Topic 2 : Genes and Health Flashcards

(82 cards)

1
Q

why do organisms with low SA:V ratio need specialised gas exchange surfaces

A

bc diffusion alone is not sufficient

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2
Q

3 features of an efficient gas exchange surface

A

1) large surface area
2) thin/short distance
3) steep concentration gradient

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3
Q

what is Ficks law? Give the corresponding equation.

A

increased SA and greater conc grad increase the rate of diffusion.
thicker diffusion distances reduce the rate of diffusion

diffusion distance

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4
Q

how are mammal lungs adapted for gas exchange?

A
  • Alveoli provide a large SA
  • Good blood supply = maintains steep conc grad
  • one cell thick = short diffusion distance
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5
Q

structure of cell membrane

A
  • phospholipid bilayer
  • channel proteins
  • carrier proteins
  • glycoproteins
  • glycolipids
  • cholesterol
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6
Q

why is it called a fluid mosaic model?

A

Cell membranes are fluid and have a mosaic like arrangement

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7
Q

what evidence led to development of fluid mosaic model?

A
  • microscopes show proteins on membrane surface
  • lipid soluble substances pass more easily in and out of cells than water soluble
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8
Q

define osmosis

A

the net movement of free water molecules from an area of high conc to an area of low conc across a partially permeable membrane

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9
Q

what is passive transport

A

movement of particles down a conc grad, no energy required

diffusion, facilitated diffusion and osmosis

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10
Q

define diffusion

A

net movement of small, non-polar, lipid-soluble molecules from an area of high conc to an area of low conc.

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11
Q

define facilitated diffusion

A

movement of polar, charged, water-soluble particles from high to low conc through a carrier protein or channel protein

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12
Q

define active transport

A

movement of molecules against a conc grad
energy in the form of ATP is required. Also uses carrier proteins.

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13
Q

what is the process of endocytosis

A

cell membrane forms a vesicle and engulfs the substance, which enters the cytoplasm

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14
Q

what is endocytosis used for

A

to bring large molecules into the cell

eg proteins
lipids
some carbohydrates

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15
Q

what is the process of exocytosis

A

vesicle forms from the Golgi apparatus and moves towards the cell membrane. Vesicle fuses with cell membrane to release contents from cell

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16
Q

what is exocytosis used for

A

to secrete substances produced by the cell eg hormones, some enzymes, and lipids

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17
Q

how are nucleotides formed

A

via a condensation reaction forming phosphodiester bonds

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18
Q

what is DNA made up of?

A

phosphate, deoxyribose sugar, and a nitrogenous base : adenine, thymine, guanine and cytosine.

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19
Q

What is RNA made up of?

A

phosphate, ribose sugar, and a nitrogenous base : adenine, uracil, guanine and cytosine

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20
Q

what are the 2 structural forms of a nitrogenous base?

