TOPIC 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What is human development?

A

The scientific study of age-related changes across physical, cognitive, social, and behavioural domains.

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2
Q

How is developmental psychology related to human development?

A

It is a subfield of human development specifically focused on changes in behaviour and mental processes over the lifespan.

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3
Q

What is the lifespan perspective?

A

A viewpoint that recognizes changes throughout the entire human lifespan, understanding that these changes are interpreted within their cultural and contextual influences. This approach emphasizes interdisciplinary research to comprehensively understand human development.

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4
Q

Explain the post-hoc fallacy

A

The erroneous assumption that because one event happened before another, the first event caused the second. This fallacy highlights the distinction between correlation and causation. For example, noticing ADHD symptoms in a child after years of playing video games doesn’t mean the games caused ADHD.

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5
Q

Describe bidirectional influences in development

A

Many developmental relationships involve reciprocal influences. Parents shape their children’s development, but children’s characteristics, like temperament and personality, also influence parenting styles.

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6
Q

What are critical periods in development?

A

Specific timeframes during development when an organism is highly sensitive to the presence or absence of particular experiences.

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7
Q

What are sensitive periods in development?

A

Spans of time, typically months or years, when a child is especially responsive to specific experiences, and their absence can have significant developmental consequences.

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8
Q

What is the myth of infant determinism?

A

The misconception that experiences in the first three years of life are always more influential than later experiences. The reality is that the impact of experiences varies depending on the developmental domain, and later childhood and adult experiences are crucial.

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9
Q

What is the myth of childhood fragility?

A

The inaccurate belief that children are easily damaged by experiences. In reality, young children possess remarkable resilience.

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10
Q

How do genes and environment interact in development?

A

The relationship is complex, with numerous genetic and environmental factors interacting in intricate ways. Genetic predispositions interact with environmental experiences, shaping development.

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11
Q

Explain the concept of “nature via nurture.”

A

Individuals’ biological predispositions can lead them to select specific environments. This can lead to the misconception that the environment alone is responsible for traits when genes play a significant role.

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12
Q

How does the environment influence gene expression?

A

Genes can be activated or deactivated based on environmental experiences, demonstrating the dynamic interplay between nature and nurture.

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13
Q

What is the epigenome?

A

It encompasses all inherited and acquired molecular modifications to the genome that alter gene regulation without changing the DNA sequence itself.

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14
Q

What are cohorts?

A

Groups of people born within a specific time range, sharing similar historical experiences at comparable stages of development.

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15
Q

What is a cohort effect?

A

An observed effect in a research sample that stems from individuals in the sample growing up in the same historical period. These effects can complicate the interpretation of age-related differences.

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16
Q

Describe the cross-sectional research design

A

It studies people of different ages at a single time point. Its advantages include convenience. However, it cannot differentiate between cohort and aging effects.

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17
Q

Describe the longitudinal research design.

A

This design examines development in the same group of people over multiple occasions. It allows researchers to observe aging directly. Disadvantages include limited generalizability to other cohorts, time and resource intensiveness, and participant attrition.

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18
Q

Describe the cohort-sequential research design.

A

It involves tracking several age cohorts longitudinally, combining elements of both cross-sectional and longitudinal approaches.

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19
Q

What happens during conception?

A

A sperm fertilizes an ovum, each carrying 23 unpaired chromosomes. This fusion forms a zygote, which divides and travels to the uterus, where it implants as a blastocyst.

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20
Q

Outline the three stages of prenatal development.

A

Germinal Stage,
Embryonic Stage,
Fetal Stage

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21
Q

What is the germinal stage?

A

From conception to implantation. Involves the zygote’s rapid division into a blastocyst, implantation, and placental development.

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22
Q

What the embryonic stage?

A

From implantation to the end of week 8. This stage involves the formation of fundamental body structures, including the neural tube, which develops into the brain and spinal cord.

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23
Q

What is the fetal stage?

A

From week 9 to birth. Marked by significant increases in size, refinement of organ systems, particularly the brain and lungs

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24
Q

When does brain development begin?

