Topic 11 - cranial pathology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three types of chiari malformation?

A
  • Type I – displacement of the elongated cerebellar tonsils below the foramen magnum; no medulla or fourth ventricle displacement.
  • Type II (most common) – displacement of cerebellum, tonsils, medulla and fourth ventricle into upper spinal canal, almost invariably associated with myelomeningocele and hydrocephalus; there may be multiple other associated intracranial anomalies.
  • Type III – displacement of a dysplastic cerebellum, the medulla, and fourth ventricle into a high encephalocele (cervical or occipital).
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2
Q

What are the signs of the dandy walker malformation?

A
  • Enlarged fourth ventricle connects to Dandy-Walker cyst posteriorly
  • Large posterior fossa
  • Hypoplastic cerebellar vermis
  • Hypoplastic cerebellar hemispheres displaced laterally by fourth ventricle
  • Small brainstem
  • Hydrocephalus (80%)
  • Obstruction above and below fourth ventricle
  • Absent or dysgenetic corpus callosum (up to 70%)
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3
Q

Describe the dandy walker variant

A

• Dandy Walker variant is characterised by less severe changes, with milder posterior fossa enlargement and fourth ventricle dilation. The cerebellum is minimally affected, the hemispheres essentially normal, and the vermis hypoplastic.

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4
Q

What are two differential diagnoses of posterior fossa cystic lesions that mimic Dandy-Walker syndrome?

A

A mega–cisterna magna is described as the mildest form of this spectrum and includes no mass effect, no hydrocephalus, and a normal cerebellar vermis, fourth ventricle, and cerebellar hemisphere
• A posterior fossa subarachnoid cyst can be differentiated from Dandy-Walker malformation or spectrum by the lack of communication of the cyst with the fourth ventricle. The normal fourth ventricle, vermis, and cerebellum are displaced by the arachnoid cyst

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5
Q

What are the ultrasound signs of agenesis of the corpus callosum?

A
  • the corpus callosum may be fully or partially absent.
  • The lateral ventricles will appear parallel and widely spaced, with slightly larger occipital horns.
  • The frontal horns demonstrate wide spacing and sharp angulation.
  • In the occipital and parietal region, the sulci and gyri are radially arranged, appearing perpendicular in relation to the roof of the third ventricle. (sunburst sign)
  • Absent cingulate gyrus and sulcus
  • Extremely narrow frontal horns (slitlike)
  • Colpocephaly (dilated atria and occipital horns)
  • Elevated third ventricle extending between lateral ventricles, continuous with
  • Absent septum pellucidum
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6
Q

Although there are different forms of holoprosencephaly what is common to all?

A

• The septum pellucidum is absent in all forms of holoprosencephaly

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7
Q

What are the three classifications of holoprosencephaly?

A

• (alobar, semilobar and lobar), each representing a different degree of fusion of the paired cerebral hemispheres, lateral ventricles, olfactory and optical tracts.

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8
Q

What is schizencephaly?

A
  • migrational anomaly
  • clefts form extending from the lateral ventricle to the cortical surface of the brain.
  • may be unilateral or bilateral, asymmetric or symmetric.
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9
Q

What is lissencephaly?

A

Complete lack of sulcal formation
recognized on ultrasound when the sulcal pattern does not match that expected for gestational age.
Hourglass or “figure 8” has been described as typical of the cortical surface.
The sylvian fissures are often open owing to failure of the opercularization process

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10
Q

Describe the sonographic appearances of the Chiari II malformation.

A
  • lateral ventricular enlargement with the occipital horns larger than the anterior horns (colpocephaly);
  • the frontal ventricular horns demonstrating a batwing configuration, with an anterior and inferior pointed configuration;
  • an enlarged massa intermedia filling almost the entirety of the third ventricle, which is also enlarged;
  • the fourth ventricle small or not visualised due to compression and displacement;
  • the pons, medulla and vermis elongated and, along with the fourth ventricle, inferiorly displaced.
  • involvement of the cerebellum in this downward displacement - inferiorly displaced into the cervical spinal canal;
  • widening of the interhemispheric fissure, and a serated, jagged appearance to the gyri; and
  • there may also be associated partial or complete absence of the corpus callosum.
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11
Q

In which congenital abnormality does one see the ‘sunburst sign’ and what is this describing?

