Topic 10 Using Resources Flashcards

1
Q

1) Give one property of glass that makes it suitable for windows.

A

1) E.g. it is (generally) transparent

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2
Q

2) What are the three substances used to make soda-lime glass?

A

2) Limestone, sand and sodium carbonate (soda)

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3
Q

3) What are the two substances used to make borosilicate glass?

A

3) Sand and boron trioxide

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4
Q

4) Give one use of clay ceramics.

A

E.g. pottery / bricks

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5
Q

5) Describe two properties of ceramics.

A

5) There are a few properties you could pick here, e.g. high melting points, hard, brittle.

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6
Q

6) Suggest why most lab glassware is made from borosilicate glass, rather than soda-lime glass.

A

6) Borosilicate glass has a higher melting point than soda-lime glass, so is more suitable for use in experiments that reach high temperatures because there’s less chance the glassware will melt.

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7
Q

7) Thomas has some clay. He decides to make a 10-foot statue of Dmitri Mendeleev for his garden. How would the properties of clay allow him to do this?

A

7) Clay is soft, so it can be moulded into the shape of Mendeleev. Clay hardens when fired at high temperatures so, when Thomas is happy with the shape, he can fire it to form a hard, clay ceramic that will maintain its shape.

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8
Q

1) Which of the following is a composite?
A. Wood
B. Aluminium
C. Steel
D. Peanut butter

A

1) Wood

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9
Q

2) Give another example of a composite. What is it made from?

A

2) E.g. fibreglass (made from glass and plastic/a polymer) / carbon fibre (made from chains of carbon atoms, or carbon nanotubes, and a polymer) /concrete (made from a sand and gravel aggregate and cement).

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10
Q

3) Explain what is meant by the term ‘matrix’ in a composite.

A

3) The material that surrounds the fibres or fragments of the other material in the composite, acting as a binder.

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11
Q

4) Explain what is meant by the term ‘reinforcement’ in a composite.

A

4) The fibres or fragments of a material that are embedded in the matrix/binder.

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12
Q

5) Suggest a composite that could be used to build a pavement. Explain why it is suited to this purpose.

A

5) E.g. concrete, because it is very strong.

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13
Q

6) Composite E is made by embedding carbon nanotubes in a polymer. The polymer is strong, heat-resistant, lightweight and brittle. The carbon nanotubes are very strong and stiff, and have a low density. Suggest why these two materials might be combined together in this way, and suggest a use for composite E.

A

6) E.g. the polymer is brittle, so embedding the strong carbon nanotubes in it will make it more durable. The carbon nanotubes have a low density, so they can be added to the polymer without increasing its weight too much. A composite like this could be used in e.g. sports car/aerospace manufacturing.

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14
Q

1) What are the conditions needed to make low density poly(ethene) from ethene?

A

1) Moderate temperature and high pressure.

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15
Q

2) What happens when a thermosoftening polymer is heated?

A

2) It melts.

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16
Q

3) What is high density poly(ethene) used for?

A

3) E.g. making water tanks/drainpipes.

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17
Q

4) Explain why low density poly(ethene) is a more suitable material for plastic bags than high density poly(ethene).

A

4) It is flexible, whereas high density poly(ethene) is more rigid.

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18
Q

5) Jasveer says “the properties of a polymer are only influenced by the conditions it was made under”.
Do you agree with her statement? Explain your answer.

A

5) Disagree. Although the conditions a polymer is made under do influence the polymer’s properties also depend on the monomers it is made from.
its properties.

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19
Q

6) Describe the structure and bonding in a thermosoftening polymer.

A

6) Polymer chains (containing covalently-bonded atoms) entwined together with weak intermolecular forces between the chains.

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20
Q

7) Why are thermosetting polymers rigid?

A

7) Thermosetting polymers contain monomers that can form cross-links between the polymer chains, holding the chains together in a solid, rigid structure.

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21
Q

Which of the following can conduct heat?

a. glass
b. ploymers
c. metals
d. clay ceramics

A

1) Metals

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22
Q

3) Explain why composites are versatile materials.

A

3) The properties of composites depend on the materials used for their matrix and reinforcement. So they can have a wide range of properties, depending on the materials that make them up.

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23
Q

4) What are the advantages of using ceramic clay to make a garden plant pot, rather than low density poly(ethene)?

A

4) E.g. ceramic clay is stiffer and heavier than low density poly(ethene) (which is flexible and lightweight). Therefore ceramic clay would make a sturdier plant pot that would maintain
its shape.

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24
Q

5) Give two reasons why metals are good materials for use in
electrical wiring.

A

5) E.g. metals can conduct electricity. They are also ductile, so can be drawn out into wires without breaking.

