Topic 2 - Genes and Health Flashcards

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1
Q

How are the lungs adapted for gas exchange?

A

The large surface area of the alveoli, the steep concentration gradient between the alveolar air and the blood (maintained by ventilation of the alveoli and the continuous flow of blood through the lungs), and the thin walls of the alveoli and capillaries, combine to ensure rapid diffusion across the gas exchange surface.

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2
Q

Describe Fick’s law.

A

Increased surface area and a greater concentration gradient increase the rate of diffusion. smaller surface areas reduce the rate of diffusion.

Rate of diffusion is directly proportional to the (surface area x concentration difference) / thickness of the surface.

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3
Q

How does sticky mucus increase the chances of lung infections?

A

Microorganisms become trapped in the mucus in the lungs and some of these microorganisms cause illness - they are pathogens. The mucus is normally moved by cilia into the back of the mouth cavity where it is either coughed out or swallowed, reducing the risk of infection. The acid in the stomach kills most microorganisms that are swallowed.

In people with CF, the mucus layer is so sticky that the cilia cannot move it. Mucus production still continues as it would in a normal lung, and the thickened mucus build up in airways. There are low levels of oxygen in the mucus, partly because oxygen diffuses slowly through it, and partly because the epithelial cells use up more oxygen in CF patients. Harmful bacteria thrive in these anaerobic conditions.

White blood cells fight the infections within the mucus but as they die they break down and release DNA that makes the mucus even stickier. Repeated lung infections can eventually weaken the body’s ability to fight the pathogens and cause damage to the structures of the gas exchange system.

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4
Q

Describe the primary structure of a protein.

A

The primary structure of a protein is the sequence of amino acids that make up a polypeptide chain. Two amino acids join in a condensation reaction to form a dipeptide, forming a peptide bond between the two subunits. This process can be repeated to form polypeptide chains with thousands of amino acids. A protein is made up of one or more of these polypeptide chains.

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5
Q

Describe the secondary structure of a protein.

A

Within one protein molecule, there may be sections with alpha helices and other sections that contain beta-pleated sheets, and some sections may be folded or twisted in a less ordered manner. Interactions between the amino acids in the polypeptide chain cause the chain to twist and fold into a three-dimensional shape. Lengths of the chain may first coil into alpha-helices or come together in Beta pleated sheets. These features are known as the secondary structure.

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6
Q

Within the secondary structure of a protein, how do amino acids interact to form an alpha helix and up to how long can they be?

A

a. The chain of amino acids in a polypeptide chain may twist to form an alpha helix. Within the helix, hydrogen bonds form between the slightly negative C=O of the carboxylic acid and the slightly positive -NH of the amine group of different amino acids that lie above and below each other, stabilising the shape.
b. Sections of alpha-helix can be up to 35 amino acids long.

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7
Q

Within the secondary structure of a protein, how do amino acids interact to form Beta pleated sheets?

A

Amino acids within the polypeptide chain may fold back on themselves, or several lengths of the chain, each up to 15 amino acids in length, may link together with hydrogen bonds holding the parallel chains in an arrangement known as Beta pleated sheets. Each hydrogen bond is weak, but the cumulative effect of many hydrogen bonds makes the secondary structure quite stable.

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8
Q

Describe the tertiary structure of a protein.

A

Chemical bonds and hydrophobic interactions between R groups maintain this final tertiary structure of the protein. Chemical bonds may form between R groups that are close to each other in the folded structure. Hydrogen bonding, hydrophobic or hydrophilic R groups. Additionally, covalent disulphide bond may form if two cysteine (-SH groups) R groups are close to each other. Some amino acids may contain ionised R groups and so ionic bonds can form between positively and negatively charged R groups. These features allow the protein to fold into a tertiary structure.

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9
Q

What makes a three-dimensional structure of polypeptide chains a protein?

A

If the three-dimensional shape is functional, that is, the molecule is able to perform its specific function, the molecule is now described as a protein. Some proteins may only be functional if they are made up of several polypeptide chains held together.

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10
Q

What are the key properties of disulphide and ionic bonds within the tertiary structure of a protein?

A

Disulphide and ionic bonds form bonds which are much stronger than hydrogen bonds but are very sensitive to changes in ph.

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11
Q

What is the quaternary structure of a protein?

