Topic 3- Voice of a Genome Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the structure and function of a nucleus

A

enclosed by membrane containing poere
contains chromosomes
contains nucleolus where ribosomes are made

Dna replication and transcription takes place

controls the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the structure and function of a nucleolus

A

produced ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe the structure and function of a ribosome

A

-enzyme that assists in RNA translation for protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe the structure and function of rough endoplasmic reticulum

A

system of iner connected flattened sacs with ribosomes attached to out surface, for lipid protein (due to ribosomes present) and steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the structure and function of smooth endoplasmic reticulum

A

like rough but no ribosome
synthesis lipids and steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the structure and function of mitochondria

A

contains folded inner membrane called cristae
site of aerobic respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe the structure and function of centrioles

A

Hollow tubes of a ring of 9 protien microtubes
involved in spindle formation in nuclear division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe the structure and function of lysosomes

A

sacs containing digestive enzymes
involved in breakdown of unwanted structures in the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the structure and function of Golgi apparatus/body

A

membrane bound vesicles that modifie protien and packages it for transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe the process of protein manufacture and transport

A

protein is translated on the ribosome
protien enters the RER and is folded to form the 3D shape
the folded protein is packaged in a vesicle
vesicle fuses with the Golgi
Golgi modifies protein for its function
modified protein is packaged into scretetory vesicle
vesicle fuses with cell membrane and releases protein via exocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define the term stem cell

A

a cell that can divide via mitosis to form more stem cells and differentiate into different cell types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define the term pluripotency

A

the inner mass cells of a blastocyst that can differentiate into any cell except extra-embryonic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define the term multipotency

A

stem cells that can only differentiate into a few types of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define the term totipotency

A

stem cell that can differentiate into any type of cell including extra embryonic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Explain how pluripotent cells are extracted from an embryo

A

Cells are extracted from the inner mass of a blastocyst with a needle, the embryo is destroyed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Give the ethical arguments for and against the use of embryonic stem cells in research/medicine

A

Against
- embryo considered living
-against some religions
-embryonic stem cells are unstable and can cause tumors

For
- less money and lab animals used testing new drugs
- no waiting list for organ transplant
- cells are identical so no risk of rejection

17
Q

State what an induced pluripotent stem cell (IPSC) is

A

A pluripotent stem cell tgat has been created from an adult stem cell through genetic reprogramming

18
Q

Explain why IPSCs are advantageous over embryonic stem cells

A
  • uses own cells, no rejection (for people who havent kept any cells from birth)
  • no embryo is destroyed so less ethical issue
19
Q

Describe the role of histone modification in epigenetics

A

‘tails’ of histones are modified

makes DNA less compact and more accessible for transcription

Turns genes ON

20
Q

Describe the role of methyl groups in epigenetics

A

makes DNA more tightly wound

less accessible for transcription

turns genes OFF

21
Q

Explain why genetically identical twins look less similar to each other as they age

A

Epigenics- differences are caused by the environment, changing the ways genes are expressed and therefor the twins appearance over time, making them look different to each other although they are genetically identical

22
Q

Explain how we know epigenetics can be passed from parent to offspring (hints: consider the case study of rats smelling cherries and experiencing an electric shock and/or fungicide given to pregnant rats and impact on sperm count)

A

certain genes will be turned on and off via DNA methylation or histone modification depending on the treatment of offspring by parent

for example the offspring of the bad mother rats, when given to the good mother rat had the same genes expressed due to no methylation, this meant that the offspring could process stress hormones better so were calm ‘good’ mothers themselves

23
Q

what happends in G1 and G2?

A

gap phase 1+2

cell keeps growing protiens and new organelles for cell division

24
Q

what is s phase in the cell cycle?

A

DNA replication

25
Q

What happens in the interphase of the cell cycle?

A

cell carries out normal functions but prepares to divide (G1, S, G2)

replication of DNA and organelles
ATP content increased

26
Q

what happens in the Prophase of Mitosis?

A

Chromosomes condense

Centrioles start moving to opposite sides of the cell forming spindles

the nuclear envelope breaks down leaving chromosomes free in the cytoplasm

27
Q

what happens in the metaphase of mitosis?

A

chromosomes line up along the middle of the cell and attach to spindles by their centromere

28
Q

What happens in the anaphase of mitosis?

A

the centromeres divide
seperating sister chromatids
spindles contract pulling chromatids to opposite ends of the cell

29
Q

What happens during the Telophase of Mitosis?

A

Chromatids reach opposite poles on the spindle
they uncoil and become long again called chromosomes

a nuclear envelope forms around each group of chromosomes, now 2 nuclei

cytoplasm divides and 2 genetically identical daughter cells are made.

30
Q

what are the 4 stages of mitosis?

A

Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase

(pee mat ahhh toot!)

31
Q

what are the steps of a cortical reaction?

A

cortical granules fuse with egg cell membrane

enzyme releases into zona pellucida

zona pellucida thickens and harderns

32
Q

what are the steps of fertilisation?

A

ovum secretes chemicals

acrosome reaction to break down zona pellucida

fusion of sperm and ovum haploid nucleus to make diploid nucleus

cortical reaction to prevent polyspermy

33
Q

what happens in the acrosome reaction?

A

acrosome in head of sperm fuses with egg membrane and releases digestive enzymes via exocytosis

34
Q

What are the products of meiosis?

A
  • 4 gametes that are non genetically identical

chromosomes are rearranged with a new combination of genes

35
Q

what is the importance of meiosis?

A

creates genetic variation

36
Q

describe how a stem cell becomes specilised

A

-stimulus from surrounding cells
-activation of some genes
- only activated genes are transcribed
- mRNA is translated on ribosomes
- makes a protien which gives the cell its function
-cell is differentiated

37
Q

explain why males are more likey to suffer from X-linked disease than females

A

males only have one X chromosome

so only need one allele to show phenotypes (if it is a recessive phenotype)