Topic 6 - Human Physiology Flashcards

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1
Q

Outline the role of peristalsis in the digestive process.

A

Peristalsis is the involuntary, wave-like contraction of muscle layers of the small intestine.

Peristalsis helps prevents backward movement of food and maintains the forward movement of the material.

Peristalsis also mixes food with intestinal enzymes.

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2
Q

List the source, substrate and product of lipase.

A

Lipase is an enzyme that hydrolyzes fats to fatty acids and glycerol.

Source: pancreas (secreted into small intestine)

Substrate: triglyceride

Product: glycerol and three fatty acids

Optimal pH: 7-8

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3
Q

List the source, substrate and product of proteases.

A

Proteases are enzymes that hydrolyzes proteins into smaller polypeptides, dipeptides and/or amino acids.

Pepsin:

Source: stomach

Substrate: proteins

Product: smaller polypeptides

Optimal pH: 2

Trypsin:

Source: pancreas (secreted into small intestine)

Substrate: proteins and smaller polypeptides

Product: dipeptides and/or amino acids

Optimal pH: 7-8

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4
Q

List the source, substrate and product of amylases.

A

Amylases are enzymes that hydrolyzes starch into maltose.

Salivary Amylase

Source: Salivary glands

Substrate: starch

Product: maltose

Optimal pH: 7

Pancreatic Amylase

Source: pancreas (secreted into small intestine)

Substrate: starch

Product: maltose

Optimal pH: 7-8

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5
Q

Define “lumen.”

A

The lumen is the inside space of a tubular body structure that is surrounded by body tissue known as an epithelial membrane.

Examples of body structures that have a lumen include the large intestine, small intestine, veins, and arteries.

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6
Q

Outline the function of digestion of food.

A

Many molecules are too large to be absorbed by the villi in the small intestine. Large food molecules are digested into small molecules that can be absorbed and moved into the cells.

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7
Q

Describe the role of hydrolysis in digestion.

A

Hydrolysis is the chemical breakdown of a compound due to reaction with water. Large molecules are hydrolyzed into small molecules that can be absorbed and moved into the cells. Hydrolysis is catalyzed by enzymes.

Polysaccharides are hydrolysed to disaccharides and monosaccharides.

Proteins/polypeptides are hydrolysed to amino acids.

Triglycerides are hydrolysed to fatty acids and glycerol.

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8
Q

Summarize the role of digestive enzymes within the small intestine.

A

The small intestine is where most chemical digestion takes place. Most of the digestive enzymes in the small intestine are secreted by the pancreas and enter the small intestine via the pancreatic duct.

Enzymes increase the rate of the digestive process by catalyzing the chemical breakdown of large molecules to form molecules that are small enough to be absorbed.

Most digestive enzymes work outside the cells in a location within the digestive tract with specific conditions for each reaction. For example, variations in pH throughout digestive tract promote the activity of different digestive enzymes.

Enzymes allow digestion to occur at body temperature.

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9
Q

Outline the structure and function of enzymes immobilized in the cell membrane of small intestine epithelial cells.

A

The final step in digestion of dietary carbohydrates and proteins occurs on the face of small intestinal epithelial cells, in the immediate vicinity of the protein transporters which will move the resulting sugars and amino acids into the cells. The enzymes responsible for this final stage of digestion are not free in the intestinal lumen, but rather, tethered as integral membrane proteins in the cell membrane of the epithelial cells.

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10
Q

Outline the digestion and absorption of proteins in humans.

A

Proteins must be digested into amino acids. The protease enzyme pepsin digests proteins into smaller polypeptides. Pepsin works in the stomach and requires an acidic pH (2) to function.

In the small intestine lumen, the protease enzyme trypsin (from the pancreas) digest polypeptides into amino acids. Trypsin requires a basic pH (8) to function.

The amino acids are absorbed by diffusion and active transport at the villus of the small intestine. The amino acids move into capillaries and blood carries them throughout the body. The amino acids then move into cells which then cells use the amino acids to build proteins.

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11
Q

Outline the digestion and absorption of lipids in humans.

A

Fats (triglycerides) are digested into fatty acids and glycerol. Pancreatic lipase breaks down triglycerides into free fatty acids and monoglycerides. Pancreatic lipase works with the help of the salts from bile secreted by the liver and the gallbladder.

Bile salts attach to triglycerides and help to emulsify them; this aids access by pancreatic lipase because the lipase is water-soluble, but the fatty triglycerides are hydrophobic and tend to orient toward each other and away from the watery intestinal surroundings. The bile salts act to hold the triglycerides in their watery surroundings until the lipase can digest them into the smaller fatty acid components that are able to enter the villi for absorption via diffusion.

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12
Q

List adaptations that increase the surface area for absorption on the small intestine.

A

The inner layer of the small intestine is covered by numerous folds. The surface of these folds contains villi which are finger-like projections that further increase the surface area for better absorption. Microvilli on the villi epithelial cells even further increase surface area to improve absorption.

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13
Q

Define “epithelium.”

A

The epithelium is the thin layer of cells that create a tissue covering the outer layer of a body’s surface and lining the digestive tract and other hollow structures.

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14
Q

Explain how the structure of the villus is adapted for absorption.

A

Villi are finger-like projections of the small intestine mucosa that increase the surface area for better absorption of the products of digestion.

Microvilli on the villi epithelial cells further increase surface area to improve absorption.

The epithelium is a single layer thick, which allows fast diffusion of nutrients from the small intestine lumen into the blood.

Capillary bed within the villi maintain a concentration gradient of nutrients (by constantly carrying away absorbed nutrients) so that the rate of diffusion is higher.

Lacteal in villus to absorb fatty acids and carry them away from small intestine.

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15
Q

Draw the villi as viewed in cross section.

A

The following structures should be clearly drawn and labeled:

Capillary

Epithelial cell

Lacteal

Goblet cell

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16
Q

State the function of the villus capillary.

A

The villus capillary network maintains a concentration gradient for absorption by rapidly transporting absorbed products away. Capillaries transport absorbed nutrients (sugars and amino acids) away from the small intestine.

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17
Q

State the function of the villus lacteal.

A

The lacteal is a vessel of the lymphatic system with the villus that absorbs fats and transports them away from small intestine. The lacteals will merge to form larger lymphatic vessels that transport the fats to the thoracic duct where they are emptied into the bloodstream at the subclavian vein.

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18
Q

Outline the structures and functions within a villus epithelial cell.

A

The epithelium is the thin layer of cells that create a tissue covering the villi. The single layer allows fast diffusion of nutrients from the small intestine lumen into the blood. Each epithelial cell contains:

Microvilli that further increase surface area to improve absorption.

Protein pumps in the cell membrane to carry out active transport of nutrients into the cell.

Channel proteins in the cell membrane carry out facilitated diffusion of nutrients into the cell.

Embedded enzymes within the membrane to complete digestion.

Large number of mitochondria provide ATP to fuel the active transport of nutrients into the cell.

Tight junctions between the cells to create an impermeable barrier between the fluid of the intestinal lumen and the intercellular fluid.

Pinocytotic vesicles formed by endocytosis of the fluid with the products of digestion.

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19
Q

State the function of the villus goblet cell.

A

Goblet cells are found scattered among the epithelial lining of the small intestine. These cells secrete mucus. Mucus is a slippery aqueous secretion that protects the epithelial cells and serves as a lubricant for the digested food material as it passes through the digestive system.

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20
Q

Define “absorption”.

A

Absorption is the taking in of digested substances through the epithelial cell membrane from the lumen of the gut. Absorption occurs in the small intestine.

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21
Q

List materials absorbed by the epithelial cells of the villi in the small intestine.

A

Products of digestion are absorbed into the epithelial cells in the jejunum, the midsection of the small intestine. These include:

Monosaccharide carbohydrates such as glucose, fructose, and galactose.

Any of the twenty amino acids used to make proteins.

Components of fat molecules such as fatty acids, monoglycerides and glycerol.

Nitrogenous bases from digested nucleic acid nucleotides.

Other nutrients that are absorbed include:

Mineral ions such as calcium, potassium and sodium.

Vitamins such as ascorbic acid (vitamin C).

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22
Q

List four methods of membrane transport required to absorb nutrients.

A

Products of digestion are absorbed into the epithelial cells via:

Simple diffusion of nutrients down a concentration gradient (eg: fatty acids).

Facilitated diffusion of nutrients through channel proteins (eg: fructose).

Active transport of nutrients against a concentration gradient through protein pumps (eg: ions, glucose and amino acids).

Endocytosis by means of vesicles of large molecules (eg: cholesterol in lipoprotein particles).

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23
Q

Describe the absorption of fats by villus epithelial cells.

A

Fat molecules (triglycerides) are digested by pancreatic lipase within the lumen of small intestine. The products of the digestion are fatty acids, monoglycerides and glycerol, which are absorbed into the epithelial cells on villi.

The fatty acid diffuse across the epithelial cell membrane. Within the epithelial cell, they are again converted into triglycerides. The triglycerides are coated with proteins to form chylomicrons (a lipoprotein) which then enter into lacteals by exocytosis.

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24
Q

Describe absorption of glucose by villus epithelial cells.

A

Carbohydrate molecules such as starch are digested by pancreatic enzymes (eg amylase) within the lumen of small intestine. Additional digestion of carbohydrates may occur through enzymes embedded within the villi epithelial cells. The products of the digestion are monosaccharides which are absorbed into the epithelial cells on villi.

Glucose cannot pass through the plasma membrane by simple diffusion because it is polar and therefore hydrophilic. Glucose is transported into the epithelial cell coupled to the movement of sodium ions into the cell through a sodium-glucose cotransport protein. The cotransport protein couples transport of sodium down its concentration gradient (established by the active transport of sodium out of the cell by the sodium-potassium pump) into the cell with the transport of glucose against its concentration gradient into the cell. Active transport requires ATP (from many mitochondria within the cells).

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25
Q

Explain the reasons for starch being digested by the human digestive system.

A

Starch is a significant component of human diets. Starch is a large polysaccharide molecule that can not be absorbed by the epithelial cells of the small intestine. Additionally, starch is not directly used as an energy source by cells and is not soluble, so it could not be transported in the blood.

The monosaccharide glucose is produce by the multistep digestion of starch. Glucose can be absorbed by the epithelial cells of the small intestine. Glucose is a useful source of energy for cells and can be transported in the blood.

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26
Q

Outline the digestion of starch into maltose.

A

Starch is a polymer of alpha-glucose monomers. Starch is both amylose (by 1,4 bonds) and amylopectin (by 1,4 bonds and occasional by 1,6 bonds).

The enzyme that digests starch is called amylase. Saliva contains amylase and some starch digestion begins in the mouth. However, most starch digestion occurs in the small intestine, catalysed by pancreatic amylase.

Amylase breaks the 1,4 bonds in starch molecules as long as there is a chain of at least four glucose monomers. The product of the digestion is the disaccharide maltose.

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27
Q

Outline the digestion of maltose into glucose.

A

The enzyme maltase catalyzes the hydrolysis of the disaccharide maltose into glucose monomers. In humans, maltase is most often located embedded in the epithelial cell membranes of the small intestine.

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28
Q

Describe transport of glucose into and through villi capillaries.

A

Glucose cannot pass through the plasma membrane by simple diffusion because it is polar and therefore hydrophilic. Glucose is transported in to the epithelial cell from the small intestine lumen through a sodium-glucose cotransport protein.

Then, the glucose moves out of the epithelial cell and moves into the villi capillary. Glucose channels allow the glucose to move by facilitated diffusion into blood capillaries in the villus.

Glucose in the blood is then carried via the hepatic portal vein to the liver where excess glucose can be absorbed by liver cells and converted to glycogen for storage.

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29
Q

Explain the use of dialysis tubing as a model for the small intestine.

A

Dialysis tubing is an artificial semipermeable membrane tubing that facilitates the flow of tiny molecules in solution based on differential size. Pores in the tubing allow water and small molecules or ions to pass through freely, but not large molecules. These properties mimic the wall of small intestine. Dialysis tubing can be used to model absorption by passive diffusion and osmosis.

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30
Q

State the role of the digestive system.

A

The digestive system is a collection of organs that collectively digest food, absorb nutrients and excrete waste.

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31
Q

Draw a diagram of the human digestive system.

A

Mouth - hollow cavity in the head.

Esophagus – hollow tube connecting mouth to the top of the stomach.

Stomach – a roughly crescent-shaped, hollow organ located just under the diaphragm in the left part of the abdominal cavity. Located between the esophagus and the small intestine.

Small intestine - winds throughout the abdominal cavity inferior to the stomach.

Large intestine - wraps around the border of the abdominal body cavity from the right side of the body, across the top of the abdomen, and finally down the left side.

Liver - a roughly triangular organ that extends across the entire abdominal cavity just under to the diaphragm. Most of the liver’s mass is located on the right side of the body.

