TOPIC 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are diagnostic tools used for?

A

Used to ascertain nutritional status and diagnose nutritional problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What are diagnostic tools?

A

Scientific or mathematical tools used by doctors, dieticians nutritionists, scientists, researches and fitness professionals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Anthropometry

A

the study of measurements and proportions of the human body. It is a quick and reliable form of obtaining objective information about a persons nutritional status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the Body Max Index formula (BMI)

A

Weight in kilograms divided by height in meters squared

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where could exaggerated BMI results occur?

A

In people with higher lean tissue percentage e.g weight lifters, athletes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the waist circumference looking at?

A

Measurement of the central abdominal fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are some health risks associated with the central distribution of body fat?

A

includes diabetes, hypertension, high cholesterol, cardiovascular disease and some cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What waist circumference measurement are males and females at an increased and greater risk?

A

Increased risk
Females: 80cm or more
Males: 94cm or more

Greatly increased risk
Famles: 88cm or more
Males: 102cm or more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why is the waist to hip ratio important?

A

Because it is not only about the amount of body fat you have, it is also about where your fat is stored which can impact your health.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Adults who store most of their body fat around their waists have an increased risk of…

A

high blood pressure type 2 diabetes, and CVD, compared with those with the same amount of body fat stored around their hips and thighs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the waist-to-hip measurment formula?

A

Waist measurement divided by hip measurement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the desirable result from the waist-to-hip measurement for both males and females

A

Females: Less than 0.8 is desirable
Males: Less than 0.9 is desirable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a weight for height table?

A

Comparison of weight and height to norms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a limitation to the weight for height tables?

A

It doesn’t allow for different frame sizes and body types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are some Haematological tests?

A

Blood tests e.g for iron, HDL, cholesterol, triglyceriges, calcium and red cell folate

Tissue tests

Urine tests e.g for sugar and/or sodium excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are immunology studies looking at?

A

Malnutrition can impair immune status. Cells responsible for immune mechanisms and antibody levels can be assessed

(These tests must be ordered by a doctor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are nutrient reference values?

A

The nutrient reference values are a set of recommended daily nutrient targets intended for your average healthy individual at different life stages. These are based on current available scientific knowledge.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are some advantages of BMI?

A

Gives people a general guide as to whether their weight is healthy to asses their risk factors for diet/weight related diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are some disadvantages/limitations of BMI?

A

Does not account for muscle mass. Muscle is heavier than fat and therefore those with more muscle mass e.g body builders or athletes, may show up as obsessed on the BMI.

BMI also doesn’t account for different genders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are some advantages of the Waist circumference?

A

Inexpensive, non-invasive, minimal equipment, simple to perform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are some disadvantages/limitations of the waist circumference?

A

-Measuring waist circumference can be inaccurate and misleading if improper techniques are used

-Doesn’t account for pregnant women

-Certain groups of people who may genetically have a different body shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are some disadvantages/limitations for weight to height tables?

A

Doesn’t take into about different frames and body types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are some advantages of the waist to hip ratio?

A

Fairly obvious when observing where fat is stored

Can give a good indication as to whether or not the individual has increased risk of diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are some disadvantages/limitations to the waist to hip ratios

A

Doesn’t factor in different medical conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are some advantages to biochemical tests?

A

The tests are directly backed up by science.
A more individual specified measurement that will be different from person to person.
Provides greater insight than other methods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are some disadvantages/limitations to biochemical tests?

A

Not easily accessible.
Can only be done by healthcare professionals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are some advantages of the nutrient reference values?

A

Allows people to compare their daily intake to the vales to understand if they are meeting the requirements they need to maintain a healthy diet

  • Can test for a range of both nutrient deficiencies and excesses
  • Non-invasive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are some disadvantages to the NRV?