A

a. Proteins with more than one polypeptide chain have a quaternary structure, single-chain proteins stop at the tertiary level. It is the interaction between polypeptide chains.
b. The simplest case of a quaternary structure is a dimer. In a dimer, there are two polypeptide chains that constitute the protein. Each individual polypeptide chain is called a subunit. These polypeptide chains can interact usually via non-covalent bonds but sometimes covalent bonds such as disulphide bonds may hold the polypeptide chains.
c. In a dimer we have two subunits, in a trimer, we have three subunits, in a tetramer, we have four subunits, and so on.

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12
Q

What is a conjugated protein?

A

A conjugated protein has another chemical group associated with their polypeptide chains. For example, the polypeptide chains that make up myoglobin and haemoglobin are associated with an iron-containing group.

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13
Q

Describe globular and fibrous proteins.

A

a. In globular proteins the polypeptide chain is folded into a compact spherical shape. These proteins are soluble due to the hydrophilic side chains that project from the outside of the molecules and are therefore important in metabolic reactions. Enzymes are globular proteins. Their three-dimensional shape is crucial to their ability to form enzyme-substrate complexes and catalyse reactions within cells.
b. Fibrous proteins do not fold up into a ball shape but remain as long chains. Several polypeptide chains are cross-linked for additional strength. These insoluble proteins are important structural molecules. For example, collagen is a fibrous protein. Three polypeptide chains wind around each other to form a rope-like strand held together by hydrogen bonds between the chains. Each strand cross-links to other strands to produce a molecule with tremendous strength. Notice the strands are staggered avoiding the creation of any weak points along the length of the molecule.

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14
Q

Describe the phospholipid bilayer.

A

The phosphate head of the molecule is polar. This makes the phosphate head attract other polar molecules like water and therefore is hydrophilic. The fatty acid tails are non-polar and therefore hydrophobic. When added to water phospholipids become arranged with no contact between the hydrophobic tails and water. So, they may form an arrangement where their hydrophobic tails are directed out of the water, they also may become arranged into spherical clusters called micelles or form a bilayer. The bilayer is favoured as the two fatty acids are too bulky to fit into a micelle. The phospholipid bilayer is the most stable arrangement out of the three.

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15
Q

What is the arrangement known as the fluid mosaic model?

A

The cell surface membrane is not simply a phospholipid bilayer. It also contains proteins, cholesterol, glycoproteins (protein molecules with polysaccharides attached) and glycolipids (lipid molecules with polysaccharides attached). Some of the proteins span the membrane. Other proteins are found only within the inner layer or only within the outer layer. Membrane proteins have hydrophobic areas, and these are positioned within the membrane bilayer. It is thought that some of the proteins are fixed within the membrane, but others are not and can move around in the fluid phospholipid bilayer. This arrangement is known as the fluid mosaic model.

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16
Q

Why was the three-layer protein-lipid sandwich model rejected up and till the early 1970s?

A

The model was based on an electron micrograph in which the dark outer layers were thought to be proteins and the lighter region within was thought to be the lipid. However, this model does not allow the hydrophilic phosphate heads to be in contact with water, nor does it allow any non-polar hydrophobic amino acids on the outside of the membrane proteins to be kept away from water. Consideration of how lipids behaved in water, forming a bilayer because it is the most stable arrangement, was used to refine the model. Interpretation of the electron micrograph evidence changed to support the new model. The phosphate heads are more electron dense and show up as the darker edges and the lipid tails being the lighter inner part.

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17
Q

What did experiments in the evidence for fluid mosaic models show?

A

a. Experiments showed that there were two types of proteins – those that can be dissociated (separated) from the membrane quite easily by increasing the ionic strength of the solution and those (the majority) that could only be removed from the membrane by more drastic action such as adding detergents. This supported the fluid mosaic model where some peripheral proteins are loosely attached on the outside surface of the membrane whilst integral proteins are fully embedded within the phospholipids, some even spanning both layers. Several integral proteins were investigated further and shown to have regions at their ends that had some polar hydrophilic amino acids, with the middle portion being mainly composed of non-polar hydrophobic amino acids.
b. Additional evidence for integral membrane proteins came from freeze-fracture electron microscopy studies.
c. Furthermore, several experiments were carried out using labelled molecules that only attach to other specific molecules.
d. Another involved fusing mouse cells with human cells. (Read pages 67-69)

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18
Q

State the different ways molecules and ions moves across membranes by?

A

a. Diffusion.
b. Osmosis.
c. Active transport.
d. Exocytosis.
e. Endocytosis.

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19
Q

Define diffusion.