Gall bladder - hollow, pear-shaped organ that sits under the liver. The end of the gallbladder narrows to join the common bile duct that extends to the wall of the small intestine.

Pancreas – a narrow gland that lies inferior to the stomach on the left side of the abdominal cavity. The pancreas extends laterally across the abdomen. The head of the pancreas connects to the small intestine.

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32
Q

Outline the function of the mouth in digestion.

A

The mouth contains many structure- such as the teeth, tongue, and the salivary glands - that work together to aid in the ingestion, digestion and swallowing of food.

Teeth are hard structures specialized for the mechanical digestion (biting and grinding) of food. Salivary glands release saliva into the mouth through many tiny ducts. Saliva helps to moisten and chemically digest starch in the mouth before swallowing.

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33
Q

Outline the function of the esophagus in digestion.

A

The esophagus functions as the conduit for food and liquids that have been swallowed in the mouth to reach the stomach.

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34
Q

Outline the function of the stomach in digestion.

A

The stomach stores and mechanically digests food. The stomach also secretes a mixture of acid, mucus, and digestive enzymes that helps to chemically digest proteins and sanitize our food while it is being stored.

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35
Q

Outline the function of the small intestine in digestion.

A

Partially digested food from the stomach is mixed with bile from the liver and pancreatic juice from the pancreas to complete digestion. Then, the small intestine absorbs the nutrients and minerals from the food.

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36
Q

Outline the function of the pancreas in digestion.

A

The pancreas serves as two glands in one: a digestive exocrine gland and a hormone-producing endocrine gland. Functioning as an exocrine gland, the pancreas secretes pancreatic juice into the lumen of the small intestine. Pancreatic juice has a basic pH in nature due to the high concentration of bicarbonate ions. Bicarbonate is useful in neutralizing the acidic gastric acid. Pancreatic juice also contains enzymes to digest down the proteins (protease), lipids (lipase), carbohydrates (amylase), and nucleic acids (nuclease) in food.

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37
Q

Outline the function of the liver in digestion.

A

The liver plays an active role in the process of digestion through the production of bile. Bile is a mixture of water, bile salts, cholesterol, and the pigment bilirubin. Hepatocytes in the liver produce bile, which then passes through the bile ducts to be stored in the gallbladder. When food containing fats reaches the small intestine, the gallbladder releases bile. Bile emulsifies large masses of fat. The emulsification of fats by bile turns the large clumps of fat into smaller pieces that have more surface area and are therefore easier for lipase to digest.

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38
Q

Outline the function of the gallbladder in digestion.

A

The gallbladder stores bile produced in the liver until it is needed for digesting fat in the small intestine. Bile travels through the bile ducts and is released into the small intestine where it emulsifies large masses of fat. The emulsification of fats by bile turns the large clumps of fat into smaller pieces that have more surface area and are therefore easier for lipase to digest.

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39
Q

Outline the function of the large intestine in digestion.

A

The large intestine absorbs water and vitamins (e.g. K and B12) while converting undigested food into feces.

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40
Q

Outline the function of the mucosa layer of tissue found in the wall of the small intestine.

A

The small intestine is made up of four layers of tissue. The mucosa forms the inner layer of epithelial tissue and is specialized for the absorption of nutrients.

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41
Q

Outline the function of the submucosa layer of tissue found in the wall of the small intestine.

A

The small intestine is made up of four layers of tissue. Beneath the mucosa is the submucosa layer that provides blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerves.

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42
Q

Outline the function of the smooth muscle of tissue found in the wall of the small intestine.

A

The small intestine is made up of four layers of tissue. Beneath the submucosa, several layers of smooth muscle tissue contracts and moves the small intestines. This “peristalsis” helps prevents backward movement of food material and maintains the forward movement of the material.

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43
Q

Outline the function of the serosa layers of tissue found in the wall of the small intestine.

A

The small intestine is made up of four layers of tissue. The serosa forms the outermost layer of small intestines and functions as connective tissue. It helps suspend the gut in abdominal cavity by attaching itself to surrounding structures.

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44
Q

Label the four layers of tissue found in the wall of the small intestine as viewed with a microscope or in a micrograph.

A

From the inner surface of the tube moving outward, the layers are:

(lumen)

mucosa (epithelial and goblet cells)

submucosa (villi capillary and lymph vessels)

smooth muscle (circular and longitudinal)

serosa (connective tissue)

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45
Q

Explain the use of models in physiology research.

A

A model is a representation of an idea, an object, a process or a system that is used to describe, explain or test phenomena that cannot be experienced directly.

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46
Q

State two examples of model systems used to study digestion.

A

TNO (gastro-) Intestinal Models (“TIM”) are model systems mimicking the digestive tract. The models are dynamic computer controlled multicompartmental systems with adjustable parameters for the physiological conditions of the stomach and intestine. Temperature, peristalsis, bile secretion, secretion of saliva, stomach and pancreas enzymes are all fully adjustable.

Dialysis tubing can model absorption by the small intestine. It is a selectively permeable membrane, this means it has pores in it which allow small molecules through but not larger molecules. At regular intervals the liquid inside and outside of the tubing can be sampled and tested for starch (using iodine) and glucose (using Benedict’s reagent).

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47
Q

State limitations of using model systems in physiology research.

A

A good model is both as accurate as possible and as simple as possible. Models should have as much accuracy and predictive power as possible while being to be as simple as possible. Therefore, all models have limitations.

Missing details: models can’t incorporate all the details of complex natural phenomena.

Approximations: approximations are not exact, so predictions based on them tend to be a little less accurate than what is actually observed

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48
Q

State the function of arteries.

A

The circulatory system is made up of blood vessels that carry blood away from and towards the heart. Arteries carry blood away from the heart to the capillaries in the tissues of the body.

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49
Q

Outline the role of elastic and muscle tissue in arteries.

A

The tunica media is the middle layer of an artery wall. It is a thick layer containing smooth muscle, elastic fibers and collagen that encircle the vessel. The muscle and elastic fibers assist in maintaining blood pressure between pump cycles.

As the blood inside the arteries is being pushed by the heart, the blood pushes against the insides of the artery walls. This pushing is “blood pressure.” To cope with this pressure, the muscles and elastin in the artery walls hold them in shape and allow them to to stretch in response to each pulse. This elasticity also helps to maintain a relatively constant pressure in the arteries despite the pulsating nature of the blood flow.

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50
Q

State the reason for toughness of artery walls.

A

Arteries must be able to withstand the pressure of the blood as it moves with each heartbeat. Compared to veins, arteries have a thick, tough tunica media layer containing smooth muscle, elastic fibers and collagen that encircle the vessel.

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51
Q

Explain how arteries are able to transport the blood under high pressure from the heart to the rest of the body.

A

Blood leaves the heart through arteries under high pressure as a result of the contraction of the ventricles. The thick muscular walls and narrow lumen of arteries maintains the pressure as the blood moves to the rest of the body. Additionally, the elastic recoil of the arterial walls helps to push blood between contractions of the heart.

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52
Q

Describe the structure and function of the three layers of artery wall tissue.

A

Tunica externa- A tough outer layer of connective tissue the adheres the vessel to the surrounding tissue.

Tunica media- A thick layer containing smooth muscle, elastic fibers and collagen that hold arteries in shape and allow them to to stretch in response to each pulse.

Tunica intima- A smooth endothelium forming the lining of the artery. Allows blood to flow through the vessel with minimal resistance.

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53
Q

Describe the mechanism used to maintain blood flow in arteries between heartbeats.

A

Blood will move from areas of higher pressure to areas of lower pressure.

During systole, when new blood is entering the arteries, the artery walls stretch to accommodate the increase of pressure of the extra blood. During diastole, the walls return to normal because of their elastic properties. The elastic recoil of the arteries allows the artery to exert an inward force to maintain blood pressure. As the muscles and elastic fibers recoil, they further propel the blood, maintaining blood flow in the arteries between heartbeats.

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54
Q

Define “blood pressure.”

A

Blood pressure is the pressure exerted by blood on the walls of an artery.

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55
Q

Define “systolic blood pressure.”

A

Systolic blood pressure measures the amount of pressure that blood exerts on vessels while the heart ventricles are contracting. Systolic blood pressure is the upper number of a blood pressure reading.

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56
Q

Define “diastolic blood pressure.”

A

Diastolic blood pressure measures the amount of pressure that blood exerts on vessels between ventricular contractions, when the heart ventricles are relaxed. Diastolic blood pressure is the second number in a blood pressure reading.

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57
Q

Outline the cause and effect of vasoconstriction.

A

Vasoconstriction is the narrowing of blood vessels resulting from contraction of the muscles in the tunica media layer of the vessel wall. When blood vessels constrict, blood flow to a region is decreased.

Vasoconstriction in arteries near the skin surface can occur when the body is exposed to cold. This makes less blood reach the surface, reducing the radiation of heat from the body.

Pharmaceutical vasoconstrictors are used in medicine to increase blood pressure.

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58
Q

Outline the cause and effect of vasodilation.

A

Vasodilation is the widening of blood vessels resulting from relaxation of the muscles in the tunica media layer of the vessel wall. When blood vessels dilate, blood flow to a region is increased.

Vasodilation in arteries near the skin surface can occur when the body is exposed to heat. This makes more blood reach the surface, increasing the radiation of heat from the body.

When exercising, vessels will dilate bringing more oxygen to the metabolically active cells. if there is a localized infection or cut, vessels will dilate, bringing more immune cells and/or clotting factors to to affected tissue.

Pharmaceutical vasodilators are used in medicine to decrease blood pressure.

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59
Q

Describe the structure and function of capillaries.

A

Capillaries are the smallest blood vessels in the body, connecting the arterioles to venules. Capillaries are composed of only two layers of cells; an endothelial layer surrounded by a basement membrane. The capillary lumen is so narrow that red blood cells need to flow through them single file. Capillaries are highly branched to increase the exchange surface area and minimize the diffusion distance.

Exchange of gases and other substances occurs in the capillaries between the blood and the surrounding cells and their tissue fluid (interstitial fluid). For capillaries to function, their walls must be “leaky”, allowing substances to pass through. There are three major types of capillaries, which differ according to their degree of “leakiness:” continuous, fenestrated, and sinusoid capillaries.

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60
Q

Describe the cause and effect of diffusion of materials into and out of a capillary network.

A

Diffusion is the most widely-used mechanism of transport of materials between the capillary and surrounding tissues. Small molecules diffusion across capillaries such as glucose and oxygen from the blood into the tissues and carbon dioxide from the tissue into the blood. The process depends on the difference of concentration gradients between the blood and the liquid outside the blood vessels, called interstitial fluid. Molecules move from high-concentrated areas to low-concentrated spaces.

As a result of this diffusion, the tissue cells are able to receive oxygen and nutrients and remove waste molecules and carbon dioxide.

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61
Q

State the function of veins.

A

The circulatory system is made up of blood vessels that carry blood away from and towards the heart. Veins carry blood towards the heart from the capillaries in the tissues of the body.

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62
Q

Outline the roles of gravity and skeletal muscle pressure in maintaining flow of blood through a vein.

A

Blood flows from an area of higher pressure toward an area of lower pressure. If blood is to flow from the veins back into the heart, the pressure in the veins must be greater than the pressure in the atria of the heart. Luckily, the pressure in the atria during diastole is very low.

The pressure within the veins can be increased by the contraction of the surrounding skeletal muscle. This mechanism, known as the skeletal muscle pump, helps the lower-pressure veins counteract the force of gravity, increasing pressure to move blood back to the heart. As leg muscles contract, they exert pressure on nearby veins with their numerous one-way valves. This increased pressure causes blood to flow upward, back to the heart against the force of gravity.

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63
Q

Outline the structure and function of a pocket valve.

A

Blood pressure in veins is much lower than that in the arteries. Veins must prevent it from flowing in the wrong direction. Valves in the veins function to keep blood moving in one direction. Theses valves are bicuspid (two) flap like structures made of elastic tissue and are often called “pocket valves” in reference to their shape.

As skeletal (especially leg) muscles contract, they exert pressure on nearby veins with their numerous valves. This increased pressure causes blood to flow upward, opening valves superior to the contracting muscles so blood flows through. Simultaneously, valves inferior to the contracting muscles close; thus, blood will not seep backward.

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64
Q

Draw a diagram to illustrate the double circulation system in mammals.

A

The majority of mammals (including humans) utilize a double circulatory system. It is called a double circulatory system because blood passes through the heart twice per full circuit.

The right pump sends deoxygenated blood to the lungs where it becomes oxygenated and returns back to the heart. The left pump sends the newly oxygenated blood around the body. By the time this blood returns to the heart, it has returned to a deoxygenated state.

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65
Q

Compare the circulation of blood in fish to that of mammals.

A

In fish, there is single pump circulation. The heart only has one atrium and one ventricle. The oxygen-depleted blood that returns from the body enters the atrium, and then the ventricle, and is then pumped out to the gills where the blood is oxygenated, and then it continues through the rest of the body.