A

purine or pyrimidines

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21
Q

what are purines… and what bases are purines

what are pyrimidines… and what bases are pyrimidines

A

purines = double ring structure
eg adenine and guanine

pyrimidines = single ring structure
eg cytosine, thymine and uracil

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22
Q

how are the antiparallel dna strands bonded

A

the complimentary bases are hydrogen bonded together

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23
Q

properties of RNA

A

single stranded
uracil base instead of thymine
ribose sugar
relatively short

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24
Q

different types of RNA

A

tRNA
mRNA
rRNA

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25
What is a gene?
a sequence of nucleotide bases in dna that codes for the production of specific amino acids
26
what is transcription?
when dna is transcribed and an mRNA molecule is produced
27
what is translation
mRNA is translated to the cytoplasm and an amino acid sequence is produced
28
what happens during transcription
DNA helicase unzips and the hydrogen bonds between the bases break free activated RNA nucleotides pair up with their base pairs on the antisense strand .... making the RNA strand catalysed by RNA polymerase
29
where does transcription occur
nucleus
30
where does translation occur
cytoplasm
31
what happens during translation
mRNA leaves the nucleus and attaches to a ribosome tRNA molecules bind with their specific amino acids in the cytoplasm and bring them ribosome tRNA anticodon pairs with the codon on the mRNA amino acids attached to the tRNA form peptide bonds and primary structure. Translation is caused by a start and a stop codon. The code is non overlapping and degenerate.
32
what does a non overlapping and degenerate code mean?
non overlapping = each codon codes only for a particular amino acid i.e each code is only read once degenerate = an amino acid can be produced from different triplets of bases.
33
how many amino acids are there?
20
34
what is the general structure of an amino acid? draw it
amine group = NH2 Carboxyl group = COOH Hydrogen and R group H H O N - C - C H R OH
35
what is the name of the bond that forms between amino acids?
peptide bonds
36
what atoms are lost from the amino acids to form a peptide bond
OH of one COOH group H from the amine group of another amino acid
37
in what reaction are peptide bonds formed, what are the products
condensation reaction... 1 water molecule
38
in what reaction are peptide bonds broken?
hydrolysis, add one molecule of water
39
what is the primary structure of a protein
sequence of amino acids bonded together by peptide bonds
40
what is the secondary structure of a protein
chain coils into an alpha helix H bonds form between every 4th peptide bond or folds into a beta pleated sheet two parts of the pp chain are parallel + form H bonds w each other
41
what is the tertiary structure of a protein
additional bonds forming between R groups
42
what bonds form and where in a tertiary structure
H bonds between R groups Disulphide bonds between cysteine amino acids Ionic between charged R groups Hydrophobic and Hydrophilic interactions between non polar R groups
43
what is a quaternary structure
when more than one polypeptide chain is involved
44
describe globular and fibrous proteins… give examples of each one
globular = compact, spherical, soluble. HAEMOGLOBIN GCSS - garry can suck sally fibrous = long crosslinked chains, insoluble, little to no tertiary structure COLLAGEN
45
why do globular proteins form a spherical shape in their tertiary structure
non polar hydrophobic R groups are towards the centre of the protein polar hydrophilic R groups are towards the outside
46
why are globular proteins soluble…what does this allow them to do ?
soluble b/c orientation of the R groups... water molecules can surround the polar hydrophilic R groups solubility means they can be easily transported around organisms and involved in metabolic reactions
47
what is the structure of haemoglobin?
quaternary structure… 4 polypeptide chains… 2 alpha globin and 2 beta globins each with a prosthetic haem group the four globin chains are held together by disulphide bonds each haemoglobin can carry 4 oxygen molecules b/c each haem group contains Fe2+
48
properties of haemoglobin
- binds to O2 in the lungs and transports to tissues for aerobic respiration O2 not very soluble so HG allows it to be carried more efficiently around the body existence of Fe2+ in the haem group allows for O2 to bind reversibly. Amino Acids unable to bind to oxygen
49
properties of fibrous proteins
- insoluble and strong suitable for structural roles - rarely ever tertiary structures
50
what is collagen
a fibrous structural protein forms: tendons, cartilage, ligaments, bones, teeth, skin, cornea
51
structure of collagen
3 polypeptide chains held together by hydrogen bonds to form a triple helix covalent bonds form cross-links between R groups collagen molecules are positioned in the fibrils… many fibrils form fibres = collagen fibres
52
function of collagen
forms protective tissues many H bonds = great tensile strength staggered ends within collagen molecules in the fibrils = strength collagen = stable b/c the many proline and hydroxyproline repel eachother
53
what is the role of enzymes
biological catalysts, speed up rate of reactions by reducing activation energy can be intracellular or extracellular
54
structure of enzymes
globular proteins with complex tertiary structures sometimes quaternary
55
what are intracellular and extracellular enzymes