A

Diffusion is the net movement of molecules or ions from a region where they are at a higher concentration to a region of their lower concentration. Diffusion will continue until equilibrium when the particles of the substance are evenly spread throughout the whole volume. Carbon dioxide is polar, but its small size still allows rapid diffusion across the cell membrane.

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20
Q

Describe facilitated diffusion.

A

a. Hydrophilic (polar) molecules and ions that are larger than carbon dioxide cannot simply diffuse through the bilayer. They are insoluble in lipids – the hydrophobic tails of the phospholipids provide an impenetrable barrier.
b. The polar molecules and ions may diffuse through water-filled pores within channel proteins that span the membrane. There are different channel proteins for transporting different molecules. Each type of channel protein has a specific shape that permits the passage of only one particular type of ion or molecule. Some channels can be opened or closed depending on the presence or absence of a signal, which could be a specific molecule, like a hormone, or change in potential difference (voltage) across the membrane. These channels are called gated channels.
c. Some proteins which play a role in facilitated diffusion are not just simple channels but are carrier proteins. The ion or molecule binds onto a specific site on the protein. The protein changes shape and as a result the ion or molecule crosses the membrane. Movement can occur in either direction, with the net movement being dependent on the concentration difference across the membrane. Molecules move from high to low concentration due to more frequent binding to carrier proteins on the side of the membrane where the concentration is higher.
d. Diffusion, whether facilitated or not, is sometimes called passive transport. ‘Passive’ here refers to the fact that no metabolic energy is needed for the transport – the process is driven by the concentration gradient itself.

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21
Q

Define and describe Osmosis.

A

a. Osmosis is the net movement of water molecules from a solution with a lower concentration of solute to a solution with a higher concentration of solute through a partially permeable membrane.
b. Water molecules form hydrogen bonds with solute molecules, this reduces the movement of these water molecules. If more solute is present, there are fewer free water molecules able to collide with and move across the membrane. Therefore, water molecules move from a concentration of low solute to a concentration of high solute.
c. Osmosis will continue until the solutions on either side are equally concentrated or isotonic.

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22
Q

Describe active transport.

A

a. If substances need to be moved across a membrane against a concentration gradient (from low concentration to high concentration) then energy is required. As with facilitated diffusion, specific carrier proteins are also needed. Energy is supplied by the energy transfer molecule ATP. The substance to be transported across the membrane binds to the specific carrier protein. One phosphate group is removed from ATP by hydrolysis and ADP forms. Once removed, the phosphate group becomes hydrated. A lot of energy is released as bonds form between water and phosphate. This energy from ATP changes the shape of the carrier protein, causing the substance to be released on the other side of the membrane and moving it against the concentration gradient.
b. Active transport proteins are sometimes referred to as pumps, and the pumping of substances across the membranes occurs in every cell.

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23
Q

How is ATP formed?

A

It is formed during respiration, breakdown of energy storage molecules, principally carbohydrates and fats.

24
Q

Describe exocytosis and endocytosis.

A

a. Sometimes very large molecules or particles, or very large quantities of a particular molecule need to be transported across cell surface membrane. This bulk transport is achieved by exocytosis and endocytosis, which rely on the fluid nature of the membrane.
b. Exocytosis is the release of substances, usually proteins or polysaccharides, from the cell. Vesicles (small membrane-bound sacs containing the substance) fuse with the cell membrane and the contents are released. For example, insulin (produced by certain cells in the pancreas) is released into the blood by exocytosis.
c. Within Endocytosis substances are taken into a cell by the creation of a vesicle from the cell surface membrane. Part of the membrane engulfs the solid or liquid material to be transported. In some cases, the substance to be absorbed attaches to a receptor in the membrane and is then absorbed by endocytosis. This is how cholesterol is taken up into cells.

25
Q

Describe what happens when there is extra water in the mucus.