In mammals there is double pump circulation. The heart has two atria and two ventricles. The right side of the heart receives blood returning back from the body; this “deoxygenated” blood enters the right atrium and then the right ventricle to be pumped to the lungs were the blood will be oxygenated. The oxygenated blood from the lungs enters the left ventricle via the left atrium and is then pumped out into the larger body circulation.

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66
Q

Explain the flow of blood through the pulmonary and systemic circulations.

A

The mammalian cardiovascular system has two distinct circulatory paths, pulmonary circulation and systemic circulation.

Pulmonary circulation is the movement of blood from the heart to the lungs for oxygenation, then back to the heart again.

Systemic circulation is the movement of blood from the heart through the body to provide oxygen and nutrients to the tissues of the body while bringing deoxygenated blood back to the heart.

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67
Q

Explain why the mammalian heart must function as a double pump.

A

There must be a double pump in order to create enough pressure to move the blood throughout the entire body. Pressure is needed to move blood through the resistance of a large network of blood vessels like arteries, capillaries, and veins.

A single pump (a) would require such a force that the lungs capillaries would be damaged by the high pressure blood moving through or (b) wouldn’t supply enough force to move blood through the lung capillaries for oxygenation and then continue on to the tissue capillaries.

When the right ventricle contracts (#1), it is able to raises the pressure of the blood to about 25mmHg. After passing through the lungs, the blood pressure is down to about 5mmHg. Then the left ventricle contraction (#2) causes the pressure to rise back up to about 120mmHg. That’s enough pressure to make it through all of the tissue capillaries in the body.

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68
Q

Summarize the double pump circulation of the mammalian heart.

A

The heart functions as a double pump. Blood moves from the body into the right atrium, and then into the right ventricle where it gets pumped (#1) into the lungs. Blood gets oxygenated in the lungs, moves into the left atrium, and into the left ventricle where it gets pumped (#2) into the body.

The double pump allows blood to be pumped at a lower pressure to the lungs (preventing damage of lung tissue) and pumped again at high enough pressure to pump blood to all other body tissues.

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69
Q

Define “myogenic contraction.”

A

Myogenic contractions are contractions that are initiated in the heart muscle itself rather than by stimulation from nerve impulses.

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70
Q

Outline the role of cells in the sinoatrial node.

A

The sinoatrial node (SA node) is a group of cells located in the wall of the right atrium of the heart that have the ability to spontaneously and regularly produce an electrical impulse (action potential) that travels through the heart causing it to contract. The SA node is known as the heart’s “pacemaker.”

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71
Q

Describe the propagation of the electrical signal from the sinoatrial node through the atria and ventricles.

A

The cardiac conduction system is a group of specialized cardiac muscle cells in the walls of the heart that send signals to the heart muscle causing it to contract. The sinoatrial node (SA node, “pacemaker”) starts the sequence by causing the atria to contract. From the SA node, the signal travels to the atrioventricular node (AV node), through the bundle of His, down the bundle branches, and through the Purkinje fibers, causing the ventricles to contract.

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72
Q

State the reason why the sinoatrial node is often called the pacemaker.

A

The sinoatrial node (SA node) is known as the heart’s “pacemaker.” The main role of a sinoatrial node cell is to initiate action potentials in the cardiac muscle cells at a regular interval, so that the impulse can pass through the heart and cause contraction.

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73
Q

Outline the action of nervous tissue that can regulate heart rate.

A

Heart rate is intrinsically determined by the pacemaker activity of the sinoatrial node (SA node) located in the wall of the right atrium. However, the pace of the SA node can be changed by impulses (action potentials) brought to the heart through nerves from the medulla of the brain. Neural input can influence heart rate, cardiac output, and contraction forces of the heart.

The vagus nerves (parasympathetic) can reduce the heart rate and the force of contraction of the heart.

Cardiac sympathetic nerves (sympathetic) can increase the heart rate and the force of contraction of the heart.

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74
Q

List factors that will increase heart rate.

A

There are a number of factors that can increase heart rate, including:

Epinephrine hormone

Increased thyroid hormones

Levels of various ions

Increased body temperature

Altitude

Exercise

Caffeine

Nicotine

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75
Q

List factors that will decrease heart rate.

A

There are a number of factors that can decrease heart rate, including:

Acetylcholine neurotransmitter

Decreased thyroid hormones

Levels of various ions

Decreased body temperature

Anticipation of relaxation

Reduced oxygen availability in cardiac cells

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76
Q

Outline conditions that will lead to epinephrine secretion.

A

Epinephrine (also known as adrenaline) is secreted by the adrenal gland upon activation of sympathetic nerves innervating this tissue. This activation occurs during times of stress (e.g., exercise, heart failure, hemorrhage, emotional stress or excitement, pain).

Epinephrine causes an increase in heart rate, muscle strength, blood pressure, and sugar metabolism. This reaction, known as the “Flight or Fight Response” prepares the body for strenuous activity.

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77
Q

Explain the effect of epinephrine on heart rate.

A

As a hormone, epinephrine achieves its effects on heart rate by stimulating the adrenergic receptors on the cell membrane of cells throughout the heart tissue. Once stimulated, these receptors activate a second-messenger system that trigger a cascading effect on other substances inside the cell. The overall result of this process is an increase in the heart rate, as well as an increase in the force of each individual heart contraction.

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78
Q

Outline William Harvey’s role in discovery of blood circulation.

A

William Harvey (1578-1657), observing the heart in living animals, he was able to show that the valves in the veins permit the blood to flow only in the direction of the heart and to prove that the blood circulated around the body and returned to the heart. In his words:

“It has been shown by reason and experiment that blood by the beat of the ventricles flows through the lungs and heart and is pumped to the whole body. There it passes through pores in the flesh into the veins through which it returns from the periphery everywhere to the centre, from the smaller veins into the larger ones, finally coming to the vena cava and right atrium. This occurs in such an amount, with such an outflow through the arteries and such a reflux through the veins, that it cannot be supplied by the food consumed. It is also much more than is needed for nutrition. It must therefore be concluded that the blood in the animal body moves around in a circle continuously and that the action or function of the heart is to accomplish this by pumping. This is only reason for the motion and beat of the heart.”

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79
Q

Describe the cause and consequence of atherosclerosis.

A

Atherosclerosis is the narrowing of arteries due to the buildup of fats, cholesterol and other substances in and on artery walls (plaque).

Atherosclerosis begins with damage to the artery endothelial layer (tunica intima) caused by high blood pressure, smoking, or high cholesterol. That damage leads to the formation of plaque on the artery wall.

Plaques from atherosclerosis can:

  • increase blood pressure
  • block blood flow (causing an aneurysm)
  • cause the vessel to rupture allowing blood to clot inside the artery (potentially leading to stroke or heart attack).
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80
Q

Outline the effect of a coronary occlusion on heart function.

A

The heart muscle requires a constant supply of nutrient and oxygen-rich blood. The coronary arteries provide the heart with this critical blood supply. A coronary occlusion is the partial or complete obstruction of blood flow in a coronary artery. If the heart muscle cells do not receive the blood (nutrients and oxygen) because of the blockage, they can not function properly. This condition may cause a myocardial infarction (heart attack). Within a short time, death of heart muscle cells occurs, causing permanent damage.

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81
Q

Define “cardiac cycle.”

A

The cardiac cycle is the action of the heart from the ending of one heartbeat to the beginning of the next. Both the atria and ventricles undergo systole and diastole during one cardiac cycle.

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82
Q

Summarize events of the cardiac cycle.

A

The chambers are relaxed (diastole) and both atria collect blood from veins. The sinoatrial node sends impulses initiating contraction of the atria, Blood is pushed into the ventricles by contraction of atria (systole). The atrioventricular valves are open as the atria contract and the semilunar valves are closed so that ventricles fill with blood.

When the ventricles contract (systole), the atrioventricular valves close (preventing backflow) and blood is pushed out through the semilunar valves into pulmonary artery and aorta. When the ventricles relax (diastole) the semilunar valves close preventing backflow of blood.

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83
Q

Define systole.

A

Systole is the part of the cardiac cycle during which the heart muscle contracts and moves blood out of the chambers. There is an atrial systole and a ventricular systole.

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84
Q

Define diastole.

A

Diastole is the part of the cardiac cycle during which the the muscle muscle relaxes and allows the chambers to fill with blood There is an atrial diastole and a ventricular diastole.

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85
Q

Outline events of atrial diastole.

A

At the beginning of the cardiac cycle, both the atria and ventricles are relaxed (diastole). Blood is flowing into the right atrium from the superior and inferior venae cavae. Blood flows into the left atrium from the four pulmonary veins. The left and right atrioventricular valves are both open, so blood flows unimpeded from the atria and into the ventricles. The pulmonary and aortic semilunar valves are closed, preventing backflow of blood into the right and left ventricles from the pulmonary artery on the right and the aorta on the left.

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86
Q

Outline events of atrial systole.

A

Contraction (systole) of the atria is triggered by the firing of the sinoatrial node. As the atrial muscles contract, pressure rises within the atria and blood is pumped into the ventricles through the open atrioventricular valves.

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87
Q

Outline events of ventricular diastole.

A

During the early phase of ventricular diastole, as the ventricular muscle relaxes, pressure on the remaining blood within the ventricle begins to fall. The semilunar valves close to prevent backflow into the heart.

In late ventricular diastole, pressure on the blood within the ventricles drops even further. Eventually, it drops below the pressure in the atria. When this occurs, blood flows from the atria into the ventricles, pushing open the atrioventricular valves. Blood flows from the relaxed atria into the ventricles. Both chambers are in diastole, the atrioventricular valves are open, and the semilunar valves are closed.

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88
Q

Outline events of ventricular systole.

A

As the muscles in the ventricle contract (systole), the pressure of the blood within the chamber rises, closing the atrioventricular valves.

As ventricular systole continues, the pressure within the ventricle raises to the point that it is greater than the pressures in the pulmonary artery and the aorta. The pressure of the blood pushes open the pulmonary and aortic semilunar valves. Blood is ejected from the heart through the pulmonary artery and the aorta.

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89
Q

Explain the pressure changes in the left atrium during the cardiac cycle.

A

Blood flows according to pressure gradients— it moves from regions that are higher in pressure to regions that are lower in pressure. Accordingly, when the heart chambers are relaxed (diastole, A), blood will flow into the atria from the veins and from the atria into the ventricles along the pressure gradient.

When the sinoatrial node triggers the muscles in the atria to contract (atrial systole, B), the pressure within the atrial chambers increases, which forces more blood flow across the open atrioventricular valves, leading to a rapid flow of blood into the ventricles.

The atria relax and the pressure again decreases (atrial diastole, A).

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90
Q

Explain the pressure changes in the left ventricle during the cardiac cycle.

A

Blood flows according to pressure gradients— it moves from regions that are higher in pressure to regions that are lower in pressure. Accordingly, when the heart chambers are relaxed (diastole, A), blood will flow into the atria from the veins and from the atria into the ventricles along the pressure gradient.

At the start of ventricular systole (B) , the pressure rises in the ventricle, closing the atrioventricular valves. Pressure continues to increase in the ventricle as it contracts, and eventually the pressure will surpass the pressure in the arteries. The pulmonary and aortic semilunar valves will open and blood will be ejected into the pulmonary artery from the right ventricle and into the aorta from the left ventricle.

As the blood leaves the ventricle, the pressure within the ventricle decreases. Once the pressure in the arteries is higher than that in the ventricles, the aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves will close. Although ventricular pressures continues to decrease, volumes do not change because all valves are closed.

Once the pressure is again lower in the ventricles than in the atria, the atrioventricular valves will open and blood will again enter the ventricle from the atria. Once the ventricles are completely relaxed, their pressures will slowly rise as they fill with blood from the atria.

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91
Q

Explain the pressure changes in the aorta during the cardiac cycle.

A

During ventricular systole, pressure increases in the ventricle as it contracts. Eventually the pressure will surpass the pressure in the aorta, causing the aortic semilunar valves to open and blood to be ejected into the aorta from the left ventricle.

As the left ventricle ejects blood into the aorta, the aortic pressure increases to a maximum systolic pressure. The greater the force of the ventricular contraction, the greater the change in aortic pressure during ejection.

After ventricular contraction, the pressure in the aorta will begin to drop. Once the pressure in the aorta is again higher than that in the ventricle, the aortic semilunar valves will close. Blood will no longer be entering the aorta and its pressure will decrease to a minimum diastolic pressure.

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92
Q

Explain the relationship between atrial and ventricular pressure and the opening and closing of the atrioventricular valves.

A

The atrioventricular valves are located between the atria and the ventricles of the heart. The atrioventricular valves open and close based on pressure differences between the ventricle and atria.

At the beginning of the cardiac cycle, both the atria and ventricles are relaxed (diastole). The left and right atrioventricular valves are both open, so blood flows unimpeded from the atria and into the ventricles.