intracellular = produced and function inside of the cell extracellular = secreted by the cell and function outside
56
what conditions cause an enzyme to denature
extreme temp / pH
57
what conditions are needed for an enzyme-substrate complex to form
substrates must collide with active site at the correct orientation and speed
58
what does the induced-fit hypothesis state about how enzymes work?
enzyme and substrate interact w each other - enzyme + active site can change shape slightly as substrate enters the enzyme - these changes AKA conformational changes they ensure ideal binding arrangement and maximises the ability of the enzyme to catalyse
59
what is the name of the process in which DNA is replicated?
semi conservative replication
60
why is DNA replication process called "semi conservative"
in each new DNA molecule, one strand has conserved the original DNA and then used this to create a new strand
61
why is it important to retain one original DNA strand
it ensures there is genetic continuity between generations of cells important as cells are replaced regularly … we need the new cells to carry out the same roles as the old ones
62
when does DNA replication occur
in preparation for mitosis in the S phase of the cell cycle
63
what is the process of semi-conservative replication?
enzyme helicase unwinds the double helix by breaking the hydrogen bonds between the base pairs. each single polynucleotide strand acts as a template for the formation of a new strand made from free nucleotides that are attracted to the exposed dna bases the new nucleotides are then joined together. The OG strand and new strand join together via H bonding between base pairs.
64
what enzyme is involved in joining the new nucleotides together
dna polymerase
65
what are the free nucleotides that contain 3 phosphate groups called?
nucleotide triphosphates or activated phosphates
66
what does DNA polymerase do?
catalyses condensation reactions between the deoxyribose sugar and the phosphate groups - creating the sugar-phosphate backbone cleaves the two extra phosphate groups on the triphosphates and uses the energy released to create phosphodiester bonds hydrogen bonds then form between the complimentary base pairs of the template and new DNA strand
67
what direction does dna polymerase build the new strand
5' to 3' direction
68
what is the leading strand? what is the lagging strand?
leading - the template strand of the original dna lagging - the strand created during DNA replication
69
Descirbe Meselson and Stahl's experiment?
DNA grown in N-15 broth then moved to N-14. New DNA contained both 15 and 14 Nitrogen proving that semi conservative replication occured
70
describe the 5 types of mutations
insertion (frame shift) … knock-on effect, changing the triplets further on deletion (frame shift) - changes every triplet further on substitution -only change the amino acid for the triplet in which the mutation occurs duplication - one or more copies of the gene / region of a chromosone are copied. not harmful, evolution occurs inversion -single gene is split in 2 and one piece is flipped 180º
71
what is a gene mutation
a spontaneous change in the sequence of base pairs in a DNA molecule that may result in an altered polypeptide
72
what is CF caused by
a recessive allele of the CFTR gene. mutation in the cftr gene leads to production of non functional chloride channels this reduces movement of water by osmosis, results in body producing large amounts of thick sticky mucus.
73
problems of the respiratory system in CF patients
due to faulty chloride ion channels, the cilia are unable to move as the mucus is so sticky and thick … lung infections occur more freq mucus build up in lungs decreases SA for gas exchange … rate is decreased
74
what issues can CF patients have in the digestive system?
tube to the pancreas can become blocked, preventing digestive enzymes from entering the small intestine … key nutrients may not be made available for absorption mucus can cause cysts which inhibit the production of enzymes further and inhibit the absorption of nutrients in the blood
75
what issues can CF patients have in the reproductive system? men y women
men = tubes of testes become blocked, preventing sperm from reaching the penis women = thickened cervical mucus can prevent sperm reaching the oviduct to fertilise an egg
76
benefits of carrier testing
- families can make informed decisions before having children
77
benefits of preimplantation genetic diagnosis
analysis of the embryo dna prior to implanting it into the uterus -reduces the chances of having a baby with a genetic disorder - avoids abortion
78
describe the 2 types of prenatal testing
- chorionic villus sampling 8-12 weeks removal of placenta tissue through the abdomen or vagina 1-2% risk of miscarriage - aminocentesis 15-17 weeks inserts a needle into amniotic fluid which contains fetal cells which contain DNA 1% risk of miscarriage - non-invasive prenatal diagnosis 7-9 weeks analyses blood plasma
79
benefits of prenatal testing
allows parents to make informed decisions and prepare for future care of child
80
treatments for CF
Bronchodilators, antibiotics, DNAase enzymes, steroids. Change in diet. Enzyme supplements. Physiotherapy. Transplants Gene therapy.
81
What is gene therapy
Desired gene is inserted into a vector modified dna put into a human cell produces a functional protein
82
what is the mutation in sickle cell anaemia
- substitution mutation - adenine replaces thymine results in non polar amino acid Valine being coded instead of polar amino acid Glutamic acid - causes haemoglobin to be less soluble - red blood cells are sickle shaped so carry less oxygen