A

-Nutrient analysis software may not be updated timely enough to match NRV changes and new food entering the market

-Time-consuming and costs may be involved (dietician/nutritionist)

-NRVs for each age gender and life stage are based on an average body weight

-Quality of results is dependent on participants’ accuracy in recording food intake and physical activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What do the Australian dietary guidelines have information about and what do they aim to do?

A

provides information about the types and amounts of foods, food groups and dietary patterns that aim to:
- promote health and wellbeing
- Reduce the risk of diet-related conditions such as high cholesterol, high blood pressure and obesity and reduce the risks of chronic diseases such as type 2 diabetes, CVD and some types of cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The Australian Dietary Guidelines apply to…

A

All healthy Australians, as well as those with common heath conditions such as being overweight. They do not apply to people who need special dietary advice for a medical condition, or to the frail elderly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the Australian Guide to Healthy Eating?

A

Is a food selection guide which visually represents the proportion of the five food groups recommended for consumption each day.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Why are alcohol and discretionary foods (highly processed) off the plate?

A

Because they should only be consumed sometimes and in small amounts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Why do we need dietary guidelines?

A

-A healthy diet improves the quality of life and wellbeing, and protects against chronic diseases. For infants and children, good nutrition is essential for normal growth

-Unfortunately, diet-related chronic diseases are currently a major cause of death and disability among Australians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Many of the health problems due to poor diet in Australia stem from…

A

excessive intake of foods that are high in energy, saturated fat, added sugars and/or added salt but relatively low in nutrients. These include fried and fatty take-away foods, baked products like pastries, cakes and biscuits, savoury snacks like chips, and sugar-sweetened drinks. If these foods are consumed regularly they can increase the risk of excessive weight gain and other diet-related conditions and diseases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Many diet-realted health problems in Australia are also associated with…

A

inadequate intake of nutrient-dense foods, including vegetables, legumes/beans, fruit and wholegrain cereals. A wide variety of these nutritious foods should be consumed every day to promote health and well-being and help protect against chronic disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Evidence suggests Australians need to eat more:

A
  • vegetables and legumes/beans
  • fruits
  • wholegrain cereals
  • reduced fat milk, yoghurt, cheese
  • fish, seafood, poultry, eggs, legumes/beans (including soy), and nuts and seeds.
  • red meat (young females only)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Evidence suggests Australians need to eat less:

A
  • starchy vegetables (i.e. there is a need to include a wider variety of different types and colours of vegetables)
  • refined cereals
  • high and medium fat dairy foods
  • red meats (adult males only)
  • food and drinks high in saturated fat, added sugar, added salt, or alcohol (e.g. fried foods, most take-away foods from quick service restaurants, cakes and biscuits, chocolate and confectionery, sweetened drinks).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is Guideline 1?

A

To achieve and maintain a healthy weight, be physically active and choose amounts of nutritious food and drinks to meet your energy needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

(Guideline 1) Children and adolescents should eat…

A

Sufficient nutritious foods to grow and develop normally. They should be physically active every day and their growth should be checked regularly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

(Guideline 1) Older people should…

A

Eat nutritious foods and keep physically active to help maintain muscle strength and a health weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is guideline 2?

A

Enjoy a wide variety of nutritious foods from these five groups every day and drink plenty of water

41
Q

(Guideline 2) what are the 5 food groups?

A
  1. Plenty of vegetables, including different types and colours
  2. Grain (cereal) foods, mostly wholegrain and/or high cereal fibre varieties, such as breads, cereals, rice, pasta, noodles, polenta, cous cous, oats, quina and barley
  3. Lean means and poultry, fish eggs, tofu, nuts seeds and legumes/beans
  4. Milk, yogurt, cheese and/or their alternatives, mostly reduced fat
42
Q

What is guideline 3?

A

Limit intake of foods containing saturated fat, added salt, added sugars and alcohol

43
Q

(Guideline 3) Limit intake of foods high in….