As the muscles in the ventricle contract (systole), the pressure of the blood within the ventricle rises above the pressure in the atrium. The greater pressure in the ventricle causes the closing of the the atrioventricular valves and prevents backflow of blood from the ventricle to the atria.

When the ventricles relax, the pressure in the ventricle drops lower than the pressure in the atria. The higher pressure of the blood in the atria will cause the opening of the atrioventricular valves, allowing blood to flow from atria into the ventricles.

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93
Q

Explain the relationship between ventricular and arterial pressure and the opening and closing of the semilunar valves.

A

The semilunar valves are located between the ventricles and the arteries leaving the heart. The semilunar valves open and close based on pressure differences between the ventricle and arteries.

During ventricular diastole, the semilunar valves are closed to present backflow of blood from the arteries into the ventricles. The pressure is higher in the arteries than the ventricles, which keeps the valves closed.

With ventricular systole, the pressure rises in the ventricle and eventually the pressure will surpass the pressure in the arteries. The pulmonary and aortic semilunar valves will open and blood will be ejected into the pulmonary artery from the right ventricle and into the aorta from the left ventricle.

As the blood leaves the ventricle, the pressure within the ventricle decreases. Once the pressure in the arteries is higher than that in the ventricles, the aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves will close.

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94
Q

Given a micrograph, identify a blood vessel as an artery, capillary or vein.

A

The walls of arteries are much thicker than those of veins because of the higher pressure of the blood that flows through them. The artery walls also tend to have a more distinct round shape, held in place by the fibers of the tunica media.

Capillaries can be distinguished by the very narrow lumen size (only 1 red blood cell wide).

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95
Q

Explain the relationship between structure and function of arteries.

A

Blood under the highest pressure (closest to pump from heart)

Thickest wall (to withstand high pressure and maintain blood pressure)

Three wall layers (tunica intima, media and externa)

Smooth endothelium (reduces friction as blood moves through)

Smooth muscle (contracts to maintain blood pressure)

Elastic fibers (give wall strength and the ability to recoil to propel blood forward)

No valves (high pressure maintains blood flow direction)

Narrow lumen (maintains high pressure)

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96
Q

Explain the relationship between structure and function of capillaries.

A

One wall layer (tunica intima)

Wall has one layer of cells (allowing fast diffusion of substances)

Pores and fenestrations (increase permeability for exchange of substances and to allow immune phagocytes to enter tissues)

Extensive branching (increases surface area for exchange of materials)

Narrowest lumen diameter (allows them to fit between cells and perfuse tissue)

Only one red blood cell allowed to pass at a time (for efficient oxygen uptake)

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97
Q

Explain the relationship between structure and function of veins.

A

Three wall layers (tunica intima, media and externa)

Thin tunica media with less muscle and elastic fibers (allows skeletal muscles to exert pressure on veins)

Widest lumen diameter ( allows great volume of blood to pass while minimizing resistance to blood flow)

Valves (prevent backflow of blood)

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98
Q

Label the chambers on a diagram of the mammalian heart.

A

The mammalian heart has four chambers: two atria and two ventricles.

The right atrium receives oxygen-poor blood from the body via the vena cava and pumps it to the right ventricle.

The right ventricle pumps the oxygen-poor blood to the lungs via the pulmonary artery.

The left atrium receives oxygen-rich blood from the lungs via the pulmonary veins and pumps it to the left ventricle.

The left ventricle pumps the oxygen-rich blood to the body via the aorta.

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99
Q

Label the vessels on a diagram of the mammalian heart.

A

Veins are vessels that bring blood to the heart.

The superior and inferior vena cava bring oxygen-poor blood from the body to the right atrium.

The four pulmonary veins bring oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the left atrium.

Arteries are vessels that move blood away from the heart.

The pulmonary artery takes oxygen-poor blood from right ventricle to the lungs.

The aorta takes oxygen-rich blood from the left ventricle to the rest of the body.

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100
Q

Label the valves on a diagram of the mammalian heart.

A

Valves maintain the unidirectional flow of blood through the heart.

The atrioventricular (AV) valves are located between the atria and the ventricles of the heart. The right AV valve (tricuspid) is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle. The left AV valve (mitrial) is located between the left atrium and the left ventricle.

The semilunar (SL) valves are located between the ventricles and the arteries leaving the heart. The pulmonary SL valve is located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery. The aortic SL valve is located between the left ventricle and the aorta.

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101
Q

Draw a labelled diagram to show the structure of the heart.

A

The following structures should be drawn and labeled:

Left and right ventricles (drawn below the atria, the left must be thicker walled than right and both must be larger than the atria)

Left and right atrium (drawn above the ventricle, both shown with thinner walls than ventricles)

Left and right atrioventricular valves (positioned between atria and ventricles)

Aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves (shown at the start of the aorta and pulmonary artery, with the cusps facing in the right direction)

Aorta (shown connected to the left ventricle)

Pulmonary artery (shown connected to the right ventricle)

Pulmonary veins (shown connected to the left atrium)

Superior and inferior vena cava (shown connected to the right atrium)

102
Q

Outline Galen’s description of blood flow in the body.

A

Galen was an ancient Greek whose views on the cardiovascular system were the predominant idea for 15 centuries. Galen claimed that the liver produced blood that was then distributed to the body in a centrifugal manner. Air was absorbed from the lung and carried by vessels to the various tissues of the body. This was an open-ended system in which blood and air simply dissipated at the ends of vessels.

103
Q

Describe how Harvey was able to disprove Galen’s theory.

A

Harvey (1628) observed the heart in living animals, experimented and used deductive logic to show that arteries and veins are connected in the lung and the peripheral tissues (via capillaries), and that blood circulates with the heart as the pump. Having determined that the quantity of blood issuing from the heart in any given time was too much to be absorbed by the tissues, he was able to show that the valves in the veins permit the blood to flow only in the direction of the heart and to prove that the blood circulated around the body and returned to the heart.

104
Q

Explain how the human body defends itself against pathogens.

A

The first time of defense against pathogens is provided by skin and mucous membranes. Skin provides a physical barrier and mucus traps pathogens. Tears and mucus contain the enzyme lysozyme which destroy bacterial cell walls. Additionally, stomach, skin and vaginal mucus produce acid which kills pathogens. For example, sebaceous glands in the skin secrete fatty acids that make the surface of the skin acidic.

If there is a cut in the skin, platelets activate the clotting cascade, creating a clot so pathogens cannot enter.

If a pathogen makes it through those physical and chemical defenses, then phagocytic white blood cells can ingest and digest pathogens. These phagocytes provide non-specific immunity to disease.

Specific immunity is provided by lymphocytes. Lymphocytes divide to produce clones of plasma cells which produce antibodies that are specific to an antigen. The binding of an antibody to an antigen stimulates destruction of the pathogen. Memory cells provide immunity against future attacks by the same antigen.

105
Q

Explain the role of various proteins in the immune defense against pathogens.

A

Various proteins are involved in the immune defense against pathogens. For example:

Clotting Factors

Clotting factors are proteins that catalyze the blood clotting process. For example, thrombin is an enzyme that converts fibrinogen to fibrin. Fibrin is a protein that forms a mesh around a platelet plug that forms a clot and prevents the entry of pathogen into the blood.

Antibodies

Immunoglobulins are antibodies. Antibodies are proteins made by plasma B cells that are specific to certain an antigens. Once an antibody binds to an antigen, it inactivates the antigen.

Digestive Enzymes

Lysozyme is an enzyme that catalyzes the destruction of the cell walls of certain bacteria. There are also enzymes in the lysosome of phagocytic white blood cells digest the pathogens that have been phagocytosed by the cell.

106
Q

Define “pathogen.”

A

A pathogen is a bacterium, virus, fungus or other microorganism that can cause disease can produce infectious disease.

107
Q

Define “infectious disease.”

A

Infectious diseases are disease caused by organisms — such as bacteria, viruses, fungi or other microorganisms. Infectious disease can be spread, directly or indirectly, from one person to another.

108
Q

Outline the role of skin in the defense against pathogens.​

A

The skin provides a primary line of defense against pathogens. The skin is a physical barrier made of several layers of cells that prevent pathogen entry into the body. In addition, the skin:

…has a slightly acidic pH which prevents some bacteria from growing.

…secretes antimicrobial fatty acids.

…is relatively dry, which inhibits some bacterial growth.

…is populated with beneficial bacteria that prevent other bacteria from growing.

…secretes sweat, which contains the antimicrobial lysozyme enzyme (catalyzes the destruction of the cell walls of certain bacteria).

109
Q

Outline the role of sebaceous glands in the defense against pathogens.​

A

Sebaceous glands in the skin secrete an oil called sebum that is released onto the skin surface through hair follicles. This sebum provides a layer of defense by helping seal off the pore of the hair follicle, preventing bacteria on the skin’s surface from invading sweat glands and surrounding tissue.

Additionally, some bacteria of the microbiome can digest sebum, using it as a food source. This produces oleic acid, which creates a mildly acidic environment on the surface of the skin that is inhospitable to many pathogenic microbes.

110
Q

Outline the role of mucous membranes in the defense against pathogens.​

A

A mucous membrane (mucosa) is a tissue that lines cavities in the body at openings such as the eyes, ears, inside the nose, inside the mouth, lip, vagina, the urethral opening and the anus. Mucous membranes secrete mucus, a thick protective fluid.

As a sticky fluid, mucus traps pathogens and prevents them from entering the body. Additionally, mucus can be acidic (eg in the stomach) which will kill some microbes. Mucus also contains the antibacterial enzyme lysozyme, which catalyzes the destruction of the cell walls of certain bacteria.

111
Q

Summarize the primary (first line) of defense against infectious disease.

A

The primary, “ first line” of defense against infection are the surface barriers that prevent the entry of pathogens into the body. There are two main types of primary defences: the skin and mucous membranes.

The skin acts as a physical barrier to prevent pathogens from entering our body. Mucus traps pathogens. Additionally, both the skin and mucous membranes release chemical secretions which restrict the growth of microbes on their surfaces.

112
Q

State two benefits of blood clotting when skin is cut.

A

A blood clot is a clump of blood that has changed from a liquid to a gel-like or semisolid state. Clotting is a necessary process that can:

1) Prevent excessive bleeding when a blood vessel is injured or cut.

2) Prevent pathogens from entering the body.

113
Q

Outline the role of clotting factors in the blood clotting cascade.

A

The process by which blood clots are formed involves a complex set of reactions collectively called the clotting cascade. This cascade is stimulated by clotting factors released from platelets and/or a damaged vessel wall.

Clotting factors:

  1. …cause platelets to become sticky and adhere to the damaged region to form a solid plug.
  2. …initiate vasoconstriction to reduce blood flow through the damaged region.
  3. …trigger a series of reactions that ends with the formation of a mesh of fibers around the platelet plug that traps blood cells to form a temporary, insoluble clot.
114
Q

Outline two roles of platelets in the blood clotting cascade.​

A

Platelets are one of the main components of blood and play an important role in preventing blood loss through clotting. Platelets have two roles in the formation of a blood clot:

  1. When platelets come across the injured endothelium cells, they change shape, aggregate and adhere to each other at the damaged vessel wall. As platelets accumulate at the site, they form a mesh that plugs the injury.
  2. Platelets release clotting factors in the blood. When a blood vessel is injured, the clotting cascade is initiated and each clotting factor is activated in a specific order to lead to the formation of the blood clot.
115
Q

Outline the role of thrombin in the blood clotting cascade.

A

Thrombin is an enzyme involved in the blood clotting cascade.

In order to prevent blood from clotting when it shouldn’t, thrombin circulates in an inactive form called prothrombin. Prothrombin is produced and secreted into the blood by hepatocytes in the liver.

Prothrombin is activated by clotting factors, which are released by platelets when a blood vessel is damaged. Clotting factors trigger the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. Platelets have thrombin receptors on their surfaces that bind thrombin molecules. In turn, the thrombin enzyme converts soluble fibrinogen into insoluble strands of fibrin, which form the blood clot.

116
Q

Outline the role of fibrin in the blood clotting cascade.

A

Fibrin is a fibrous protein involved in the clotting of blood. It is formed by the action of the enzyme thrombin on its precursor molecule, fibrinogen. Fibrinogen is soluble and circulates in the blood until activated by thrombin. This ensures that a clot doesn’t form when not necessary.

Fibrin forms long strands of tough insoluble protein that are bound to platelets. The fibrin strands form a mesh atop the platelet plug that completes the clot.

117
Q

Summarize the steps of the blood clotting cascade.

A

The process by which blood clots are formed involves a complex set of reactions collectively called the clotting cascade. This cascade is stimulated by clotting factors released from platelets and/or a damaged vessel wall.

Clotting factors trigger the conversion of the inactive prothrombin into the activated enzyme thrombin, which in turn catalyses the conversion of the soluble plasma protein fibrinogen into an insoluble fibrous form called fibrin. The fibrin strands form a mesh of fibres around the platelet plug and traps blood cells to form a clot.

