Topic 10 (Post-transcriptional Regulation) Flashcards

1
Q

What is cis splicing?

A

The synthesis of a mature RNA from combining exons that were on the same pre-RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is trans splicing?

A

The synthesis of a mature RNA from combining exons that originated from different pre-RNAs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the relationship between organism complexity and number of introns per gene?

A

Positive linear relationship

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where in the cell does splicing occur?

A

Nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When does splicing occur? How is the spliceosome recruited?

A

While RNA is still transcribing the pre-RNA; spliceosome recruited to pre-RNA by phosphorylated RNA C-term tail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the GU-AG rule

A

All introns start with 5’-GU and end in AG-3’, which is an absolute requirement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the absolute requirements for the splicing consensus sequence?

A
  • GU/AG
  • branch site
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Is the sequence of the branch site well-conserved? How long is it?

A

No, it’s highly variable; 7 nt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which nucleotide is key within the branch sequence?

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The 5’ splice site is referred to as the:

A

Donor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The 3’ splice site is referred to as the:

A

Acceptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the polypyrimidine tract? Where is it located?

A

Length of consecutive pyrimidines before the AG of the 3’ splice site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the steps of splicing

A

First transesterification
1. 5’ end of the G (in 5’-GU) is attacked by the 2’ OH of the adenine in the branch site (nucleophilic attack)
2. Existing phosphodiester linkage is broken and a 3-way junction is formed
Second transesterification
3. 3’-OH of the spliced exon attacks the 5’ phosphate of the other exon
4. Intron lariat and spliced exons are released

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why is the intron lariat rapidly degrated?

A

It lacks a 5’ cap and poly A tail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a transesterification?

A

A reaction that breaks and makes chemical bonds in a coordinated transfer so that it is energetically neutral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

True/False? Splicing requires energy

A

False. Energetically neutral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why can’t DNA be spliced?

A

It lacks the 2’OH RNA has

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What bond is formed when the three-way junction is made?

A

2’-5’ bond between the 5’ end of the intron and 2’ end of the A in the branch site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe the ways in which trans-splicing differs from cis-splicing

A

Doesn’t differ except for the formation of a Y-shaped branch instead of a 3-way junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is snRNA?

A

Small nuclear RNA 100-300nt long. Locates the sequence elements at the intron-exon borders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is snRNP?

A

Small nuclear ribonucleoprotein (catalytic subunit). Contains one strand of snRNA and multiple proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the spliceosome made of?

A

snRNP particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the major roles of snRNPs?

A
  • recognize the 5’ and 3’ spice sites and branch site
  • catalyze the 5’ splice site cleavage and joining with the branch site
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the function of U1?

A

Base pairs its snRNA fragment with the 5’ splice site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the function of U2?

A

Base pairs its snRNA fragment with the branch site, but creates a bulge at the A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the function of U6?

A

Base pairs its snRNA fragment with the 5’ splice site at a later time than U1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the function of BBP?

A

Binds to branch site and is later displaced by U2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Describe the assembly of the spliceosome

A

E (early) Complex
1. U1 snRNP recognizes and binds 5’ splice site
2. U2AF65 subunits bind to the polypyrimidine tract and interact with BBP, which is bound to the branch site
3. U2AF35 subunit binds to the 3’ splice site
A Complex
4. U2 snRNP recruits to the branch site and displaces BBP
5. Unpaired A can interact with the 5’ splice site
B Complex
6. Association of U4, U5, U6, and tri-snRNP particle (bridge U1 and U2, forming a U-shaped structure with the RNA)
7. Displacement of the U1-snRNP
8. U6 replaces U1 at the 5’ splice site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Describe the formation of the catalytic complex

A
  1. U4 is released
  2. U2 and U6 pair to form an active site juxtaposed to the 5’ splice site and the branch site, facilitating the first transesterification
  3. U5-snRNP facilitates the second transesterification
  4. Release of the mRNA and snRNPs
  5. Degradation of the lariat RNA and recycling of the snRNPs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the three types of intron splicing?

A
  1. Pre-mRNA spliceosome
  2. Group II self-splicing
  3. Group I self-splicing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the main difference between using the spliceosome vs. group I and II splicing?

A

Spliceosome must be in-vivo. Group I and II may be in-vivo or in-vitro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Group II self-splicing

A

See card 13 (same process) (forms a lariat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Group I self-splicing

A

3’OH of G within branch site attacks 3’ end of donor site, 3’OH end of donor site attacks 5’ end of acceptor site. No lariat is formed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the common properties between all three types of introns?