A

saturated fat such as biscuits, cakes and pastries, pies, processed meats, commercial burgers, pizza, fried foods, potato chips, crisps and other savoury snacks

44
Q

(Guideline 3) Replace high-fat foods which contain predominantly… with foods which contain predominantly….

A

saturated fats such as butter, cream, cooking margarine, coconut and palm oil with foods that contain predominantly polyunsaturated and monounsaturated fats such as oils, spreads, nut butters and avocados

45
Q

(guideline 3) We need to limit intake of foods and drinks containing added salt, how can this be done?

A

Read labels to choose lower sodium options among similar foods

Do not add salt to foods in cooking or at table

46
Q

(guideline 3) Limit intake of foods and drinks containing added…

A

sugars such as confectionary, sugar-sweetened drinks, soft drinks and cordials, fruit drinks, vitamin waters and energy drinks

47
Q

What is guideline 4?

A

Encourage, support and promote breastfeeding

48
Q

What is guideline 5?

A

Care for your food; prepare and store it safely

49
Q

Food processing involves…

A

the conversion of raw foods into the products found on shelves, generally for customer convenience

50
Q

Food processing also ensures…

A

foods are safe to consume by eliminating microorganisms and are available to consumers out of season

51
Q

How do food processing techniques ensure ongoing food supply?

A
  • By making foods edible: Some foods are not edible in their natural state (e.g grain crops like wheat and corn) Processing techniques turn these foods into flour etc

-Making foods safe: Many foods contain potentially dangerous microbes. Food processing can kill these microbes

52
Q

What does FSANZ do?

A

FSANZ develops and delivers the Food Standards Code for Australia and New Zealand which is enforced by different groups across the states and territories.

53
Q

What is food standards Australia New Zealand? (FSANZ)

A

FASANZ is an independent statutory authority established by law and authorised to pass legislation on behalf of the relevant country or state

54
Q

What is FSANZ ultimate goal?

A

To ensure Australia and New Zealand have a safe food supply and well-informed consumers

55
Q

What are the 4 chapters of the Australia and New Zealand Food standards code?

A
  1. General food standards such as labelling requirements, use-by-dates and nutritional information
  2. Food production standards affecting specific classes of food such as cereals, meat, eggs, fruits and vegetables
  3. Food safety standards
  4. Primary production standards including individual standards for seafood, poultry, meat and dairy
56
Q

The responsibilities of FSANZ include: remember by D CC U PPP

A
  • Developing standards for food manufacturing, labelling, processing, hygiene and primary production
  • Providing technical advice to governments on food policy issues
  • Providing information to consumers
  • Coordinating national food surveillance, enforcement and food recall
  • Conducting consumer industry research
  • Undertaking dietary exposure modelling and scientific risk assessments
  • Providing risk assessment advice on imported foods
57
Q

What are the 3 types of contamination?

A

Physical, chemical and biological

58
Q

What is physical contamination

A

Any foreign object found in food (band-aid, plastic, fingernail, hair, bug)
- Note - physical contaminants can also introduce biological contaminates

59
Q

What is chemical contamination?

A

Chemiclas can enter food at many stages
-Pesticides at the farm
-Heavy metals from the soil
-Cleaning agents in factory or shop

60
Q

What is biological contamination?

A

Microbes (bacteria, virus, fungi)
- Most common type of contamination
-From soil at farm
-From lack of hygiene of people, which can be transferred to equipment used in food processing or to the food itself

61
Q

Microbes are living organisms which thrive within optimal conditions:

Microbes require optimal…

A
  • Nutrients
    -pH
    -Temperature
    -Water
    -Air (aerobic organisms)
    -Time
62
Q

What are some examples of fungi?

A

Yeast – Saccharomyces cerevisiae

Mould – Antibiotic Penicillium chrysogenum

Mushrooms – button mushroom Agaricus bisporus

63
Q

What are some examples of a virus?

A

Influence A and B

Common cold – Rhinovirus

COVID-19

64
Q

What are some examples of bacteria?