A

During the embryonic stage, with the formation of the neural tube, which gives rise to the brain and spinal cord.

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25
Q

What are neuronal proliferation and migration?

A

Neuronal proliferation refers to the generation of new neurons. Migration involves the movement of brain cells to their final destinations in the brain.

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26
Q

What are teratogens?

A

Environmental agents that can negatively impact prenatal development. Examples include viral infections, drugs, chemicals, maternal diet, age, chronic illnesses, and mental health conditions.

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27
Q

What the effects of teratogens?

A

The effects of teratogens can vary depending on the timing of exposure, with the brain being especially susceptible.

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28
Q

What are genetic disorders?

A

They arise from DNA mutations or an abnormal amount of genetic material. These disorders can be autosomal or sex-linked (e.g., sickle-cell disease, Huntington’s disease) or involve chromosomal errors (e.g., Trisomy-21).

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29
Q

What defines preterm infants?

A

Infants born alive before 37 weeks of gestation.

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30
Q

What is the viability point for preterm infants?

A

The gestational age at which preterm infants have a reasonable chance of survival, typically between 23 and 25 weeks. Infants born before 22 weeks have a very low survival rate.

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31
Q

List some health issues associated with preterm birth

A

Infants born before 32 weeks may lack adaptive reflexes, experience digestion and thermoregulation problems, and have lung/breathing, cardiovascular, and immune deficiencies. They are also at risk for neurological problems, low birth weight, and higher overall mortality.

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32
Q

What underlies changes in infants’ physical abilities?

A

Developments in the brain and nervous system drive changes in infants’ physical capabilities.

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33
Q

What are reflexes in infants?

A

Automatic motor responses to specific stimuli. Examples include sucking, rooting, and eye-blink reflexes.

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34
Q

What are motor behaviours?

A

Self-initiated bodily motions involving the movement of bones and muscles. These behaviours depend on the brain, nervous system, and physical development. Experience and cultural factors also play a role

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35
Q

How does physical growth change in childhood?

A

Compared to infancy, size changes occur more gradually between 2 and 12 years of age, with children gaining an average of 2-3 inches and 5-6 pounds per year. Growth spurts are common, and body proportions become more adult-like.

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36
Q

How does brain development continue in childhood?

A

By age 3, the brain reaches 75% of its adult weight, and by age 6, it’s at 95%. The prefrontal cortex (PFC) continues to develop, leading to improvements in self-control, attention, and reasoning.

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37
Q
A
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38
Q

What is puberty?

A

The collective term for the visible and internal changes that lead to sexual maturity.

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38
Q

Describe motor skill development in childhood.

A

Children become highly active, with significant improvements in both fine and gross motor skills.

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38
Q

Describe sexual development in girls

A

Secondary sex characteristics include pubic hair growth, breast development, and the onset of the menstrual cycle (menarche), which has shown a secular trend toward earlier onset.

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38
Q

Differentiate between primary and secondary sex characteristics.

A

Primary sex characteristics involve the growth and development of sex organs. Secondary sex characteristics are other physical changes signaling sexual maturity.

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38
Q

Describe sexual development in boys

A

It involves enlargement of the testes and penis, pubic hair emergence, and spermarche (first ejaculation).

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39
Q

What factors influence the timing of puberty?

A

Puberty timing varies considerably. Lifestyle factors contribute, and genetics may play a role.

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39
Q

What characterizes the physiological peak in early adulthood?

A

Early adulthood marks the peak of physical performance. Muscle strength, bone density, cardiovascular and respiratory function, eyesight, hearing, smell, fine motor skills, and immune function reach their maximum levels.

39
Q

Describe the decline in physical performance in adulthood.

A

After the early peak, performance gradually declines. Strength and speed decrease, reproductive capacity peaks in the mid-30s for women and early 40s for men, and immune function weakens. Sensory abilities, including vision (presbyopia), hearing (presbycusis, tinnitus), and motor abilities, also decline.

40
Q

How can we maintain physical performance as we age?

A

A healthy lifestyle, including good nutrition, regular physical activity (especially weight-bearing exercises), and continued practice of skills, can help preserve physical function.