118
Q

Define “non-specific immunity.”

A

Non-specific, innate immunity is the defense system with which humans are born. It protects generically against all pathogens. Non-specific immunity includes physical and chemical barriers that keep harmful materials from entering the body and non-specific phagocytic immune cells that respond to each pathogen using the same mechanism.

119
Q

List example disease defenses that provide non-specific immunity.

A

Examples of non-specific, innate immunity defenses include:

  1. Lysozyme enzyme in tears, digest bacterial cell wall
  2. Mucus, which traps bacteria and small particles
  3. Skin, a physical barrier
  4. Low pH of sweat, prevents growth of bacteria
  5. Stomach acid, pH denatures microbial enzymes
  6. Fatty acids in sweat, inhibit the growth of bacteria
  7. Fever, temperature denatures microbial enzymes
  8. Cilia in trachea, keep air passages free from pathogens
  9. Phagocytic white blood cells, engulf and digest pathogens
  10. Normal microbiome of the skin and in the gut can prevent the colonization of pathogenic bacteria by secreting toxic substances or by competing with pathogenic bacteria for nutrients or attachment to cell surfaces
120
Q

Outline the function of phagocytic white blood cells in defense against pathogens.​

A

White blood cells called macrophages are phagocytic cells that engulf and digest pathogens. These cells participate in the non-specific immune system response and therefore do not differentiate between types of pathogens (the cells do have the ability to discern between what is self and what is non-self).

Phagocytic macrophages are able to leave the blood and squeeze through pores in the capillaries. They extend pseudopods around the pathogens. The pseudopods eventually surround the pathogen and engulf it, enclosing it in a phagosome. The phagosome merges with the cell’s lysosome. Enzymes within the lysosome then digest the pathogen. Waste material is expelled via exocytosis.

121
Q

Define “specific immunity.”

A

Specific immunity, also known as adaptive or acquired immunity, is specialized immunity for particular pathogens. Specific immunity develops with exposure to pathogen specific molecules called antigens. The immune system builds a defense against that specific antigen.

122
Q

Compare nonspecific with specific immune responses.

A

Nonspecific

Innate.

Present and ready at all times to respond to a pathogen.

Not antigen specific and reacts equally well to a variety of pathogens.

Does not demonstrate immunological memory.

Specific

Acquired with exposure to pathogens.

Requires some time to amp-up reaction to a pathogen.

Reacts only to a specific antigen specific.

Demonstrates immunological memory. It “remembers” that it has encountered an invading organism and reacts more rapidly on subsequent exposure to the same organism.

123
Q

Define “antigen.”

A

An antigen is any molecule that causes the immune system to produce antibodies against it. This means the immune system does not recognize the substance, and is trying to fight it off.

An antigen may be a substance from the environment, such as chemicals, bacteria, viruses, or pollen. In the case of autoimmune diseases, an antigen may also be a natural molecule inside the body.

124
Q

Describe the structure of antibodies.

A

Antibodies are immune system proteins called immunoglobulins produced by plasma B-cells. Each antibody consists of four polypeptides joined to form a “Y” shaped molecule. The tips of the “Y” varies greatly among different antibodies. This variable region, composed of 110-130 amino acids, give the antibody its specificity for a certain antigen.

125
Q

Describe the function of antibodies.

A

Antibody proteins bind to specific antigen molecules. Once an antibody binds to an antigen, it inactivates the antigen in several ways:

  1. Tag the pathogen or an infected cell for destruction by a phagocyte (opsonization).
  2. Block the harmful effects of the toxin (neutralization).
  3. Cause clumping for easier capture by phagocytes (agglutination).
126
Q

Explain antibody production.

A

There is a huge variety in the antibodies produced by the B cell lymphocytes. Each antibody recognizes one specific antigen. If the antigen is detected by the immune system, the B cell will the complementary antibody to the antigen responds by repeatedly dividing to form many clones. The cloned B cells secrete antibodies against the specific antigen. The binding of an antibody to an antigen stimulates destruction of the pathogen. Some of the cloned B cells will be long lasting memory cells that provided continued immunity if the antigen is again detected.

127
Q

Define “lymphocytes.”

A

Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell. There are B and T type lymphocytes.

B lymphocytes produce antibodies. Antibodies attach to a specific antigen and make it easier for the immune cells to destroy the antigen.

T lymphocytes attack antigens directly. They also release chemicals, known as cytokines, which control the entire immune response.

128
Q

State the function of plasma cells.​

A

Plasma cells, also called plasma B cells, are lymphocytes that originate in the bone marrow and secrete large quantities of proteins called antibodies in response to exposure to specific antigens.

129
Q

State the function of memory cells.​

A

Memory cells, also called memory B cells, are important in generating an accelerated and more robust antibody-mediated immune response in the case of reinfection.

During an initial infection, B cells are produced that are specific to the antigen. Most of these differentiate into the plasma B cells which produce antibodies and help clear the infection. Some of the cells persist as dormant memory B cells that survive in the body on a long-term basis. This allows the immune system to respond faster and more efficiently the next time it is exposed to the same antigen.

130
Q

Define “antibiotic.”

A

Antibiotics are chemicals that destroy or slow down the growth of bacteria. They include a range of powerful drugs and are used to treat diseases caused by bacteria. Antibiotics cannot treat viral infections

131
Q

Outline the mechanisms by which antibiotics kill prokaryotic cells.

A

Different families of antibiotics have different ways of killing bacteria. For example, some antibiotics:

  1. …block bacterial cell wall synthesis. Without support from a cell wall, pressure inside the cell becomes too much and the cell bursts.
  2. …inhibit the 70s bacterial ribosomes and prevent them from building proteins. A bacterium that cannot build proteins cannot survive.
  3. …cause the DNA strands to break and then prevent the breaks from being repaired. Without intact DNA, bacteria cannot live or reproduce.
132
Q

Explain why antibiotics are ineffective against eukaryotic cells.

A

Antibiotics work by affecting things that prokaryotic cells have but eukaryotic cells do not. For example:

  • prokaryotic cells have peptidoglycan in their cell wall, eukaryotic cells do not. The antibiotic penicillin works by keeping a bacterium from building a cell wall.
  • prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells differ in the molecules within their cell membranes. Some antibiotics dissolve the membrane of just bacterial cells.
  • prokaryotic cells have 70s ribosomes and eukaryotic cells have 80s ribosomes. Some antibiotics affect protein-building machinery that is specific to bacteria.
133
Q

Explain why antibiotics are ineffective against viruses.

A

Antibiotics are effective against bacteria but not against viruses. Antibiotics block specific metabolic pathways found in prokaryotic cells. Viruses do not have their own metabolic pathways (they reproduce using the host cell’s metabolic pathways) and therefore are not affected by antibiotics.

134
Q

Define “antibiotic resistance.”

A

Antibiotics are medicines used to prevent and treat bacterial infections. Antibiotic resistance is when bacteria evolve the ability to survive exposure to antibiotics.

135
Q

Outline how genes confer antibiotic resistance to bacteria.

A

Several mechanisms have evolved in bacteria which confer them with antibiotic resistance. Most, but not all, resistance mechanisms are encoded by genes located on plasmids. These genes for code proteins that either:

  1. chemically modify the antibiotic in such a way that it no longer affects the bacteria (most common).
  2. transport the antibiotic out of the cell.
  3. modify the target of the antibiotics action so that it is not recognized by the antibiotic.
136
Q

Outline how natural selection has lead to antibiotic resistance in bacteria.

A

Antibiotic resistance in bacteria is an example of natural selection leading to evolution.

  1. A named example of a species; //Bacteria, such as Staphylococcus aureus.//
  2. An outline of the different variations of a relevant trait; //Within populations, bacteria vary in their resistance to antibiotics. Some varieties are more resistant to antibiotics than others;//
  3. A statement that the variation is genetically inherited. //Antibiotic resistance arises by random DNA gene mutation. Resistance is passed through binary fission to subsequent generations or transferred to other bacteria by plasmids.//
  4. A statement of the selective pressure;//Antibiotics, which are chemicals used to treat bacterial diseases. //
  5. Consequence of the selective pressure;//Antibiotic-sensitive bacteria are killed. Antibiotic resistant bacteria survive.//
  6. More reproduction by better adapted individuals; //Antibiotic resistant bacteria reproduce and pass on resistance gene(s) to the next generation.//
  7. The change in the population that results.//A larger proportion of the bacteria population is antibiotic-resistant. It becomes difficult to treat some infections.//
137
Q

List five measures that can be taken to avoid the development of antibiotic resistance in bacteria.

A
  1. Doctors should not prescribe antibiotics inappropriately, such as for the treatment of non-serious infections.
  2. Antibiotics should not be prescribed to treat diseases caused by viruses.
  3. Patients should always complete the full course of antibiotics to ensure all bacteria are killed and none survive to mutate and form resistant strains.
  4. The agricultural use of antibiotics should be restricted.
  5. Antibiotics should be disposed of properly, to avoid the chemicals contaminating environmental bacterial populations.
138
Q

Explain why multiple drug antibiotic resistance is especially dangerous.

A

Large amounts of antibiotics used for human disease treatment and in agriculture have resulted in the selection of pathogenic bacteria that are resistant to multiple drugs. These strains of bacteria are especially dangerous for human health because there are no treatments for the associated disease.

Multidrug resistance in bacteria may be generated by one of two mechanisms. First, these bacteria may accumulate multiple genes, each coding for resistance to a single drug, within a single cell. Second, multidrug resistance may also occur by the increased expression of genes that code for multidrug efflux pumps, transporting a wide range of drugs out of the cell before they have effect.

139
Q

State an example of a multidrug resistant bacteria.

A

A notorious example of multidrug resistant bacteria is methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), which is resistant to most antibiotics and disinfectants. MRSA can act as a major source of hospital-acquired infections and cannot be treated easily.

140
Q

State the function of the coronary arteries.

A

The coronary arteries branch from the aorta and carry blood to the heart muscle itself, supplying it with the oxygen and nutrients that the heart cells needs to function.

141
Q

Define coronary thrombosis.

A

Coronary thrombosis is the formation of a blood clot inside a blood vessel of the heart. This blood clot restricts blood flow within the heart and can lead to myocardial infarction (heart attack).

142
Q

Outline the causes of coronary thrombosis.

A

Thrombosis (coronary or otherwise) is caused by atherosclerosis. Atherosclerosis is a disease in which a waxy substance called plaque builds up inside the arteries. Over time, the plaque may cause the vessel to rupture. Platelets clump together to form a clot at the site of the damage.

143
Q

List factors that are correlated with an increased risk of coronary thrombosis and heart attack.

A

Coronary thrombosis is caused by a blood clot within the coronary arteries of the heart. The main factors that are correlated with coronary thrombosis are:

-high LDL cholesterol

-smoking

-sedentary lifestyle

-hypertension

-diabetes

-heart failure

-obesity

144
Q

Describe the consequences of the HIV on the immune system.

A

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) attacks a specific type of immune system cell known as the CD4+ T cell. This cell plays an important role in the initiation of the specific immune response. When HIV destroys this cell, it becomes harder for the body to fight off infections and other illnesses develop.

145
Q

Outline the relationship between HIV and AIDS.

A

HIV attacks cells of the immune system. Without treatment, the virus will reduce the number of functional CD4+ T cells. In the advanced stages of HIV infection, loss of the T cells leads to the symptomatic stage of infection known as the acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Symptoms of AIDS include:

Rapid weight loss

Recurring fever or night sweats

Extreme and unexplained tiredness

Prolonged swelling of the lymph glands

Diarrhea

Sores of the mouth, anus, or genitals

Pneumonia

146
Q

List ways the HIV virus is transmitted.

A

HIV is found in body fluids such as blood, semen, vaginal fluids and breast milk. Infection only occurs when body fluids from an infected person enter the bloodstream of another person.

HIV can be transmitted by:

Sex without a condom

Sharing needles, syringes and other equipment for injecting drugs

Unsterile body piercing or tattooing

Mother-to-child during pregnancy, childbirth or breastfeeding

Blood transfusion and/or blood products in some countries

147
Q

Explain methods and results of Florey and Chain’s experiments.​

A

Howard Florey and Ernst Chain (1940) injected eight mice with a lethal suspension of bacteria, and four of these were also given the antibiotic penicillin. The four mice which received penicillin lived and the mice that were not given penicillin died. This experiment provided evidence that antibiotics could treat serious bacterial infections.

148
Q

Compare allowable research risks of the past with those of the present.​

A

Florey tested antibiotic effects on humans even though there were ethical issues and possible risks involved in these experiments relative to today’s standards:

Past:

Small sample sizes

No established protocols or rules to follow

Impure drug samples

Not enough of the drug for multiple tests

Rushed, fast testing

Consent not required

Trial patients near death

Present:

Large sample sizes

Well established protocols and rules to follow

Highly purified drug samples

Significant quantities of the drug can be synthesized

Testing can take many years

Consent must be given

Healthy people often tested before sick

149
Q

Define “gas exchange.”