A

Lactobacillus sp. In yogurt

Escherichia coli in human gut

Salmonella which causes food poisoning

65
Q

All living organisms require nutrients to…

A

Provide the energy needed for growht and reproduction. Bacteria and mould grows well on food since it is a perfect source of nutrients

66
Q

Most bacteria will grow exponentially when in the…

A

Danger zone

67
Q

What temperature is the danger zone?

A

Between the temperatures 5c-60c.

68
Q

What is the optimum temperature for most bacteria?

A

37c

69
Q

What is the preferred temperature for fungi?

A

10c-35c

70
Q

Food preservation techniques:

How can the shelf-life of many foods be extended by using temperature?

A

The shelf-life of many foods can be extended by storing them below 5c in a refrigerator or freezer.

71
Q

What does refrigeration and freezing do?

A

Refrigeration and freezing slow the growth or microbes and the chemical reactions facilitated by enzymes that may cause the food to spoil.

72
Q

What can freezing also do to microbes?

A

Freezing can cause microbes to become ‘dormant’ due to a lack of available water, but does not kill them.
Freezing is generally regarded as the best long-term food preservation method when based on nutrient retention.

73
Q

what should you do what a food has been left out for:

a. under 2 hours
b. 2-4 hours
c. over four hours

A

a. Ok to use or refrigerate at 5c or less
b. ok to use straight away
c. throw away

74
Q

What is heat treatment, how do you make the food safe?

A

Generally, food can be made safe by heating it to high temperatures (above 60c) for specific times.

Generally, the higher the temperature, the shorter the time that is needed.

High temperatures can kill the microbes or damage the enzymes that cause food spoilage.

75
Q

What is pasteurisation?

A
  • Pasteurisation involves heating food (milk) to at least 72c for at least 15 seconds to kill harmful microbes, then cooling it rapidly to 5c
  • Pasteurisation does not kill all microbes, so pasteurised foods must still be kept in the refrigerator to slow remaining microbial growth
76
Q

How can thermal processing have a detrimental effect on the nutrients in most foods?

A

When foods are cooked at high temperatures over long periods of time, heat-sensitive nutrients (Vit B and C) are damaged.

Water soluble nutrients (B and C can also leech out of the foods during the heat treatment process eg during boiling of foods.

Some nutrients are improved by temperature (e.g lycopene – a pigment that gives tomatoes their red colour is linked to potentially providing protection agisnt some types of cancer)

77
Q

What is canning or bottling?

A
  • Involves sealing the food in a can or bottle, heading them to above 100c, removing as much air as possible and storing them for up to 2 years.
  • When food is heated, it typically expands. If the lid is added when the food is hot, as it cools it will contract, and create a vacuum, sealing the food
78
Q

All microbes have an optimum pH they can function in. What is a type of food preservation that involves pH?

A
  • Pickling is a type of food preservation used for thousands of years. The acidic conditions prevent most microbes from growing
79
Q

Are foods with high water content more or less likely to become contaminated?

A

Foods with water.

All cellular reactions require water. Foods which are naturally dry like crips and crackers rarely become contaminated. Foods which are moist will allow microbes to grow and reproduce

80
Q

What is the preservation technique of removing water from a food to increase its shelf life?

A

Dehydrating foods

81
Q

What does dehydrating foods do?

A

Food-spoiling microbes and enzymes need water to survive/live

If the water is removed from the food, they cannot survive to cause the food to spoil

Foods can be dehydrated to remove the moisture using sun-drying (e.g dried fruit), spray-drying (e.g powdered milk) or freeze drying (e.g coffee)

82
Q

What is salting/sugaring?

A

Salt can be added to foods to prevent the growth of microbes

Salting causes the water to leave the food and attach to the salt/sugar

The lack of available water prevents microbial growth

83
Q

Do microbes require oxygen?