A

The sunburst sign is seen in agenesis of the corpus callosum.
describes the appearance that the occipital and parietal gyri and sulci demonstrate with an absent or partially absent corpus callosum.
The gyri and sulci are seen to be radially arranged, and are perpendicular to the roof of the third ventricle, which is elevated.
It is this radial arrangement and the appearance that results on ultrasound that lends this sonographic finding to the name “sunburst sign”.

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12
Q

Describe haemorrhage in pre term infants

A
  • originates in the germinal matrix
  • which lines the entire ventricular system.
  • This highly vascular structure decreases in size from approximately 23-24 weeks gestation onwards
  • it completely disappears by approximately 36 weeks.
  • This developmental occurrence limits this condition to the premature infant.
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13
Q

Where is haemorrhage most commonly identified in the pre term infant?

A

the caudothalamic groove, which lies between the thalamus and the caudate nucleus head.

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14
Q

What are the different grades of pre term haemorrhage?

A
  • Grade I – subependymal (germinal matrix) haemorrhage only;
  • Grade II –germinal matrix and intraventricular hemorrhage without hydrocephalus;
  • Grade III – germinal matrix and intraventricular hemorrhage with ventricular enlargement
  • Grade IV – germinal matrix hemorrhage, intraventricular hemorrhage with or without ventricular enlargement, and intraparenchymal blood.
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15
Q

What is different about a grade 4 haemorrhage?

A

is the result of hemorrhagic cerebral infarction rather than direct extension of blood from the germinal matrix
hemorrhage obstructs the drainage of these small terminal veins causing venous hypertension and ultimately hemorrhagic infarction.

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16
Q

What are the ultrasound appearances of grade 1 GMH?

A
  • increased echogenicity immediately anterior to or within the caudothalamic groove.
  • may elevate the floor of the lateral ventricle, compressing or obliterating the frontal horn or body.
  • Doppler sonography can help in differentiating hemorrhage from the echogenic choroid plexus.
  • As the clot retracts, it undergoes central liquefaction, either completely resolving or forming a subependymal cyst.
  • Posthemorrhagic subependymal cysts usually measure between 3 and 5 mm in diameter
  • Subependymal cysts are not specific for hemorrhage.
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17
Q

What are the ultrasound appearances of grade 2 GMH?

A
  • results when the germinal matrix ruptures through the ependymal wall, entering the lateral ventricles
  • appears as echogenic material that fills part or all of a nondilated ventricular system
  • difficult to diagnose by sonography.
  • CSF– blood fluid level in the dependent part of the ventricle (i.e., the occipital horn or ventricular trigone)
  • Posterior fontanelle scanning facilitates the detection
  • the echogenic clot may adhere to the choroid plexus and be indistinguishable from it.
  • Asymmetric enlargement and irregularity of the choroid plexus and extension of the trigonal choroid plexus into the occipital horns are findings that favor intraventricular blood and clot adherent to the choroid plexus.
  • Color Doppler flow imaging also can be used to differentiate between clot and the choroid plexus.
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18
Q

What are the ultrasound appearances of grade 3 GMH?

A
  • expands one or both lateral ventricular cavities
  • blood may completely fill the ventricular cavity
  • A blood– cerebrospinal fluid level may be seen in the occipital horn.
  • Blood also may fill the third and fourth ventricles and the cavum septi pellucidi.
  • As the clot retracts, it can produce a “ventricle within a ventricle” appearance
  • Over time, the echogenic clot becomes hypoechoic and may resolve completely or persist as linear septations or bands.
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19
Q

What are the ultrasound appearances of a grade 4 GMH?