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25
Q

6) Fibreglass is a composite made from fibres of glass embedded in a matrix made of polymer. Explain why fibreglass is used to make skis and surfboards.

A

6) Fibreglass is flexible and has low density, because of the plastic matrix. It is also very strong, because of the glass reinforcement.

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26
Q

1) Bronze is an alloy of which two metals?

A

Copper and tin

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27
Q

2) What name is given to the alloy formed from copper and zinc?

A

2) Brass

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28
Q

Give a use for stainless steel. Why is it used for this?

A

E.g. cutlery, because it is hard and corrosion-resistant.

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29
Q

4) Gold alloys are used to make jewellery. What unit of measurement is used to describe the proportion of gold in an alloy? What is the highest value on this scale?

A

4) Carat. 24 carat gold is the largest proportion of gold you can have (it is 100% gold).

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30
Q

5) Suggest why alloys of aluminium are used in the aircraft industry, rather than pure aluminium.

A

5) E.g. aluminium metal has a low density, but is too soft for making aeroplanes. Aluminium alloys also have a low density, but are a lot stronger than pure aluminium.

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31
Q

6) Explain how the level of carbon in steel affects its properties. Suggest one use for low carbon steel, and one use for high carbon steel.

A

6) Low carbon steels are softer and more easily shaped.

Higher amounts of carbon in the steel makes it stronger, but more brittle.

One example of a use of low carbon steel is in car bodies.

One example of a use of high carbon steel is in bridges.

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32
Q

1) What is corrosion?

A

1) The destruction of materials by chemical reactions with substances in the environment.

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33
Q

2) True or false? Corrosion only occurs on the surface of a metal.

A

2) True. The surface of a metal is the only bit which is exposed to the environment, so it is the only bit that can corrode.

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34
Q

3) Tinashe has an iron weather vane on his house. Suggest two things that could be done to prevent the weather vane rusting.

A

3) Take your pick from: e.g. paint or coat it in plastic / electroplate it / place it with a more reactive metal for sacrificial protection / galvanise it with zinc.

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35
Q

4) Mystic Melanie accidentally teleports her iron key into an airless container of water. Will the key rust? Explain your answer.

A

4) The key will not rust. Both water and oxygen must be present in order for iron to rust.

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36
Q

5) Explain what is meant by “sacrificial protection”.

A

5) Sacrificial protection involves coating/placing the material with a more reactive metal, so that water and oxygen will react with that instead of the material being protected.

37
Q

6) Forgetful Frank leaves a rod of iron and a rod of aluminium in an open pool of water for a long time. When he returns, he notices that the mass of the iron rod has decreased, but the mass of the aluminium rod has increased. Explain these observations.

A

6) When iron rusts, it produces a soft, crumbly solid that soon flakes away. This leaves more iron available to rust again, so the process continues and the iron is slowly destroyed, reducing its mass. When aluminium corrodes, it forms a layer of aluminium oxide on the surface that doesn’t flake away. Because oxygen is gained, the mass increases.

38
Q

1) What is meant by the term “finite resources”? Give an example of one.

A

1) E.g. finite (non-renewable) resources are resources that can’t be formed quickly enough to be considered replaceable. For example, fossil fuels, nuclear fuels, minerals and metal ores.

39
Q

2) What is meant by the term “natural resource”?

A

2) E.g. a natural resource is a resource that forms without human input, such as cotton or oil.

40
Q

3) Give an example of a natural resource that has been replaced by a man-made product or process. What has replaced it?

A

3)
E.g. rubber. It has been replaced by man-made polymers.

40
Q

3) Give an example of a natural resource that has been replaced by a man-made product or process. What has replaced it?

A

3)
E.g. rubber. It has been replaced by man-made polymers.

41
Q

3) Give an example of a natural resource that has been replaced by a man-made product or process. What has replaced it?

A

3)
E.g. rubber. It has been replaced by man-made polymers.

42
Q

4) Describe one advantage and one disadvantage of extracting finite resources.

A

4) Advantages: e.g. can make a wide range of useful products from them / provides jobs and brings money to areas where it is being extracted. Disadvantages: e.g. destroys habitats / uses lots of energy / generates waste / uses up materials that might be needed later.

43
Q

5) Matthew says “all natural resources are finite resources”. Cathy says “all natural resources must be renewable, because they come from the Earth”.
Which, if either, of them is correct?

A

5) Neither Matthew nor Cathy are correct. There are some renewable natural resources, such as timber (wood), and there are some finite natural resources, such as fossil fuels.

44
Q

6) A company is choosing a resource from which to make a new product. Resource A takes 10² years to form. Resource B takes 10* years to form.
From this information, which resource is the more sustainable choice?
What is the difference, in years, between the times it takes the resources to form?

A

6) Resource A is more sustainable, because it will be replaced in the least amount of time.