41
Q

What is cognitive development?

A

The process of acquiring the abilities to learn, think, communicate, and remember over time.

42
Q

What are some key differences among theories of cognitive development?

A

Theories may differ on whether development is continuous or discontinuous (stage-like), domain-general or domain-specific, and the primary source of learning (physical experience, social interaction, or biological maturation).

43
Q

Describe the characteristics of a stage-based theory of cognitive development.

A

These theories propose that children progress through a series of distinct stages in their thinking, with each stage building upon the previous one. Children are viewed as active learners who construct their understanding of the world.

44
Q

What are schemes in Piaget’s theory?

A

Internal cognitive structures that provide individuals with procedures to follow in specific situations. We begin life with a limited set of schemes.

45
Q

Define assimilation in Piaget’s theory.

A

The process of using existing schemes to interpret new events or experiences.

46
Q

Define accommodation in Piaget’s theory

A

Modifying our existing schemes in response to new information or experiences that don’t fit our current understanding.

47
Q

What is equilibration?

A

The balancing act between assimilation and accommodation, striving to achieve a state of cognitive harmony.

48
Q

What are the four stages of Piaget’s theory?

A

Sensorimotor Stage (birth to 2 years), Preoperational Stage (2 to 7 years), Concrete Operational Stage (7 to 11 years), Formal Operational Stage (11 years and onward).

49
Q

What is the sensorimotor Stage (birth to 2 years)

A

Characterized by basic sensory and motor schemes. Infants learn about the physical world through their interactions with it. They lack object permanence, the understanding that objects continue to exist even when out of sight.

50
Q

What is the preoperational Stage (2 to 7 years)

A

Children develop symbolic schemes, including language, and engage in simple problem-solving. However, they are limited by egocentrism (difficulty seeing from another’s perspective), an inability to perform mental operations, and a lack of conservation (understanding that quantities remain the same despite changes in appearance).

51
Q

What is the Formal Operational Stage (11 years and onward)

A

Abstract logic and hypothetical reasoning emerge. Individuals can think scientifically and systematically, as demonstrated in their ability to solve the pendulum task.

52
Q

What is the Concrete Operational Stage (7 to 11 years)

A

Children develop logical reasoning but remain tied to the physical world. Problem-solving abilities improve, as seen in their understanding of conservation. However, abstract and hypothetical thinking is still limited.

53
Q

What are some limitations of Piaget’s theory?

A
  • Continuous Development: Development is likely more continuous than Piaget’s stage-like depiction.
  • Domain Specificity: Cognitive development is probably less general than Piaget proposed, as evidenced by horizontal decalage, the uneven development of skills within a stage.
  • Task Demands: Some of Piaget’s tasks may have been too difficult for children, underestimating their abilities.
  • Cultural Bias: Piaget’s theory may not fully account for cultural variations in cognitive development.
54
Q

Explain Vygotsky’s sociocultural theory.

A

This theory emphasizes the role of social interaction in cognitive development. Complex thinking originates in social interactions rather than solitary exploration. Learning is facilitated through interactions with more knowledgeable individuals.

55
Q

What is scaffolding in Vygotsky’s theory?

A

The process by which a more knowledgeable person (adult or older child) structures learning experiences within the learner’s zone of proximal development, providing support and guidance.

56
Q

How do infants and children develop an understanding of the physical world?

A

Experience plays a crucial role. Through interactions with objects, they learn about the properties and behaviors of the physical world.

57
Q

Describe the development of categorization and classification.

A

Categorizing information emerges early in infancy. Hierarchical classification, organizing categories into more complex systems, begins in early to middle childhood. These abilities help humans navigate a complex world more efficiently.

58
Q

How does memory develop in early development?

A

Memory capacity steadily increases throughout childhood and reaches a plateau in adolescence.

59
Q

Describe the development of self-concept.

A

Infants begin developing a sense of self as separate from others. Self-awareness becomes more apparent by 18 months, as seen in the rouge test (recognizing oneself in a mirror). Theory of mind, the ability to understand others’ mental states, also emerges. This is often assessed using the false belief task, which tests the understanding that others can hold beliefs that are different from reality.