A
  • hemorrhagic infarction of the periventricular parenchyma
  • intraparenchymal hemorrhage (IPH) appears as an intensely echogenic focus with irregular margins in the parenchyma adjacent to one or both lateral ventricles
  • most common in the frontal and parietal lobes
  • usually unilateral and tends to be located on the same side as the germinal matrix intraventricular hemorrhage.
  • Similar to the other types of hemorrhages, the parenchymal clot liquefies and retracts over 2 to 4 weeks.
  • By 2 to 4 weeks following the injury, the clot retracts from the surrounding brain parenchyma, and by 2 to 3 months, a cystic area (encephalomalacia) develops
  • The encephalomalacic area can communicate with the ipsilateral ventricle, which often is dilated.
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20
Q

What are the multiple sites haemorrhage may arise from in the term infant?

A

Subarachnoid
Subdural
Choroid plexus
Parenchymal

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21
Q

How does sub arachnoid haemorrhage appear on ultrasound?

A
  • ultrasound is insensitive for small bleeds because the echogenicity of the blood and brain surface is similar
  • large bleeds will be seen as hypoechoic fluid collections over the brain surface.
  • There may be debris seen within the fluid, depending on the age of the bleed.
  • unilateral or bilateral fluid collections in the interhemispheric fissure, sylvian fissure, or subarachnoid cisterns or over the cerebral convexities.
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22
Q

What are the two types of sub dural haemorrhage?

A

Supra tentorial

Infra tentorial

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23
Q

How does a supratentorial subdural bleed appear on ultrasound?

A
•	supratentorial
- extra axial fluid collections
- a widened interhemispheric fissure
- flattening of the cortex surface
- possible mass effect flattening the ventricles
o	mass effect with flattening of gyri
o	and shift of midline structures
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24
Q

How does a infratentorial subdural bleed appear on ultrasound?

A

o fluid collection between the tentorium and the cerebellar hemisphere
o The fluid may cause mass effect, resulting in compression of the cerebellum, brainstem, and fourth ventricle, and it may silhouette the contours of these structures
o hydrocephalus results if the hematoma compresses the fourth ventricle or aqueduct.

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25
Q

How can subdural and sub arachnoid bleeds be differentiated?

A

the presence of small capillary vessels coursing through the haematoma in the setting of a subarachnoid bleed. Subdural fluid pushes the vessels against the cortex of the brain.

26
Q

Describe a choroid plexus bleed

A

more common in term than pre term
o enlarged choroid plexus with irregular, lobulated margins and loss of normal anterior tapering of the choroid plexus.
o Concomitant intraventricular hemorrhage or decreasing size of the choroid plexus on serial sonograms supports the diagnosis of hemorrhage.
o The normal lie and extent of the choroid plexus will be altered, often with extension of the choroid into the occipital horn of the lateral ventricles.

27
Q

Describe a parenchymal bleed in a term infant

A
  • Occurring most frequently as a result of birth trauma or ECMO
  • can also be the result of ischemia, hypotension, coagulation defects, vein of Galen malformation, hypertension, emboli, polycythemia, and extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO)
  • this type of haemorrhage is initially seen as a focal echogenic mass or a diffuse increase in the echogenicity of the gyri.
  • The region of haemorrhage will organise over time, demonstrating cystic changes (that is, encephalomalacia).
28
Q

Describe the sonographic appearances you would expect to encounter in a premature infant (born at 32 weeks gestation) with known haemorrhage. Previous ultrasounds have demonstrated parenchymal involvement. How would you classify this haemorrhage and include examples of other classifications?

A

consistent with a Germinal Matrix haemorrhage.
The parenchymal involvement indicates that this is a grade four classification.
sonographic appearances
- a focus of echogenic material extending throughout one or both of the lateral ventricles, with associated dilatation of the ventricular system.
- The periventricular brain tissue, adjacent to the affected ventricle, will demonstrate an irregular region of greatly increased echogenicity where the haemorrhage is involving the parenchyma.
- If a large haemorrhage is demonstrated there may be a mass effect on the cranial structures, causing displacement.
- Since this is a follow up scan, depending on the timing from the initial event, there may be cystic change demonstrated within the parenchymal region affected.