The difference is 104 - 10²= 10,000 - 100 = 900 years

45
Q

1) How are metals usually recycled?

A

1) Melting them and then recasting them into the shape of the new product.

46
Q

2) What is “sustainable development”?

A

2) Sustainable development is an approach to development that meets the needs of present society while not damaging the lives of future generations.

47
Q

3) How can scrap steel help to reduce the amount of iron that needs to be extracted from iron ore?

A

3) Scrap steel contains iron, so it can be added to a blast furnace in place of iron ore during the extraction of iron, to reduce the amount of iron ore required.

48
Q

4) Sophie buys a lot of glass bottles. Suggest two things Sophie could do to reduce the amount of glass waste she produces.

A

4) E.g. she could reuse the glass bottles, so that she doesn’t have to buy as many. She could also recycle the glass, so that it doesn’t go to landfill sites.

49
Q

5) Suggest one way in which chemists can help to reduce damage to the environment caused by the demand for finite resources.

A

5) E.g. by developing catalysts so less energy/fuel is needed for industrial processes.

50
Q

6) Explain why recycling metals is better for the environment than extracting them from ores.

A

6) E.g. extracting metals from ores requires more energy than recycling them. This energy often comes from fossil fuels, which release greenhouse gases and pollutants. This can lead to negative effects like climate change and acid rain. Extracting metals also produces more

51
Q

1) True or false? Bioleaching and phytomining are better for the environment than traditional mining methods because they produce copper that does not need to be processed.

A

1) False. Bioleaching and phytomining do have a smaller impact on the environment than mining, however they still produce copper that needs to be processed.

52
Q

2) In bioleaching, what is meant by the term “leachate”?

A

2) The copper-containing solution that is produced from the ore.

53
Q

3) Describe how bioleaching works.

A

3) Bioleaching uses bacteria to convert metal ores into soluble compounds, separating the metal from the ore. The solution produced (the leachate) contains metal ions, which can be extracted by displacement or electrolysis.

54
Q

4) Describe how phytomining works.

A

4) Phytomining involves growing plants in soil that contains metal compounds. The plants absorb the metal compounds, so the metal gradually builds up in the leaves of the plant. The plants can then be harvested, dried and burned in a furnace. The ash contains soluble metal compounds from which the metal can be extracted by displacement or electrolysis.

55
Q

5) Suggest two reasons why scientists might want to investigate new methods to extract copper metal.

A

5) Here are a few possible answers: copper is valuable / copper ores are becoming scarce, so methods for extracting copper from low-grade ores are required to meet demand /
copper mining is damaging to the environment / copper mining uses a lot of energy.

56
Q

6) Suggest one disadvantage of phytomining, compared to bioleaching.

A

6) E.g. carbon dioxide will be released when the plants are burnt, which could
contribute towards climate change and global warming.

57
Q

1) What is a life cycle assessment (LCA)?

A

1) A study carried out to estimate the environmental impact of a product across its whole life cycle.

58
Q

2) What are the four stages of a product’s life that a LCA considers?

A

2) Extracting and processing raw materials, manufacturing and packaging, use and operation, disposal.

59
Q

3) The table on the right shows part of an LCA for plastic and paper shopping bags.
Explain how this information could be used to support a conclusion that paper bags are better for the environment than plastic bags.

A

3) Paper bags are made from timber, which is a renewable resource, whereas plastic bags are made from non-renewable crude oil. Therefore making paper bags saves limited finite resources. Paper bags are also biodegradable, unlike plastic bags, so won’t take up space in landfill or pollute land when they’re disposed of.

60
Q

4) What difficulties are associated with carrying out an LCA?

A

4) Many aspects of an LCA are difficult to quantify, for example, the exact amount of pollutants released, or the unsightliness of waste. Also, LCAs are not objective — they take into account the values of the person carrying them out, so they can be biased.

61
Q

5) How can companies misuse LCAs to their advantage?

A

5) Companies can use selective LCAS, which only show some of the impacts of a product on the environment. These can be deliberately written to support the claims of the company,
in order to give them positive advertising.

62
Q

1) Define potable water.

A

1) Water that is safe to drink.

63
Q
  1. Name three sterilising agents for water.
A

2) E.g. chlorine gas, ozone, ultraviolet light

64
Q

3) True or false? Rain is a type of fresh water.

A

3) True

65
Q

4) Describe the general process for the treatment of fresh water. Explain why each step is necessary.

A

4) Fresh water is filtered, to remove any solid bits. The water is then sterilised to kill any harmful microbes or bacteria.

66
Q

5) Why is it preferable to produce potable water from fresh water, rather than from sea water?

A

5) The desalination of salt water is a very energy-intensive process, which makes it expensive and not practical for producing large quantities of potable water.