A

Gas exchange is the diffusion of gases from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration across an organism’s membranes.

150
Q

Define “ventilation.”

A

Ventilation is the moving air into and out of lungs via inhalation and exhalation (breathing).

151
Q

Distinguish between ventilation, gas exchange and cell respiration.

A

Cell respiration depends on gas exchange and gas exchange depends on ventilation.

Ventilation is the movement of air into and out of lungs via inhalation and exhalation. Ventilation involves muscle movement.

Gas exchange is the movement of carbon dioxide and oxygen between the alveoli and blood and between blood and tissue cells.

Cell respiration is the release of energy through the oxidation of glucose. Aerobic cell respiration occurs in mitochondria.

152
Q

State the location of gas exchange in humans.

A

In humans, gas exchange occurs in the lungs with the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the air of the external environment and the body fluids of the internal environment.

Gas exchange also occurs in the body tissues, where oxygen is taken up by the tissues and the CO2 that the tissues have created is diffused back into the blood for transport back to the lungs or gills to be released.

153
Q

Draw a diagram showing the structure of an alveolus and an adjacent capillary.

A

Alveolus drawn as an oval with scalloped edges.

Alveolus wall drawn as a single line (representing 1 cell thick).

Alveolus lumen empty.

Thin layer of surfactant drawn inside alveolus wall.

Alveolar duct ending at alveolus.

Capillary drawn as a tube surrounding outside of the alveolus.

Capillary wall drawn as a single line (representing 1 cell thick).

Capillary lumen narrow.

Red blood cell(s) within capillary lumen.

Arrow to indicate direction of blood flow through the capillary.

Arrow to indicate diffusion of O2 from alveolus lumen into capillary red blood cell.

Arrow to indicate diffusion of CO2 from capillary into alveolar lumen.

154
Q

Outline the role of the parts of an alveolus in a human lung.

A

Alveolus as an oval with scalloped edges- maximizes surface area for gas exchange.

Alveolus wall is a single layer of Type 1 pneumocytes- minimizes distance gases have to travel between the blood in the capillary and the air in the alveolus.

Lumen of alveolus- volume of air for gas exchange.

Surfactant produced by Type II pneumocytes- reduces surface tension and prevents collapse of alveolus when air is exhaled.

Bronchial tube ending at alveolus- tube for transport of air into and out of the alveolus.

Capillary surrounding outside of the alveolus- minimizes distance gases have to travel between the blood in the capillary and the air in the alveolus.

Capillary wall is a single cell thick- minimizes distance gases have to travel between the blood in the capillary and the air in the alveolus.

155
Q

Outline the mechanism of gas exchange in humans.

A

Gas exchange occurs through diffusion. Diffusion is the net movement of molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration. Diffusion is driven by a gradient in concentration and is a passive process (no energy input). In humans, oxygen diffuses into capillaries at the lungs and into tissue cells throughout the body. Carbon dioxide diffusion out of the tissue cells throughout the body and then out of the blood in the lungs.

156
Q

Outline the purpose of gas exchange in humans.

A

Gas exchange must occur so that cells have oxygen for performing aerobic respiration. Oxygen is the final electron acceptor in the oxidation of glucose during cellular respiration. Without oxygen, aerobic respiration will stop.

Additionally, the carbon dioxide waste product of the respiration must leave the cells. It is very dangerous if carbon dioxide builds up in the body, so blood carries the carbon dioxide to the lungs where it is released into the air with exhalation.

157
Q

Outline the purpose of ventilation in humans.

A

Ventilation (moving air into and out of lungs) maintains a steep concentration gradient of gases in alveoli of the lungs. New air is continually cycled into and out of the lungs from the atmosphere, ensuring O2 levels stay high in alveoli (and diffuse into the blood) and CO2 levels stay low (and diffuse from the blood).

Ventilation maintains the concentration gradient required for gas exchange.

158
Q

Describe how the structure of the lung increases surface area for gas exchange.

A

Gas exchange occurs more quickly with larger surface areas. The lungs have a large surface area from having many alveoli. The alveoli themselves have a large surface area because the cells that make up their wall have a flattened, thin shape. A typical pair of human lungs contain about 300 million alveoli, producing 70m2 of surface area.

159
Q

Outline the structure and function of Type 1 pneumocytes.

A

Type I pneumocytes are thin, flat cells that form the structure of the alveoli. Their shape increases the surface area of each cell individually and the surface area of the alveoli collectively. Type I pneumocytes line more than 95% of the alveolar surface.

Type I pneumocytes are the location of gas exchange between the alveoli and blood. Their thin shape enables a fast diffusion of gases between the air in the alveoli lumen and the blood in the surrounding capillaries.

160
Q

Outline the structure and function of Type II pneumocytes.

A

Type II pneumocytes are larger, cuboidal cells in the alveolar wall that occur less frequently than Type I cells.

Type II pneumocytes produce a pulmonary surfactant that is continuously released by exocytosis.

161
Q

Describe two functions of the fluid secreted by Type II pneumocytes.

A

Type II pneumocytes produce a pulmonary surfactant that is continuously released by exocytosis. Reinflation of the alveoli following exhalation is made easier by the surfactant, which reduces surface tension in the thin fluid coating of the alveoli.

Additionally, fluid secreted by Type II pneumocytes facilitates the transfer of gases between blood and alveolar air. The gases dissolve in the moist fluid, helping them to pass across the alveoli surface.

162
Q

Draw a labelled diagram to show the human ventilation system.

A

Nasal cavity

Trachea

Bronchi

Bronchioles

Lungs

Alveoli (enlarged as inset)

Diaphragm

Intercostal muscles

163
Q

Outline the flow of air into the lungs.

A

When air enters the lungs during inhalation it passes through:

Nostrils →

Nasal cavity →

Pharynx →

Larynx →

Trachea →

Bronchi (with cartilaginous rings) →

Bronchioles (without cartilage) →

Alveoli.

164
Q

State the role of cartilage in the trachea and bronchi.

A

Cartilage is a strong but flexible tissue. The cartilage in the trachea and bronchi form incomplete rings that support the structures while still allowing them to move and flex during breathing. If cartilage was not present then the trachea and bronchi would collapse inward during exhalation.

165
Q

State the role of smooth muscle fibres in the bronchioles.

A

The trachea divides into two bronchi (one for each lung) which continue to subdivide before becoming bronchioles. Whereas the bronchi have rings of cartilage that serve to keep them open, the bronchioles are lined with smooth muscle tissue and do not have cartilage. The muscle contracts and expands, effectively controlling the flow of air as it moves to the alveoli.

166
Q

State the relationship between gas pressure and volume.

A

Boyle’s Law describes the relationship between the pressure and the volume of a gas. The law states that as volume increases, pressure decreases and vice versa.

The mechanics of ventilation follow Boyle’s Law. When the volume of the lungs changes, the pressure of the air in the lungs changes in accordance with Boyle’s Law. If the pressure is greater in the lungs than outside the lungs, then air rushes out. If the pressure is lower in the lungs than outside the lungs, then air rushes in.

167
Q

Outline the pressure and volume changes that occur in the lungs during normal inspiration.​

A

Inspiration occurs when the external intercostal muscles and the diaphragm contract, causing an increase in size of the thoracic cavity and expansion of the lungs. With expansion of the lungs, the volume of the alveoli sacs increases, reducing internal air pressure in accordance with Boyle’s Law. The air pressure inside the lungs decreases below that of air outside the body. Because gases move from regions of high pressure to low pressure, air rushes into the lungs.

168
Q

Outline the pressure and volume changes that occur in the lungs during normal expiration.​

A

Expiration occurs when the external intercostal muscles and the diaphragm relax, causing a decrease in size of the thoracic cavity and recoil of the lungs. The volume of the alveoli sacs decreases, increasing internal air pressure in accordance with Boyle’s Law. The air pressure inside the lungs increases above that of air outside the body. Because gases move from regions of high pressure to low pressure, air rushes out of the lungs.

169
Q

Define “thorax.”

A

The thorax is a part of the anatomy of humans and other animals located between the neck and the abdomen (the chest). The thorax includes the thoracic cavity (contains organs including the heart and lungs) and the thoracic wall (ribs and intercostal muscles).

170
Q

Summarize the muscle contractions required to ventilate the lungs.

A

Inspiration (inhalation):

-External intercostal muscles contract moving rib cage up and out.

-Diaphragm contracts becoming lower and flatter.

-Additional muscles can be used if a bigger breath is required.

Expiration (exhalation):

-External intercostal muscles relax and move the rib cage down and in.

-Diaphragm relaxes, moving higher and becoming more dome shaped.

-Internal intercostal muscles and abdominals contract with forced exhalation.

171
Q

Define “inspiration” as related to lung ventilation.

A

Inspiration = inhalation = breathing in.

The process that causes air to enter the lungs.

172
Q

Define “expiration” as related to lung ventilation.

A

Expiration = exhalation = breathing out.

The process that causes air to leave the lungs.

173
Q

Outline how the diaphragm and abdominal muscles work as an antagonistic pair during ventilation.

A

Skeletal muscles work in antagonistic pairs, meaning as one muscle contracts, the other relaxes.

Ventilation includes the movement of the following antagonistic muscle pair:

Diaphragm (moves down with contraction to increase thorax volume during inspiration)

…is antagonistic with…

Abdominal oblique (contracts to push the diaphragm back up towards the thorax during expiration).

174
Q

Outline how the external and internal intercostal muscles work as an antagonistic pair during ventilation.

A

Skeletal muscles work in antagonistic pairs, meaning as one muscle contracts, the other relaxes.

Ventilation includes the movement of the following antagonistic muscle pair:

External intercostal muscles (contract moving rib cage up and out during inspiration)

…is antagonistic with…

Internal intercostal muscles (contract moving rib cage down and in during forceful exhalation such as coughing or during exercise).

175
Q

Outline the direction of movement of the diaphragm and rib-cage during inspiration.

A

During inspiration (inhalation) the external intercostal muscles contract and the rib-cage moves up and out. The diaphragm also contracts, moving down and flattening. Together, these motions increase the volume of the thorax.

176
Q

Outline the direction of movement of the diaphragm and rib-cage during expiration.

A

During expiration (exhalation) the external intercostal muscles relax and the the internal intercostal muscles contract, moving the rib-cage down and in. The diaphragm relaxes and abdominal oblique muscles contract, pushing the diaphragm up and into a domed position. Together, these motions decrease the volume of the thorax.

177
Q

Outline the structure and function of external intercostal muscles.

A

Each rib is connected to the rib below it by both external and internal intercostal muscles.

The external intercostal muscles are located on the outer surface of the ribs and are positioned at a diagonal in between each rib.

The external intercostal muscles are responsible for forced and quiet inhalation. Contraction of the external intercostal muscles elevates the ribs and spreads them apart, resulting in the inhalation of air from the atmosphere.

178
Q

Outline the structure and function of internal intercostal muscles.

A

Each rib is connected to the rib below it by both external and internal intercostal muscles.

The internal intercostal muscles are located on the inner surface of the ribs (deeper than the external intercostal muscles) and are positioned at a diagonal in between each rib.

The internal intercostal muscles are responsible for forced exhalation. Contraction of the internal intercostal muscles depresses the ribs and pulls them closer together, resulting in the forced exhalation of air from the lungs.

179
Q

Outline the structure and function of the diaphragm.

A

The diaphragm is a dome-shaped sheet of muscle located just below the lungs.

During inspiration (inhalation), the diaphragm contracts and is drawn inferiorly into the abdominal cavity until it is flat. The thoracic cavity becomes larger, drawing in air from the atmosphere.

During expiration (exhalation), the diaphragm relaxes and elevates to its dome-shaped position in the thorax. Air within the lungs is forced out of the body when the size of the thoracic cavity decreases.

180
Q

Outline the causes of lung cancer.

A

Lung cancer occurs when cells in the lung mutate and divide uncontrollably to form tumors.

Smoking is the number one cause of lung cancer. Tobacco smoke contains many chemicals that are known to mutate DNA. The risk of lung cancer increases with the length of time and number of cigarettes smoked.

Other causes of lung cancer include:

-Particle pollution (very tiny solid and liquid particles that are in the air)

-Genetic predisposition

-Radon exposure

-Other hazardous chemicals (such as asbestos)

181
Q

List symptoms of lung cancer.​

A

Lung cancer typically doesn’t cause signs and symptoms in its early stages. Signs and symptoms of lung cancer typically occur only when the disease has advanced.

Signs and symptoms of lung cancer may include:
-A persistent cough
-Coughing up blood
-Shortness of breath
-Chest pain
-Voice hoarseness
-Unintentional weight loss

182
Q

Outline the causes of emphysema.