The other classifications of GMH include:
• Grade I, in which haemorrhage is demonstrated within the caudothalamic groove, or subependymal region.
• Grade II, in which clot extends into the ventricle, without causing ventricular obstruction and dilatation.
• Grade III, with ventricular extension of the haemorrhage and associated ventricular obstruction and dilatation.

29
Q

What is hypoxic ischaemic injury and what can cause it?

A
  • Results from a decrease in blood oxygenation from respiratory depression (hypoxia), and a decrease in cerebral blood flow (ischemia).
  • There are many predisposing factors including congenital heart disease, trauma, meningitis, and ECMO.
30
Q

How does patient age affect hypoxic ischaemic events?

A
  • will vary with patient age (preterm or term).
  • the watershed areas of the brain changes in location during the third trimester.
  • In preterm infants the watershed region involves the periventricular deep white matter.
  • In full term infants the watershed region becomes more peripheral, involving the cortical grey matter and subcortical white matter.
31
Q

What is PVL?

A

• Periventricular leukomalacia PVL is the most common presenting hypoxic-ischemic change in the watershed region of the premature infant.

32
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of periventricular leukomalacia?

A

hypotonia, seizures, and apneic or bradycardiac episodes.

33
Q

Where does periventricular leukomalacia most commonly occur?

A

in the periventricular parenchyma at the trigones of the lateral ventricles and at the frontal horns (level of foramen of Munro).

34
Q

How does periventricular leukomalacia appear on ultrasound?

A
  • usually bilateral
  • may be asymmetric or symmetric
  • characterised by an increase in echogenicity of the affected region (greater than echogenicity of choroid plexus) within the first two weeks following the event.
  • After two to three weeks the region of echogenicity will begin to demonstrate regions of cystic change or may resolve completely.
35
Q

How can PVL be confirmed?

A

if findings are not conclusive initially following the event, repeat the scan in a week or two and try to visualise cystic change to confirm diagnosis.

36
Q

What are the differentials for PVL?

A

Normal periventricular halo/blush

grade 4 gmh

37
Q

How can PVL and periventricular halo be differentiated on ultrasound?

A

o periventricular halo has ill-defined borders and an echogenicity less than that of the choroid plexus.
o PVL has better-defined borders and an echogenicity equal or greater than that of the choroid plexus.
o Posterior fontanelle scanning can help in differentiating the two conditions.
o The echogenicity of the periventricular halo will decrease, whereas the echogenicity of PVL will persist using the posterior fontanelle approach.

38
Q

How can PVL and grade 4 be differentiated on ultrasound?

A

o Grade 4 hemorrhage is unilateral or asymmetric and associated with IVH
o PVL is usually symmetric and may or may not be associated with IVH.
o The sequela of venous infarction is a large parenchymal cyst (i.e., area of encephalomalacia), whereas the result of PVL is multiple small cysts.

39
Q

What are the risk factors for ischaemic injury?

A

• Risk factors for intrapartum and peripartum ischemic injury
o include traumatic delivery, prolapse of the umbilical cord, abruptio placentae, and chorioamnionitis.
• Postnatal factors include
o severe respiratory distress, sepsis, and shock.

40
Q

What do infants with HII present with?

A

present with lethargy, irritability, jitteriness, hypotonia, and/or seizures

41
Q

How does cystic encephalomalacia appear on ultrasound?