A

a. If the mucus layer is too runny, the presence of excess water is detected by the epithelial cell membranes that line the airways. Carrier proteins in the basal membranes of the epithelial cells actively pump sodium ions out of the cell. The concentration of sodium ions (Na+) in the cell falls, setting up a concentration gradient across the apical membrane. Sodium ions diffuse from the mucus down this concentration gradient into the epithelial cells by facilitated diffusion through epithelial sodium ion channels (ENaCs) in the apical membrane.
b. The raised concentration of sodium ions in the tissue fluid on the basal membrane side of the epithelial cell creates a potential difference between this tissue fluid and the mucus on the apical membrane side. The tissue fluid now contains more positively charged ions than does the mucus. This creates an electrical gradient between the tissue fluid and the mucus. The electrical gradient causes negatively charge chloride ions (Cl-) to diffuse out of the mucus into the tissue fluid via the gaps between neighbouring epithelial cells.
c. This increases the Na+ and Cl- concentration in the tissue fluid. Water is then drawn out of the epithelial cells by osmosis across the basal membrane into the tissue fluid. This water loss increases the overall solute concentration within the cell. Since solute concentration is now higher within the cell than in the mucus, water is drawn out of the mucus by osmosis across the apical membrane and into the epithelial cell.

26
Q

Describe what happens when there is too little water in the mucus.

A

a. If there is too little water in the mucus, for example after a period of rapid breathing during exercise, chloride ions are transported across the basal membrane into the epithelial cell. This creates a concentration gradient across the apical membrane, with the concentration of chloride ions being higher inside the cell than out. This chloride ion imbalance causes the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) protein channels to open. When open, the CFTR channels block the epithelial sodium ion channels in the apical membrane. The CFTR protein is a type of gated channel protein. Chloride ions now diffuse out of the cell through the CFTR channels down this concentration gradient into the mucus.
b. The build-up of negatively charged chloride ions in the mucus creates an electrical gradient between the mucus and the tissue fluid. Sodium ions diffuse out of the tissue fluid and move down this electrical gradient, passing between the cells into the mucus. The movement of the sodium and chloride ions into the mucus draws water out of the epithelial cells by osmosis until the solutions are isotonic. The movement of water prevents the mucus that lines the airways from becoming too viscous.

27
Q

Describe what happens in cystic fibrosis sufferers.

A

a. In a person with CF, the CFTR protein may be missing, or if it is present it does not function correctly. When there is too little water in the mucus and it is sticky, chloride ions cannot be secreted across the apical membrane.
b. The epithelial sodium ion channels (ENaCs) are not blocked and actually seem to allow even more sodium ions than normal into the epithelial cells. Since the ENaCs are always open, there is continual sodium absorption from the mucus by the epithelial cells. The raised levels of sodium ions in the cells then draws chloride ions and water out of the mucus into the cells by osmosis. This makes the mucus even more viscous which makes it harder for the beating cilia to move the mucus.
c. The mucus is not effectively cleared up and out of the lungs and this build-up reduces the effective ventilation of the alveoli. The mucus frequently becomes infected with bacteria, and phagocytic cells that clear pathogens are over-produced in response. When the phagocytes break down, their DNA makes the mucus stickier still, causing a downward spiral of airway inflammation and lung damage.

28
Q

Describe the effect of cystic fibrosis on the digestive system.

A

a. In a person with cystic fibrosis, the pancreatic duct becomes blocked by sticky mucus, impairing the release of digestive enzymes. The lower concentration of enzymes within the small intestine reduces the rate of digestion. Food is not fully digested, so not all the nutrients can be absorbed. As a consequence, the faeces contain a higher proportion of partially digested and undigested food, so energy is lost. This is called malabsorption syndrome.
b. An additional complication occurs when the pancreatic enzymes become trapped behind the mucus blocking the pancreatic duct. These enzymes damage the pancreas itself. The cysts of hard, damaged or fibrosed tissue within the pancreas give the CF condition its name.
c. Another complication occurs if damage occurs to cells within the pancreas that produce the hormone insulin, which is involved in the control of blood sugar levels. A form of diabetes can be the result.

29
Q

Describe the effect of cystic fibrosis on the reproductive system.

A

a. We have seen how sticky mucus produced by a defective CFTR protein can lead to major complications in the lungs and pancreas.
b. Within the reproductive system, females have a reduced chance of getting pregnant because a mucus plug develops in the cervix. This stops sperm from reaching the egg.
c. Males with cystic fibrosis commonly lack vas deferens (sperm duct) on both sides, which means that sperm cannot leave the testes. Where the vas deferens is present it can become partially blocked by a thick sticky mucus layer. This means fewer sperm are present in each ejaculate.

30
Q

Describe the effect of cystic fibrosis on sweat.