A

Emphysema is a lung disease caused by the weakening and rupturing of alveoli. As a result there are larger air spaces instead of many small ones. Having fewer and larger damaged sacs means there is a reduced surface area for the exchange of oxygen into the blood and carbon dioxide out of it.

Smoking is the leading cause of emphysema.

183
Q

State the symptoms of emphysema.

A

Shortness of breath and cough are the main symptoms of emphysema. As the disease progresses, other symptoms include:

-Fatigue
-Weezing
-Chest tightness
-Anxiety

184
Q

Outline the reason why gas exchange is less effective in people with emphysema.

A

Emphysema damages alveoli, reducing the surface area available for gas exchange. With less surface area, with each breath less oxygen is able to diffuse into the blood from the air and less carbon dioxide is able to diffuse from the blood into the air.

185
Q

List treatment options for people with emphysema.

A

The damage from emphysema is permanent. The ability to breathe properly cannot be fully recovered. Treatment of emphysema aims to ease symptoms and stabilize the condition.

Treatments include:
-supplemental oxygen
-inhaled bronchodilators
-inhaled steroids
-smoking cessation
-lung surgery to remove damaged tissue
-lung transplant

186
Q

Define “tidal volume.”

A

Tidal volume is the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation when extra effort is not applied. Tidal volume includes the volume of air that fills the alveoli in the lungs and the volume of air that fills the airways. In a healthy, young human adult, tidal volume is 7 mL/kg of body mass.

187
Q

Outline techniques for measuring lung tidal volume.

A

Tidal volume can be determined by measuring the volume of air inhaled and/or exhaled. There are multiple techniques for measuring tidal volume:

  1. A spirometer is a device that measuring the volume of air inspired and expired by the lungs. It operates by measuring the velocity and/or pressure of the airflow as it moves past a sensor.
  2. Air can be exhaled into a lung volume bag. The bag will trap the exhaled air inside and the volume on the bag’s scale can be measured.
  3. Air can be exhaled through a tube that ends in a inverted flask of water. The exhaled air will displace a measurable volume of water.
188
Q

Define “ventilation rate.”

A

Ventilation rate is the number of breaths per minute . Under non-exertion conditions, the human respiratory rate averages around 12-15 breaths/minute.

189
Q

Outline techniques for measuring ventilation rate.

A

There are multiple techniques for measuring ventilation rate:

  1. A spirometer is a device that measuring the rate of air inspired and expired by the lungs. It operates by measuring the velocity and/or pressure of the airflow as it moves past a sensor.
  2. Simple observation and counting number of breaths per minute.
  3. Chest belt and pressure sensor that records the rise and fall of the thorax.
190
Q

Outline the effects of mild and vigorous exercise on ventilation rate.

A

Both ventilation rate and tidal volume increase with increased intensity of exercise. During exercise the rate of cellular respiration increases and as a result more carbon dioxide is produced by the cells. The carbon dioxide production in the tissues exceeds the rate of breathing it out, which will lead to a drop in the pH of the blood. Chemoreceptors detect the change in blood pH and send nerve impulses to the breathing center of the brain. The brain responds by sending nerve impulses to the diaphragm and intercostal muscles which will contract more frequently (increasing ventilation rate) and with more force (increasing tidal volume).

191
Q

Define “epidemiology.”

A

Epidemiology is the study and analysis of the distribution, patterns and determinants of health and disease conditions in defined populations.

192
Q

Outline how epidemiological studies contributed to understanding the association between smoking and lung cancer.

A

Epidemiological studies often track the association between behaviors and disease. In the 1950’s, epidemiologists observed links between tobacco use and cancer. Cancer rates increased with increased use of tobacco. The correlation spurred additional research which was able to show a direct, causal, relationship between tobacco use and cancer.

193
Q

State the functions of the nervous system.

A

The nervous system is involved in receiving information about the internal and external environments (sensation) and generating responses to that information (response).

194
Q

Outline how information about the internal and external environments is sensed by the nervous system.

A

The nervous system receives information about the internal and external environments through a chemical or physical stimulus.

External environments are sensed by taste, touch, hearing, sight and smell. Stimuli for taste and smell are both chemical substances (molecules, compounds, ions, etc.), touch and hearing are physical stimuli, sight is light stimuli.

Internal environment can also be sensed by the nervous system. For example, the stretch of an organ wall or the concentration of certain ions in the blood.

195
Q

Outline how the nervous system responds to information about the internal and external environments.

A

The nervous system produces a response based on the chemical and/or physical stimuli perceived. The nervous system can activate contraction of all three types of muscle tissue (skeletal, smooth and cardiac). The nervous system can also stimulate glands (exocrine and endocrine).

196
Q

List the three major types of neurons.

A

There are three major types of neurons:

  • Sensory neurons
  • Interneurons (AKA relay neurons)
  • Motor neurons
197
Q

Outline the function of sensory neurons.

A

Sensory neurons are neurons responsible for converting external stimuli from the environment into corresponding internal stimuli. They are activated by sensory input (such as visible light, sound, heat, physical contact, etc.) or by chemical signals (such as smell and taste).

198
Q

Outline the function of motor neurons.

A

Motor neurons are neurons that transmit impulses from the central nervous system to muscles and glands throughout the body.

199
Q

Outline the function of interneurons.

A

Interneurons (AKA relay neurons) form connections between the sensory and motor neurons. These neurons complete the circuit between sensory neuron input and motor neuron response.

200
Q

Draw the structure of a motor neuron.

A

Neurons contain unique structures for receiving and sending the electrical and chemical signals that make neuronal communication possible.

-Cell body - shown with a nucleus.

-Dendrites - shown as thin extensions from the cell body.

-Axon - shown as double line longer than the longest dendrite.

-Motor end plates - at end of axon, not covered by myelin sheath and ending with buttons/dots.

-Myelin sheath- surrounding the axon.

-Schwann cells- surrounding the axon.

-Nodes of Ranvier - shown in axon between Schwann cells.

201
Q

State the function of neuron dendrites.

A

Dendrites are branching extensions of the neuron cell body. Dendrites receive electrochemical stimulation from other neurons and propagate the message received to the cell body of the neuron.

202
Q

State the function of neuron axon.

A

The axon is a long, slender projection from the neuron cell body that carries an electrical impulse away from the cell body to the axon terminals, which can then pass the impulse to another neuron or to an effector cell (muscle or gland).

203
Q

State the relationship between neuron axon diameter and speed of electrical impulse.

A

Larger diameter axons conduct neural impulse faster than smaller diameter axons because the local current diffusion of Na+ spreads faster down a wide axon than down a narrow one. A larger diameter axon offers less resistance to the movement of ions down the axon, causing the impulse to be conducted faster.

204
Q

State the function of neuron cell body.

A

The neuron cell body contains the nucleus, smooth and rough endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, mitochondria, and other cellular compartments. All the proteins for the dendrites, axons and synaptic terminals are produced in the cell body (including channels, pumps and neurotransmitters).

205
Q

State the function of the neuron motor end plate.

A

Motor end plates are located at the end of a motor neuron axon, opposite the cell body. Motor end plates are the presynaptic terminal where a motor neuron connects to a target muscle cell. It is from the motor end plant that a motor neuron is able to transmit a chemical signal to the muscle cell, causing muscle contraction.

206
Q

Outline the structure and function of myelin.

A

Some axons are covered with myelin, a fatty material that wraps around the axon to form the myelin sheath. This external coating functions as insulation of the electrical signal as it travels down the axon. Additionally, myelin greatly increases the speed of conduction of the electrical signal.

207
Q

State the role of Schwann cells in formation of myelin.

A

Myelin around motor neuron axons is produced by Schwann cells. Schwann cells hold the neurons in place, supply them with nutrients and provide insulation.

208
Q

Define “saltatory conduction.”

A

Saltatory conduction is the propagation of action potentials along myelinated axons from one node of Ranvier to the next node. The action potential “jumps” from one node to the next.

209
Q

Outline the mechanism and benefit of saltatory conduction.

A

In myelinated axons, the voltage-gated channels are only found at the nodes of Ranvier, and the action potential “jumps” from one node to the next. This “saltatory conduction” accelerates the rate at which an action potential travels down an axon.

210
Q

Compare the speed of nerve impulse conduction myelinated and unmyelinated neurons.​

A

By acting as an electrical insulator, myelin greatly speeds up action potential conduction. For example, whereas unmyelinated axon conduction speed range from about 0.5 to 10 m/s, myelinated axons can conduct at speeds up to 150 m/s.

211
Q

Define “resting potential.”

A

“Resting potential” is the name for the difference in electrical charge across a neuron cell membrane when it is not actively sending an impulse. A neuron at rest is negatively charged, meaning there is a higher concentration of cations outside the cell relative to inside the cell.

212
Q

Outline three mechanisms that together create the resting potential in a neuron.

A

The resting membrane potential is a result of different concentrations of ions inside and outside the cell.

Sodium-potassium pump

A membrane bound protein pump that actively transports three sodium (Na+) out of the cell for every two potassium (K+) into the cell. As more cations are expelled from the cell than taken in, there is a net loss of 1 positive charge with each action of the sodium-potassium pump. As a result, inside of the cell becomes negatively charged relative to the outside of the cell.

Anions within the cell

Anions are ions with negative charge. The inside of the neuron contains anions such as Cl- ions, negatively charged proteins, inorganic phosphate groups and DNA.

“Leaky” K+ channels

K+ can move passively through channel towards the outside the cell, taking it’s positive charge with it and leaving the inside of the cell relatively more negative.

213
Q

State the voltage of the resting potential.

A

The inside of a cell is approximately 70 millivolts more negative than the outside (−70 mV). This voltage is called the resting membrane potential.

214
Q

Summarize the action of the sodium-potassium pump.

A

The sodium-potassium pump is located in the cell membrane and actively moves both Na+ and K+ against their respective concentration gradients.

  1. Three Na+ ions bind to the pump from the inside of the cell.
  2. ATP binds to the pump.
  3. ATP is hydrolyzed, leading to phosphorylation of the pump and release of ADP. As a result of phosphorylation, the pump undergoes a conformational change. The phosphorylated form of the pump has a low affinity for Na+ ions, so they are released to the outside of the cell.
  4. Two K+ ions bind to the pump from the outside of the cell.
  5. Binding of the K+ ions causes the dephosphorylation of the pump, reverting it to its original conformation.
  6. The two bound K+ ions are released to the inside of the cell.
215
Q

Explain how the sodium-potassium pump maintains a negative resting potential.

A

The sodium-potassium pump actively transports three sodium (Na+) out of the cell for every two potassium (K+) into the cell, both against their concentration gradients. As more cations are expelled from the cell than taken in, there is a net export of a single positive charge per cycle of the sodium-potassium pump. As a result, inside of the cell becomes negatively charged relative to the outside of the cell.

216
Q

Define “action potential.”

A

An action potential is the temporary change in electrical potential with the passage of an impulse along the membrane of a muscle cell or nerve cell. In other words, an action potential is the “flip-flop” in charge (from negative, to positive and back to negative) that occurs in the neuron or muscle cell membrane.

217
Q

Define “depolarization.”

A

Depolarization is a change in the local charge distribution, with the inside of the cell becoming temporarily more positive relative to the resting potential.

218
Q

Define “repolarization.”

A

Repolarization is the restoration of the localized negative membrane potential of the cell, bringing it back to its normal voltage after depolarization has occurred.

219
Q

Summarize the action of a voltage-gated ion channel.

A

A voltage-gated ion channel is an ion channel that opens and closes in response to changes in the membrane potential of a cell.

Channel = transport protein embedded within the cell membrane through which molecules move passively, with their concentration gradient.

Ion channel = an atom or molecule with a net electric charge is moved across the cell membrane through the channel. Cell membranes are generally not permeable to ions, thus they must diffuse through the membrane through protein channels. Channels are usually ion-specific, such as to sodium(Na+), potassium (K+), or calcium (Ca2+).

Gated = the channel protein changes shape to “open and close,” regulating the movement of a molecule through the membrane.

Voltage-gated = The opening and closing of the channel is triggered by ion concentration between the sides of the cell membrane.

220
Q

Outline the mechanism of neuron depolarization.

A

A stimulus triggers the opening of Na+ channels in the membrane. The stimulus may be a neurotransmitter binding to its receptor protein or physical stimulus of a sensory neuron.

Because the concentration of Na+ is higher outside the cell than inside the cell, Na+ ions will rush into the cell when Na+ channels open. Sodium is a positively charged ion, so the sodium cation entering the cell will cause the local charge near the channel to become positive. As the charge rises and the threshold voltage is reached, additional voltage-gated Na+ channels open and even more Na+ ions will enter the cell. The membrane potential will reach +40 mV. This is known as depolarization.

221
Q

Outline the mechanism of neuron repolarization.