67
Q

6) Describe how distillation can be used to desalinate sea water.
What is an alternative method that could be used?

A

6) Sea water is heated in a flask beneath a condenser. The water boils, forming steam and leaving behind any dissolved salts in the flask. The steam passes through the condenser and turns back into liquid water, which is collected. An alternative method is reverse osmosis.

68
Q

1) Describe two sources of waste water.

A

1) E.g. household waste / agriculture / industrial processes

69
Q

2) What are the four stages of waste water treatment?

A

2) Screening, sedimentation, aerobic digestion and anaerobic digestion.

70
Q

3) What is removed from the water during the first step of sewage treatment?

A

3) Large bits of material, like twigs and plastic bags, and grit.

71
Q

4) What is the difference between effluent and sludge? How are each of them broken down?

A

4) Sludge is made up of heavier substances than effluent, so sinks to the bottom of the tank during sedimentation. Effluent is water with lighter particles suspended in it, so it floats on the top. Sludge is broken down by bacteria during anaerobic digestion. Effluent is broken down by bacteria during aerobic digestion.

72
Q

5) Why might additional stages of treatment be required for some samples of water?

A

5) If the water contains toxic substances, then additional treatment might be required.

73
Q

6) Why is it easier to obtain potable water from fresh water than from waste water?

A

6) Fewer processes are required with fresh water.

74
Q

7) Give one argument for obtaining potable water from the treatment of waste water, rather than the desalination of salt water. Why might people be against this idea?

A

7) E.g. the treatment of waste water uses less energy than the desalination of salt water.
However people might not like the idea of drinking water that used to be sewage. How lovely a whole card on waste.

75
Q

1) What is the balanced symbol equation for the reaction in the Haber process?

A

1) N₂ (g) + 3H₂ (g) + 2NH3(₂) (+ heat)

76
Q

2) The Haber process is a reversible reaction.
Why does this make it difficult to obtain a high yield of product?

A

2) The reaction can go in both directions, so some of the ammonia produced breaks down into nitrogen and hydrogen again.

77
Q

3) Where does the hydrogen used in the Haber process come from?

A

3) E.g. reacting methane (from natural gas) with steam to form hydrogen and carbon dioxide 4) A catalyst would have no effect on the yield. Catalysts increase the rate of reaction, not the yield (because they increase the rate of the forward and backward reactions equally).

78
Q

4) A company that uses the Haber process wants to improve their product yield.
One scientist suggests using an iron catalyst. Explain the effect would if any,
on the percentage yield of the Haber process.

A

5) Increasing pressure would increase the rate of the Haber process. This is because there would be more reactant molecules per unit volume, so collisions would be more frequent.

79
Q

5) Explain the effect of increasing pressure on the rate of the Haber process.

A

5) Increasing pressure would increase the rate of the Haber process. This is because there would be more reactant molecules per unit volume, so collisions would be more frequent.

80
Q

6) The forward reaction in the Haber process is exothermic. The process is carried out at a temperature of 450 °C. Explain why the choice of temperature for the Haber process is often called a compromise.

A

6) The forward reaction of the Haber process is exothermic. Therefore low temperatures
are required to shift the equilibrium to favour the forward reaction and give a high yield of ammonia. However, if the temperature is too low then the rate of reaction is very slow, so a compromise temperature of 450 °C is used to achieve a decent yield at a good rate.

81
Q

1) NPK fertilisers contain compounds of which three elements?

A

1)
Nitrogen, phosphorous and potassium

82
Q

2) What are the reactants in the production of ammonium nitrate?

A

2) Ammonia and nitric acid

83
Q

3) How is potassium chloride obtained?

A

3) It is mined.

84
Q

4) What products are formed when phosphate rock reacts with nitric acid?

A

4) Phosphoric acid and calcium nitrate

85
Q

5) Why is ammonium nitrate a particularly good fertiliser?

A

5) It contains nitrogen from two sources (its formula is NH4NO3).

86
Q

6) In industry, ammonium nitrate is produced on a large scale using high concentrations of reactants that give a highly exothermic reaction. In the lab, a smaller scale is used with lower concentrations of reactants. Suggest an explanation for these differences.

A

6) E.g. using a lower concentration of reactants in the lab means a less exothermic reaction occurs, which makes the process safer for an individual to carry out. / Industry needs a larger scale to meet demand/maximise profits.

87
Q

7) Explain how fertilisers increase the productivity of farming.

A

7) Fertilisers increase and replenish the nutrients in the soil that plants need to grow. This means crops can be grown on the same land every year, and can grow faster and bigger.

88
Q

8) Suggest an advantage of using formulated fertilisers instead of manure.

A

8) E.g. formulated fertilisers are more widely available / easier to use have just enough of each nutrient.