60
Q

Explain the biological underpinnings of cognitive changes in adolescence.

A

The frontal lobes, particularly the prefrontal cortex (PFC), continue to mature until late adolescence or early adulthood. The PFC is critical for planning, decision-making, and self-regulation, including impulse control.

61
Q

What are some challenges associated with the development of abstract and hypothetical reasoning in adolescence?

A
  • Naïve Idealism: Adolescents may compare the real world to an idealized, hypothetical world, leading to unrealistic expectations.
  • Personal Fable: Feelings of uniqueness and being the center of attention, sometimes accompanied by a sense of invincibility, can arise from this type of thinking.
62
Q

How does relativistic thinking develop in adolescence?

A

Adolescents begin to recognize that answers are not always clear-cut or black-and-white. They start to appreciate the complexity of issues and consider multiple perspectives.

63
Q

How do cognitive abilities change in adulthood?

A

Some cognitive abilities improve while others decline. There are decreases in processing speed, working memory, and long-term memory. However, declines are often less pronounced for practical knowledge relevant to daily life. Crystallized intelligence, which includes vocabulary and knowledge accumulated over time, can continue to increase throughout much of adulthood.

64
Q

What social preferences are infants born with?

A

They show a preference for faces over other visual stimuli and voices over other sounds. They also form attachments to their parents.

65
Q

Describe the emergence of social nuance in infancy.

A

Infants initially prefer their parents. Stranger anxiety, a fear of unfamiliar people, typically develops around 8-9 months and declines after 12-15 months.

66
Q

What is temperament?

A

A basic emotional style that appears early in development and has a genetic basis

67
Q

What are the types of temperament proposed by Thomas and Chess?

A

They identified three main types: easy children, difficult children, and slow-to-warm-up children. About 35% of children exhibit a combination of these temperamental styles.

68
Q

What is attachment?

A

An emotional connection we share with those closest to us, providing a sense of security. In infants, it refers to the emotional bond with a parent or caregiver, offering a sense of safety and comfort.

69
Q

What is the role of physical contact in parental attachment?

A

Physical contact is essential for developing a secure attachment. Mothers often engage in more routine caregiving, while fathers may engage in more playful physical interaction.

70
Q

Describe the Strange Situation procedure

A

It’s a standardized assessment of infant attachment involving eight episodes designed to elicit attachment behaviors: 1) introduction to the playroom; 2) parent seated while infant plays; 3) stranger enters; 4) parent leaves; 5) parent returns, stranger leaves; 6) parent leaves, infant alone; 7) stranger returns; 8) parent returns.

71
Q

Describe secure attachment.

A

Infants readily separate from their parent, seek proximity when stressed, and use the parent as a secure base for exploration.

72
Q

Describe avoidant attachment

A

Infants avoid contact with the parent and show no preference for the parent over others.

73
Q

Describe ambivalent attachment.

A

Infants show minimal exploration, become highly distressed when separated, and are not easily comforted by the parent’s return.

74
Q

Describe disorganized/disoriented attachment.

A

Infants display confused or apprehensive behaviour, exhibiting contradictory actions.

75
Q

What caregiver characteristics are associated with secure attachment?

A

Secure attachment is more likely when parents are emotionally and physically responsive, creating a happy and nurturing environment.

76
Q

What factors increase the likelihood of insecure attachment?

A

Insecure attachment is more common when parents are emotionally unavailable, unmarried or separated, or experiencing mental health difficulties.

77
Q

How does attachment quality relate to later outcomes?

A

Securely attached infants tend to have better cognitive, social, emotional, and behavioral outcomes in childhood and beyond. They are also more likely to develop secure attachments in their own adult relationships.

78
Q

Can attachment styles change over time?

A

Yes, attachment can shift from secure to insecure due to negative life events or changes in family dynamics.

79
Q

How does attachment style generalize to other relationships?