A
  • A mild event/lesion may not be detectable on ultrasound.
  • A moderate – severe event will demonstrate a focal or diffuse increase in cortical echogenicity,
  • This finding decreases within one to two weeks.
  • These lesions will demonstrate cystic encephalomalacia (formation of area into a cyst as the tissue undergoes necrosis, and cavitation) over time.
  • Other findings include poorly defined gyral-sulcal interfaces and slit-like ventricles.
  • Slit-like ventricles are not specific for ischemia, and they are commonly seen as a normal finding in full-term infants
  • affected basal ganglia and thalamus appear echogenic
  • Focal hyperechogenicity can be globular or linear, paralleling the vessels, a pattern termed “lenticulostriate vasculopathy”
  • not specific for neonatal asphyxia
  • Late findings, 2 to 6 weeks after the insult, are similar to those seen in PVL and include ventriculomegaly, widened interhemispheric and sylvian fissures, and cystic encephalomalacia
  • Ventriculomegaly and enlarged extra-axial fluid spaces are the result of atrophic changes.
42
Q

Describe the sonographic appearances of PVL.

A
  • ischemic event
  • appearances vary with relation to time.
  • immediately after the event the brain may appear normal on ultrasound.
  • Within the first two weeks, regions of increased echogenicity may be demonstrated in the periventricular white matter region (watershed region)
  • These regions are usually bilateral, however can be asymmetric or symmetric in size and shape.
  • The most common sites affected are the frontal horns at the level of the foramen of munro and the trigones of the lateral ventricles.
  • It is possible however for the entire length of the periventricular parenchyma to be involved.

After a period of two - three weeks
• ischemic region begins to undergo necrosis and cavitation
• resulting in cystic regions forming within the affected parenchyma.
• This will be seen as small anechoic cysts within the area of increased echogenicity.
• Over a greater period of time the deep white matter will demonstrate thinning, and the ventricles will enlarge due to cerebral atrophy.
• There may also be associated widening of the interhemispheric fissure.

43
Q

What condition can mimic the appearances of PVL and how can this condition be differentiated from PVL?

A

The pitfall to be aware of when looking for PVL is the periventricular blush phenomenon.
• can easily mimick the appearances of PVL
• To distinguish between the two conditions
o note the echogenicity of the choroid plexus with relation to the area of increased echogenicity.
o If PVL is present it should demonstrate an echogenicity equal to or greater than that demonstrated by the choroid plexus.
o The blush artefact will be less echogenic than the choroid.
o If after this evaluation the findings are still inconclusive, a repeat scan can be performed after a sufficient period of time (~1-2 weeks), to assess for cystic change within the suspected region of ischemia. This will assist in confirming the diagnosis of PVL.

44
Q

How can stroke appear on ultrasound?

A

very rare
o an increase in parenchymal echogenicity along the distribution of the affected arterial segments
o loss of gyral and sulcal definition
o absent arterial pulsations.
o The oedema may result in a mass effect with associated midline shift, and possible ventricular compression.
o Colour Doppler shows increased flow in the parenchyma surrounding the region of infarction.

45
Q

What is ecmo?

A
  • Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation is a cardiopulmonary bypass technique to treat infants with respiratory failure when they are not responding to the conventional ventilator therapy.
  • Deoxygenated blood from the right atrium is bypassed to an external membrane for oxygenation and then returned oxygenated to the aorta.
  • The bypass is created by direct cannulation of the SVC or the right atrium and the aortic arch
46
Q

What is venous thrombosis and how does it appear?

A
  • results due to infection or dehydration most commonly
  • can also result from birth trauma and hypercoagulable conditions.
  • Thrombus, occurring in the sagittal sinus and larger deep veins with associated parenchymal infarction, can be identified using colour Doppler ultrasound.
47
Q

What are the two most common intracranial infections?

A

the TORCH complex and neonatal meningitis.

48
Q

What is TORCH complex?

A

toxoplasma gondii, rubella virus, cytomegalovirus (CMV), and herpes simplex type 2 virus (the ‘O” stands for ‘other’).

49
Q

How can cranial infections appear on ultrasound?