A

At +40 mV, the Na+ channels close, and voltage-gated K+ channels open. A concentration gradient acts on K+ and K+ will leave the cell, taking a positive charge with it. As a result, the localized membrane potential begins to move back toward its resting voltage of -70 mV. This is called repolarization.

222
Q

Outline the mechanism of neuron hyperpolarization.

A

Repolarization actually overshoots the -70 mV value that indicates the resting potential. A period of hyperpolarization occurs while the K+channels are open and K+ is leaving the cell. These K+ channels are slightly delayed in closing, accounting for the short overshoot.

223
Q

Define nerve impulse.

A

A nerve impulse is a wave of electrical depolarization that reverses the voltage across the neuron membrane. Individually, neurons send the impulse from the dendrites to the axon terminal. Within the body, neurons are organized in long chains, allowing them to pass the impulse very quickly from one to the other. One neuron’s axon will connect to another neuron’s dendrite at the synapse between them.

224
Q

Describe how nerve impulses are propagated along the neuron axon.

A

A nerve impulse is the movement of the action potential along the axon of the neuron. The action potential is the temporary reversal of charge from the resting potential. A resting neuron has a more negative charge inside the membrane and a more negative charge outside of the cell membrane (-70 mV) and a greater concentration of Na+ ions outside than K+ ions inside the axon.

When a action potential is stimulated, volted gated Na+ channels open and Na ions diffuse into the cell causing depolarization of the membrane (from -70 mV to +40 mV).

Depolarization is followed by repolarization of the neuron. When the charge increases to +40 mV, voltage gated K+ channels open and K ions diffuse out of the cell. This repolarizes the membrane. The sodium-potassium pump then restores the ion balance and
-70 mV resting potential.

Some of the Na+ that moves into the cell during depolarization diffuses within the cell, increasing the charge of adjacent regions of the cell. This is called the local current. The increase of charge with the local current affects adjacent channels, causing action potential depolarization in the next region of the cell membrane. This sequence of adjacent action potentials is the “impulse” that propagates along the neuron.

225
Q

Define “refractory period.”

A

The refractory period is a period of time during which the neuron cell membrane is incapable of repeating an action potential. It is the amount of time it takes for the channels in the cell membrane to be ready for a second stimulus once it returns to its resting state following an action potential.

226
Q

Outline the cause and consequence of the refractory period after depolarization.

A

Voltage-gated Na+ channels are inactivated at the peak of the depolarization (+40mV) and they cannot be opened again for a brief time—the refractory period. Because of this, the local current of Na+ ions diffusing back toward previously opened channels has no effect and the action potential will move in one direction, toward the axon terminal.

227
Q

Define “local current.”

A

Local current is the diffusion of Na+ ions within the cell following depolarization. Local current results in the subsequent depolarization of the adjacent membrane and if this area reaches threshold potential, further action potentials are generated.

228
Q

Explain movement of sodium ions in a local current.

A

Going down the length of the neuron axon, the action potential is propagated because more voltage-gated Na+ channels are opened as the depolarization spreads. This spreading occurs because Na+ enters through the channel and diffuses along the inside of the cell membrane. As the Na+ moves, its positive charge depolarizes a little more of the cell membrane. As that depolarization spreads, new voltage-gated Na+ channels open and more ions rush into the cell, spreading the depolarization a little farther.

229
Q

Explain how the movement of sodium ions propagates an action potential along an axon.

A

Action potentials are generated locally on patches of neuron cell membrane. As Na+ diffuses into the local region of the cell membrane during depolarization, the ions will diffuse within the cell and can trigger an action potential on the neighboring stretches of membrane, precipitating a domino-like propagation. The areas of membrane that have recently depolarised will not depolarize again due to the refractory period - therefore the action potential will only travel in one direction.

230
Q

Define “threshold potential.”

A

The threshold potential is the critical voltage which a neuron membrane potential must reach to initiate an action potential. The threshold potential is at -55 mV for most human neurons in humans. Changes in the membrane potential that don’t reach -55 mV will not stimulate an action potential.

231
Q

Describe that cause of and effect of membrane potential reaching the threshold potential.

A

The channels that start depolarizing the membrane because of a stimulus help the cell to depolarize from -70 mV to -55 mV. Once the membrane reaches that threshold voltage, additional voltage-gated Na+ channels open. Any depolarization that does not change the membrane potential to -55 mV or higher will not reach threshold and thus will not result in an action potential (failed initiations).

232
Q

Define “synapse.”

A

The synapse is the gap between two cells: the presynaptic cell (neuron sending the the signal) and the postsynaptic cell (receiving the signal). The presynaptic cell is a neuron. The postsynaptic cell can be either another neuron or an effector cell (muscle or gland).

233
Q

Define “synaptic cleft.”

A

The synaptic cleft (also known as the synaptic gap) is the space between the presynaptic cell (neuron sending the signal) and the postsynaptic cell (receiving the signal) across which a nerve impulse is transmitted by a neurotransmitter.

234
Q

Define “effector cell.”

A

An effector cell is any cell that actively responds to a stimulus (the stimulus affects the effector cell). When a motor neuron releases a neurotransmitter at the synapse, the effector cell is the muscle or gland cell that responds.

235
Q

State the role of neurotransmitters.​

A

Neurotransmitters are chemicals that transmit signals from a neuron to an effector cell across a synapse. They are released from vesicles in the presynaptic cell, diffuse across the synaptic cleft, and bind to receptors in the membrane on the postsynaptic (receiving) side.

236
Q

Outline the mechanism of synaptic transmission.

A

The action potential travels along the membrane of the presynaptic cell until it reaches the synaptic terminus. The depolarization of the membrane at the synaptic terminus causes voltage-gated calcium channels in membrane to open. Calcium diffuses into the presynaptic neuron which triggers vesicles containing neurotransmitter move to the and fuse with presynaptic cell membrane. When the vesicle fuses with the cell membrane, the neurotransmitters are released by exocytosis into synaptic cleft.

The neurotransmitter molecules diffuse across the synaptic cleft and binds to chemical receptor molecules located on the membrane of the postsynaptic cell. Binding of the neurotransmitter to the effector cell receptor stimulates sodium channels to open. Sodium diffuses into the postsynaptic cell, depolarizing that region of the cell membrane. If the threshold potential is met, a new action potential will be activated in the postsynaptic cell.

The neurotransmitter does not physically enter the postsynaptic cell. Neurotransmitters will bind to a receptor molecule on the postsynaptic cell membrane, but will eventually break loose from the receptors and drift away. The neurotransmitter is then enzymatically broken down and/or reabsorbed into the presynaptic neuron.

237
Q

Explain why some synaptic transmissions will not lead to an action potential in a postsynaptic cell.

A

Neurotransmitters can increase (excitatory) or decrease (inhibitory) the probability that the cell with which it comes in contact will produce an action potential.

Inhibitory neurotransmitters cause hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic cell (which means, decreasing the voltage gradient of the cell, thus bringing it further away from an action potential).

238
Q

Outline the functions of the acetylcholine neurotransmitter.

A

Acetylcholine (ACh) is the neurotransmitter used at the neuromuscular junction; it is the chemical that motor neurons release in order to activate muscles.

Acetylcholine also plays important roles in cognitive function, most notably in the neural mechanisms of memory, alertness, attention, and learning.

239
Q

Outline the mechanism of secretion of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine.

A

Acetylcholine (ACh) is synthesized in the presynaptic neuron and then stored in secretory vesicles within the synaptic terminus.

Calcium is a key ion involved in the release of neurotransmitters from the presynaptic neuron. The Ca2+ channel is normally closed, but if there is a depolarization of the membrane (caused by a presynaptic action potential), the channel opens. The opening of the Ca2+ channel allows for calcium to flow down its concentration gradient from the outside to the inside of the presynaptic terminal. This influx leads to an increase in the concentration of the Ca2+ in the presynaptic terminal, which by interacting with proteins associated with synaptic vesicles leads to the release of the neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft by exocytosis.

240
Q

Outline the mechanism of action of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine.

A

Nicotinic receptors are receptor proteins on postsynaptic cells that bind to the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. Nicotinic receptors are found on skeletal muscle that receive acetylcholine released from neurons to signal the muscular contraction.

The nicotinic receptor is a ligand-gated channel, which means that the receptor is also a channel protein. Binding of the neurotransmitter (the ligand) opens the gate of the channel.
When acetylcholine binds to the nicotinic receptor, the receptor protein undergoes a conformational change that causes the opening of the channel formed by the receptor. This increases the Na+ movement into the target cell, leading to depolarization and generation of the action potential in the postsynaptic cell.

241
Q

State the reason why neurotransmitter molecules must be inactivated after secretion.

A

After a neurotransmitter molecule has been recognized by a postsynaptic receptor, it is released back into the synaptic cleft where it must be quickly removed or chemically inactivated in order to prevent constant stimulation of the postsynaptic cell and an excessive firing of action potentials (or inhibition of action potentials for inhibitory neurotransmitters).

242
Q

Outline the mechanism of reabsorption of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine.

A

Following dissociation from the receptor, acetylcholine is rapidly hydrolyzed by the enzyme acetylcholinesterase. The enzyme converts acetylcholine into its inactive component parts choline and acetate.

After hydrolysis, acetate quickly diffuses into the surrounding medium, while choline gets taken back into the presynaptic cell. Choline is then recycled by the presynaptic cell for use in the synthesis of more acetylcholine.

243
Q

Define “pesticide.”

A

Pesticides are chemicals that are meant to protect plants (usually crops) from weeds, fungi, or insects. Insecticides are a class of pesticides that target insects.

244
Q

Summarize the use of neonicotinoids as a pesticide.

A

Neonicotinoids are a class of neurotoxic insecticides that act on the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor. Neonic insecticides transfuse into all parts of treated plants, including pollen, nectar, and fluids, and the foods grown by those plants. They are used for pest management in agriculture, horticulture, forestry and in household pest control products.

245
Q

Outline the mechanism of action of neonicotinoids use as a pesticide.

A

Neonicotinoids are pesticides that irreversibly bind to nicotinic receptors (the same receptors that acetylcholine binds). The binding of the neonicotinoid blocks the acetylcholine neurotransmitter from binding to the receptor, thereby preventing the signal from the neuron from spreading to the postsynaptic cell. When the postsynaptic cell is a muscle, the muscle contraction is blocked, causing paralysis of the insect.

Additionally, the acetylcholinesterase enzyme is unable to chemically digest neonicotinoids within the synaptic cleft. So the insecticide molecules remain active, able to continually bind to the nicotinic receptors.

246
Q

Define “cholinergic synapse.”

A

Cholinergic synapses are chemical synapses that that use acetylcholine molecules as the neurotransmitter.

247
Q

Outline the effect of neonicotinoids on pollinating insects.

A

The impact of neonicotinoids on pollinating insects such as bees is a cause for concern. Because they are systemic chemicals absorbed into the plant, neonicotinoids can be present in pollen and nectar which are consumed by flower-visiting insects such as bees. Bees exposed to neonicotinoids can experience problems with flight and navigation, reduced taste sensitivity, and slower learning of new tasks, all of which impact foraging ability and hive productivity.

248
Q

Outline the use of oscilloscopes in measuring membrane potential.

A

An oscilloscope is a instrument that graphically displays varying signal voltages over time. A microelectrode is inserted into the cell and a reference electrode is placed outside the cell. The oscilloscope measures the difference in voltage between the inside and outside of the cell.

249
Q

Annotate an oscilloscope trace.

A

From the resting potential of -70mV (1), the oscilloscope depicts an increasing voltage, which is the inward flow of sodium ions during depolarization (2). Since sodium ions carry a positive charge, the inside of the neuron at that site becomes positive when compared to the outside of the neuron. At a threshold voltage of about -50mV, even more sodium channel will open, increasing the charge to about +40mV. The sodium channels close at about the peak of the action potential, and potassium channels open. Potassium ions (which are inside the neuron and also carry a positive charge) leave the neuron. This repolarization (3) results in the downward voltage as the inside of the neuron in the vicinity of electrode becomes negative again. Potassium channels are slow to close, resulting in a refractory period as hyperpolarization reduces the charge to below that of the resting potential. The action of the sodium-potassium pump returns the charge to the -70mV resting potential (4)

250
Q

​Describe the effects of cooperation and collaboration between groups of scientists.

A

Cooperation and collaboration between scientists has the following effects:

  • increased creativity and idea sharing
  • increased motivation
  • competition between scientists may spur progress
  • different approaches and methods to exploring a common research question
251
Q

State an example of how people from multiple scientific disciplines are collaborating to understand learning and/or memory.

A

Individuals from many research disciplines have collaborated to understand the phenomena of learning and memory. The brain is an extraordinary complex organ, containing over 100 billion neurons. Understanding how these cells learn and store memories requires cooperation and collaboration between international groups of scientists.

252
Q

Hormones, Homeostasis, Reproduction

A

https://quizlet.com/415947985/66-hormones-homeostasis-and-reproduction-flash-cards/?x=1jqt