNA/gene/allele;
  4. Stimulates/allows transcription;
    OR
  5. Decreased acetylation of histone(s);
  6. Inhibits transcription;
    OR
  7. Increased acetylation of histone(s);
  8. Stimulates/allows transcription;
24
Q

types of stem cells

A

totipotent
pluripotent
multipotent
unipotent
induced pluripotent stem cell

25
Q

stem cell

A

undifferentiated cells that can continually divide and become specialised

26
Q

totipotent stem cell

A
  • can differentiate into any body cell
  • occur for a limited time in early mammalian embryos
27
Q

pluripotent stem cell

A
  • can differentiate into almost any body cell
  • occur in embryos
28
Q

multipotent stem cells

A
  • can differentiate into a limited number of cells
  • found in mature mammals e.g in bone marrow
29
Q

unipotent stem cell

A

can differentiate into one type of cell
found in mature mammals

30
Q

induced pluripotent stem cell

A
  • produced from adult somatic cells
  • using protein transcriptional factors
  • overcomes ethical issues of using embryonic stem cells