A
  • result in calcifications in specific regions within the brain.
  • Periventricular calcifications are commonly seen in CMV
  • basal ganglia and cortical calcifications are more common in toxoplasmosis, rubella, and herpes.
  • Herpes will also often demonstrate calcification in the periventricular white matter.
  • It must be noted that these appearances can overlap and are therefore not specific.
  • Ventricular septations have also been described
  • There may also be linear, branching areas of echogenicity within the thalami and basal ganglia.
  • This is termed mineralising vasculopathy, and the linear pattern seen follows the distribution of the lenticulostriate arteries.
  • Ventricular dilatation may be demonstrated.
50
Q

What are the most common complications of meningitis?

A
o	subdural empyemas or fluid collections
o	ventriculitis
o	venous sinus thrombosis
o	cerebral infarction
o	abscess formation.
51
Q

How can meningitis appear on ultrasound?

A

• Ventriculitis, another complication of meningitis seen in 60% to 95% of cases, is suggested by the sonographic findings of hydrocephalus, echogenic debris within the ventricles, increased echogenicity, or a shaggy ependymal lining or fibrous septa within the ventricles

52
Q

What is hydrocephalus?

A

• enlargement and dilatation of the ventricular system
• usually as a result of obstruction of the ventricular flow of CSF (cerebral spinal fluid)
• associated with increased intraventricular pressure
• can be categorised into two types:
o obstruction due to an intraventricular cause (non-communicating)
o obstruction due to an extraventricular cause (communicating)

53
Q

How do patients with hydrocephalus present?

A
  • a head circumference that is enlarging
  • other signs that the child is experiencing raised intracranial pressure.
  • It is important to note the child’s head circumference, because ventriculomegaly due to parenchymal loss is different to hydrocephalus, and does not result in an increase in head circumference.
54
Q

What are the causes of hydrocephalus?

A

• Overproduction of CSF from a choroid plexus papilloma is an unusual cause.
• Other causes include venous obstruction or vascular malformations; vein of Galen malformation often obstructs.
• The most common causes of intraventricular obstructive hydrocephalus (IVOH) include
o infection or hemorrhage (causing obstruction to the exiting foramina of the third or fourth ventricle)
o congenital anomalies (e.g., aqueductal stenosis, Dandy-Walker malformation)
o tumors.
• The most common causes of extraventricular obstructive hydrocephalus (EVOH) are
o hemorrhage and infection with fibrosis at the basal cisterns, incisura, convexity cisterns, or parasagittal region.

55
Q

What are the normal cystic structures of the brain?

A

o cavum septi pellucidi and vergae
o cavum veli interpositi
o frontal horn cysts
o cisterna magna

56
Q

Describe an arachnoid cyst

A
  • CSF collection between the layers of the arachnoid membrane
  • seen sonographically as an anechoic cystic structure which may displace adjacent structures or obtuct the ventricular system.
  • usually located in the middle cranial fossa
57
Q

What is a vein of galen aneurysm and how does it present?

A
  • dilation of the vein of Galen caused by a vascular malformation
  • Infants with large shunts usually are presented in the first month of life with congestive heart failure.
  • In later childhood, smaller shunts manifest with seizure, cranial bruit, hydrocephalus, and cardiomegaly.
58
Q

How does a vein of galen aneurysm appear on ultrasound?

A
  • anechoic cystic mass between the lateral ventricles
  • posterior to the foramen of Monro, superior to the third ventricle, and primarily in the midline.
  • large feeding vessel.
  • blood flow filling the mass confirming the diagnosis.
  • Hydrocephalus may or may not be present.
  • Calcification may occur, especially if there is thrombosis in the malformation
59
Q

What is important to note when a tumour is detected on ultrasound

A

• the location, size, vascular nature, and extent of the lesion.
any complications that may be occurring as a direct result, for example, hydrocephalus.

60
Q

Why can tumour be a tricky diagnosis?

A
  • because hemorrhage is so much more common than tumor in newborns, it may be extremely difficult to differentiate a simple hematoma from a tumor
  • Spectral and color Doppler imaging can identify vascular components of the tumor
61
Q

What are some markers for TORCH and T18?

A

bilateral hydrocephalus

lines of increased echogencity on the periphery of the thalamus.