A

Attachment patterns formed in early childhood often influence relationships throughout life, including friendships and romantic partnerships. Securely attached children tend to have more positive social relationships and better cognitive and behavioural outcomes.

80
Q

Describe the four main parenting styles.

A

Authoritarian, permissive, uninvolved and authoritative

81
Q

What is an authoritarian parenting style?

A

High in demands and control, low in warmth and communication.

82
Q

What is a permissive parenting style?

A

High in warmth, low in control, demands, and communication.

83
Q

What is an uninvolved parenting style?

A

Low in demands, warmth, control, and communication.

84
Q

What is an authoritative parenting style?

A

High in demands, control, warmth, and communication.

85
Q

What are the benefits of peer relationships in childhood?

A

They foster the development of social skills, contribute to cognitive growth, and increase in significance as children get older.

86
Q

Describe common features of peer relationships in school-aged children.

A

“Best friend” relationships often emerge. Friendships are frequently gender-segregated.

87
Q

Describe key aspects of peer relationships in adolescence.

A

Adolescents seek greater autonomy and may challenge parental authority, leading to some conflict, which is considered normal. Peer relationships can be profoundly influential during this period, playing a vital role in identity formation and validation. Romantic relationships also typically emerge in adolescence.

88
Q

How do marriage and family relationships evolve in adulthood?

A

Marital stability and satisfaction often increase in later adulthood, potentially due to increased maturity and the decline of child-rearing demands. Divorce can occur, but those who remain married tend to have stronger relationships. Middle-aged adults may face the demands of the “sandwich generation,” providing care for both their children and aging parents.

89
Q

What are some common experiences related to children in adulthood?

A

Parents may experience the “empty nest” when their children leave home. Some adult children may experience “failure-to-launch” or a “revolving door” pattern, returning to live with their parents. The “cluttered nest” refers to a situation where adult children remain living at home

90
Q

Describe the role of grandparents in adulthood.

A

Most individuals have positive experiences as grandparents and are welcomed by parents into their grandchildren’s lives.

91
Q

What characterizes friendships in adulthood?

A

Social circles tend to become smaller, but relationships can be very fulfilling.

92
Q

Explain the core principles of Erikson’s psychosocial theory.

A

This theory posits that personality development results from the interaction between internal drives and cultural demands across eight stages, each marked by a psychosocial crisis. Development is viewed as a lifelong process.

93
Q

What is the importance of culture in Erikson’s theory?

A

Erikson emphasized that normal development should be understood within the context of each culture’s specific life situation.

94
Q

List the eight stages of Erikson’s theory and their associated ages.

A

Trust vs. Mistrust (birth to 1 year), Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt (1-3 years), Initiative vs. Guilt (3-6 years), Industry vs. Inferiority (6-12 years), Identity vs. Role Confusion (12-18 years), Intimacy vs. Isolation (18-30 years), Generativity vs. Stagnation (30-late adulthood) and Integrity vs. Despair (late adulthood)

95
Q

What is Trust vs. Mistrust (birth to 1 year)

A

The development of trust in the primary caregiver through warm, responsive care, fostering a sense of hope.

96
Q

What is Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt (1-3 years)

A

Development of physical/motor skills, self-care, and basic personal responsibility, leading to a sense of will.

97
Q

What is Initiative vs. Guilt (3-6 years)

A

Exploration of goal-oriented behaviour and assertiveness, cultivating a sense of purpose.

98
Q

What is Industry vs. Inferiority (6-12 years)

A

Acquisition of school-based skills, social/cultural skills, and tool use, leading to a sense of competence.

99
Q

What is Identity vs. Role Confusion (12-18 years)

A

Development of sexual, social, and occupational identities, fostering a sense of fidelity.

100
Q

What is Intimacy vs. Isolation (18-30 years)

A

Establishment of intimate relationships with others, leading to a sense of love.

101
Q

What is Generativity vs. Stagnation (30-late adulthood)

A

Engagement in raising children, caring for others, and productive work, developing a sense of care.

102
Q

What is Integrity vs. Despair (late adulthood)

A

Reflection on life, self-acceptance, and integration of earlier stages, culminating in wisdom.