A

Yes, many microbes require oxygen to produce energy via aerobic respiration. Some however can produce without oxygen via anerobic restoration. Some can do both depending don’t he environment they are in.

84
Q

When does food poisoning occur?

A

Food poisonin occurs when food becomes contaminated with pathogenic microbes. The most common source of contamination are from bacteria or the toxins they produce. Some viruses and fungi can also cause food poisoning

  • In south Australia food poisoning is a notifiable disease, which requires doctors and laboratories to notify SA health. This allows possible outbreaks to be traced
85
Q

Symptoms of food poisoning may include…

A
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Stomach pain
  • Diarrhoea
  • Feeling fatigue
  • Fever/chills
  • Headache
86
Q

There are hundreds of different salmonella bacterial species with only some harmful to humans. Where are they mainly found?

A

These pathogenic salmonella bacteria are found mainly in the intestines and faeces of humans and other animals

87
Q

How can salmonella poisoning be caused?

A

o Poor food handling practices (lack of hygiene)
o Seafood caught in polluted water
o Eggs with dirty shells (chicken poop)

88
Q

Where is Escherichia coli (E. Coli) bacteria found?

A

in the intestines of healthy people and animals.

89
Q

Is E. Coli harmless?

A

Most strains are harmless, or cause brief diarrhoea, however a few strains can cause sever symptoms including severe stomach cramps, bloody diarrhoea and vomiting. Toxins from the bacteria can also cause kidney failure and even death

90
Q

What are some sources of E. Coli?

A

o Minced meat (E. coli from cattle gut contaminates meat)
o Unpasteurised milk (E. Coli from cow udder contaminates milk)
o Fresh produce that is grown in close proximity to animals (e.g runoff from cattle farm)
o Contaminated water from human or animal waste
o Infected person passing it on to others due to poor personal hygiene

91
Q

Where is Listeria found?

A
  • Listeria monocytogenes is found in soil, water and animal faeces
92
Q

What are some food sources of Listeria?

A

o Unpasteurised milk
o Soft cheeses
o Cold cut meat
o Sprouts
o Cut melons (If listeria is on the transfers the bacteria onto the fruit)

93
Q

How is botulism caused?

A

Botulism is caused by the toxins produced by the bacterium Clostridium Botulinum.

94
Q

Where is the botulism bacteria found?

A

In soil and untreated water

95
Q

Is botulism dangerous?

A
  • Although relatively rare, foodborne botulism is a serious and potentially fatal disease. Botulinum toxins are neurotoxic, affecting the nervous system
96
Q

What are the spores produced by the bacteria resistant too?

A
  • Spores produced by the bacteria are heat-resistant and when in the absence of oxygen, germinate. As they reproduce they produce toxins. These conditions may occur in home-canned or bottled foods
97
Q

What are some symptoms of Botulism?

A
  • Symptoms include;
    o Double vision
    o Drooping eyelids
    o Slurred speech
    o Muscles weakness
98
Q

What are some things we should do during food preparation, cooking and storage?

A
  • Wash hands to ensure removal or microbes
  • Use separate chopping boards for raw meats
  • Food preparation area and utensils are clean
  • Foods to be used are within use by/best before dares
  • Foods have been stored appropriately (At shops, from shops, at home)
  • Defrosting food outside of the danger zone
  • Cook foods thoroughly and ensure temperatures 75c is reached
  • Poultry and minced meat and products
    (burgers, sausages) are cooked throughout
  • Reheating meals thoroughly
  • Cooked foods, must be cooled quickly prior to storage. A large batch of chicken soup will take a long time to cool and therefore be in the danger zone for a long period of time. Instead cool in a smaller container to speed up the process
  • Avoid re-freezing foods
  • Use the 2-hour/4-hour rule
99
Q

Food spoilage is usually identified visually…

A

Food spoilage is inedible due to changes to the expected colour, sell, flavour and consistency

Foods naturally spoil and decompose through reactions of enzymes

100
Q
A