A

a. Sweat glands are exocrine glands that initially secrete into their lumen a solution of salt and water that is isotonic to the blood. In an individual without cystic fibrosis, CFTR and ENaC protein allow reabsorption of sodium chloride and some water from the sweat as it moves up the duct towards the skin surface. The sweat that is released on to the skin and evaporates is therefore hypotonic.
b. In an individual with cystic fibrosis, on chromosome number seven three genes are deleted which are responsible for phenylalanine (the 508th amino acid in the CFTR protein) which is responsible to the contribution of proteins within CFTR. As a result of the defective CFTR protein this results in no reabsorption of sodium chloride resulting in less water reabsorption meaning that the sweat that is released on to the skin is a hypertonic solution. This leads to heat exhaustion and dehydration as there is a loss of lots of ions and fluids.

31
Q

Describe DNA.

A

a. DNA is a type of nucleic acid, called deoxyribonucleic acid. It is a long chain polymer made of many units called nucleotides or mononucleotides.
b. A mononucleotide contains three molecules linked together by condensation reactions. They are deoxyribose (a 5-carbon sugar), a phosphate group and an organic base containing nitrogen. Mononucleotides link together by condensation reactions between the sugar of one nucleotide and the phosphate of the next one, producing a polynucleotide. The bond that forms is known as a phosphodiester bond.

32
Q

Describe RNA.

A

An RNA molecule is a single stranded polynucleotide made of ribonucleic acid (RNA) nucleotides. RNA nucleotides are very similar in structure to DNA nucleotides, containing a phosphate, sugar and base, except that they contain a ribose sugar and not deoxyribose. Another difference is that in RNA nucleotides, the base uracil (U) replaces thymine, so RNA never contains thymine. Sometimes a section of an RNA molecule folds back on itself and complementary bases pair with each other, so it can appear double stranded, although it is not.

33
Q

What are the different types of mutations?

A

Mutations in DNA include substitutions, insertions, deletions and inversions of base sequences. Insertions and deletions of a number of bases where the number cannot be divided by three causes a ‘frame shift’. All the subsequent triplets from that point onwards are affected.

34
Q

What is the difference between DNA and RNA?

A

RNA is a single stranded polynucleotide made up of ribonucleic acid nucleotides. They are very similar to DNA nucleotides; however, they contain ribose sugar and not deoxyribose. Additionally, the base uracil (U) replaces thymine, so RNA never contains thymine.

35
Q

Describe transcription.

A

At the start of transcription, an enzyme called RNA polymerase attaches to the DNA. The hydrogen bonds between paired bases break, and the DNA molecule unwinds. The sequence on one of the strands, the template strand (antisense strand), is transcribed to make an mRNA molecule with the same base sequence as the DNA coding strand (sense strand). The complementary RNA nucleotides align themselves into position and then phosphodiester bonds form to produce an mRNA molecule. Because of complementary base pairing, the order of bases on the DNA exactly determines the order of the bases on the mRNA. Only the section of DNA that codes for the protein being made is transcribed. When transcription is complete, the mRNA molecule leaves the nucleus through a pore in the nuclear envelope and the DNA molecule ‘zips up’.

36
Q

What is the nature of the genetic code?

A

a. The code carried by the DNA is a three-base or triplet code (known as a codon).
b. Each adjacent group of three bases codes for an amino acid, the code is non overlapping, each triplet code is adjacent.
c. Several triplets can code for the same amino acid, the code is degenerate.

37
Q

What is the first codon exposed on the smaller subunit of the ribosome on an mRNA and what is the stop codons?

A

a. The start codon AUG which codes for the amino acid methionine.
b. The stop codons are UAA, UAG or UGA.

38
Q

Describe Meselson’s and Stahl’s experiment.

A

Two samples of bacteria from E.coli were grown - one was grown in a nutrient broth containing heavy nitrogen N-15 and the other was grown in a nutrient broth containing light nitrogen. As the bacteria reproduced, they took up nitrogen from the broth to help make nucleotides for the new DNA. So the nitrogen gradually became part of the bacteria’s DNA.

A sample of DNA was taken from each batch of bacteria, and spun in a centrifuge containing a special caesium chloride density gradient. The DNA from the heavy nitrogen settled lower down in the centrifuge tube than the DNA grown in light nitrogen because the DNA is heavier.

Then the bacteria grown in heavy nitrogen was taken out and put into a broth containing only light nitrogen. The bacteria were left for one round of DNA replication, and then another DNA sample was taken out and spun in a centrifuge.

If the replication was conservative, there would be two bands, one at the bottom for the original strands (N-15) and one at the top for the new strand (N-14).

However, the results supported the semi-conservative method as there was one band in the middle of light and heavy which indicated that one of the strands was heavy nitrogen and the other strand was of light DNA therefore producing a strand in between the two poles.

39
Q

Define molecular phylogeny.

A

Molecular phylogeny looks at molecules (DNA and proteins) to see how closely related organisms are, e.g. more closely related organisms have more similar molecules.

40
Q

Describe amniocentesis.

A

Amniocentesis involves inserting a needle into the amniotic fluid to collect fetal calls that have fallen of the placenta and fetus. Amniocentesis is usually carried out at around 15-17 weeks of pregnancy, there is about 1% risk of causing miscarriage.

41
Q

Describe chorionic villus sampling.

A

a. Within chorionic villus sampling a small sample of placental tissue (which includes cells of the embryo or fetus) is removed, either through the wall of the abdomen or through the vagina. CVS is carried out between 8 and 12 weeks since there is no need to wait for amniotic fluid to develop.
b. There is a higher risk of miscarriage than amniocentesis. NHS quotes an estimated risk of about 1 to 2% of inducing a miscarriage.

42
Q

Describe non-invasive prenatal diagnosis.

A

a. non-invasive prenatal diagnosis (NIPD) works by analysing DNA fragments in the mother’s blood plasma during pregnancy. Whilst most of this ‘cell-free DNA’ is from the mother herself, about 10-20% is from the embryo.
b. Cell-free fetal DNA (cffDNA) becomes detectable in the mother at about 4-5 weeks of pregnancy; however, at this stage the levels are too low to be analysed.
c. Samples are likely to be collected after 7-9 weeks of pregnancy, depending on the genetic test to be performed as different genetic tests require differing concentrations of cffDNA before a test can be carried out.

43
Q

Describe pre-implantation genetic diagnosis.

A

a. The couple will have to undergo in-vitro fertilisation (IVF) in order to create embryos that can be tested before transfer to the uterus. When an early embryo is growing in culture and has around eight cells, one cell can be removed for genetic testing without harming the embryo. The DNA of the cell is analysed, and the results of the genetic screening are used to decide whether to place the embryo into the uterus.
b. IVF is expensive, however avoids the need for a possible abortion, additionally, success rates are quite low.
c. Live birth rate for PGD is similar to general IVF success rates, at around 30% for women under 35. in 2010, only 121 babies were born in the UK as a result of PGD.

44
Q

What are the ethical frameworks?

A

a. Rights and duties.
b. Maximising the amount of good in the world.
c. Making decisions for yourself.
d. Leading a virtuous life.

45
Q

What are the treatments for cystic fibrosis?

A

a. Bronchodilators
b. Antibiotics
c. DNAase enzymes
d. steroids
e. Enzyme supplements
f. Physiotherapy
g. Transplants
h. Gene therapy

46
Q

Define gene therapy.

A

Desired gene inserted into a vector. Modified DNA put into a human cell. Produces a functional protein.

47
Q

Define intracellular reactions.

A

Enzyme reactions that occur inside cells.

48
Q

Define extracellular reactions.

A

Enzyme reactions that occur outside cells.

49
Q

Define catabolic.

A

The breakdown of complex molecules into simpler ones. These reactions release energy.

50
Q

Define anabolic.

A

The synthesis of complex molecules from simpler ones.

51
Q

Define gene.

A

A gene is a sequence of bases on a DNA molecule that codes for a sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain. All the genes in an individual (or species) are known as the genome.

52
Q

What happens in sickle cell anaemia?

A

a. In the disease sickle cell anaemia, there is a substitution mutation in the gene that codes for one of the polypeptide chains in haemoglobin, the pigment in red blood cells that carries oxygen around the body.
b. The base adenine replaces thymine at one position along the chain. The mRNA produced from this DNA contains the triplet code GUA rather than GAA.
c. As a result, the protein produced contains the non-polar amino acid valine rather than polar glutamic acid at this point. This small change has a devastating effect on the functioning of this molecule. The haemoglobin is less soluble. When oxygen levels are low, the molecules form long fibres that stick together inside the red blood cells, distorting its shape. The resulting half-moon (sickle) shaped cells carry less oxygen and can block blood vessels.

53
Q

Define allele.

A

Alternative forms of a gene found at the same locus on a chromosome.

54
Q

Define monohybrid inheritance.

A

A characteristic controlled by only one gene.

55
Q

What is incomplete dominance?

A

Incomplete dominance is where neither allele is dominant, and heterozygotes have an intermediate phenotype.