A
  • use two transesterifications (energetically neutral)
  • RNAs are catalytic
35
Q

What are group I and II splicing found in?

A

Some bacteria, not higher eukaryotes

36
Q

Why is group II splicing believed to be ancestral of the spliceosomal pathway?

A
  • use the same splicing pathway and both generate a lariat intermediate
  • have equivalent domains (D5 and U2/U6. D6 and U2-branch site pairing
37
Q

What is common between group I and II splicing?

A

Both self-splicing

38
Q

What is exon skipping?

A

One or more exons are spliced out with the introns

39
Q

What is pseudo splice-site selection?

A

Mistakenly chosen due to the loose consensus sequence of the splice site. The end of an exon is spliced out

40
Q

What are the methods used by spliceosomes to ensure accurate splice site recognition?

A
  • formation of an active site by sequential recognition of snRNPs
  • co-transcriptional loading process via the RNA Pol II C-terminal tail to facilitate the recognition of the 3’ splice site
  • SR (serine arginine-rich) proteins bind to ESE sequence to recruit the splicing machinery to nearby correct sites (set the boundaries of splicing)
41
Q

What does ESE stand for?

A

Exonic splicing enhancer

42
Q

Binding of ____ proteins to the ESEs has what function?

A

SR; marks the correct splice site and facilitates the recruitment of U1 to the 5’ site and U2AF to the 3’ site

43
Q

What are the hypotheses for when SR protein binding to ESE aids in splicing?

A
  • direct interaction btw SR and spliceosomal subunits
  • SR-spliceosome interaction may stabilize the RNA:RNA hybrids formed during spliceosome assembly
44
Q

Explain how the minor spliceosome works

A

Uses typical spliceosome machinery, except it recognizes 5’-AU/AC-3’ intron sequences using U11 and U12, respectively. (5’-GU/AG-3’ recognized by U1 and U2AF65/35 in typical cases)

45
Q

What does alternative splicing produce?

A

Isoforms of mRNA that contain different selections of exons given from a pre-mRNA

46
Q

What is the exon makeup of alpha-troponin T?

A

1, 2, 3, 5

47
Q

What is the exon makeup of beta-troponin T?

A

1, 2, 4, 5

48
Q

Explain splicing in human troponin T gene

A

May be alternatively spliced via exon skipping to produce alpha or beta troponin T

49
Q

What is commonly found in an alternatively spliced exon? Why?

A

Stop codon; produces a truncated, nonfunctional product (for turning off gene function)

50
Q

List the five ways alternative splicing may occur

A
  • normal splicing
  • exon skipping
  • exon extension (part of an intron)
  • intron retention (full intron)
  • alternative exons (type of exon skipping)
51
Q

What determines quantity of different splicing products?

A

Competition between splicing factors

52
Q

What are the different protein products of SV40 splicing? What kind of alternative splicing is used?

A

Small “t” antigen and large “T” antigen; exon extension

53
Q

Where is the 5’ SST splice site found in SV40?

A

3’ end of exon 1 (5’ end of the entire intron)

54
Q

Where is the 5’ sst splice site found in SV40?

A

Within the intron

55
Q

Where is the 3’ SST splice site found in SV40?

A

5’ end of exon 2 (3’ end of the entire intron)

56
Q

Describe what happens in SV40 when the 5’ sst and 3’ SST are used in splicing

A

A larger transcript is synthesized (exon extension) that has a stop codon embedded within it. Translation ends at this stop codon (exon 2 is not translated) and produces the small “t” antibody

57
Q

Small “t’ antigen causes:

A

Apoptosis is blocked

58
Q

Describe what happens in SV40 when the 5’ SST and 3’ SST are used in splicing

A

Intron is fully spliced out, so a smaller transcript is synthesized. Translation of the 2 exons results in the large “T” antibody

59
Q

Large “T” antibody causes:

A

Transformation and cell cycle re-entry

60
Q

The ratio of t to T antibodies is regulated by:

A

Splicing regulators (SR) SF2/ASF

61
Q

Describe how a repressor prevents splicing

A

Binds to RNA using an RNA-recognition motif (RRM) and physically blocks the spliceosome from binding

62
Q

Describe how an activator allows splicing

A

Binds to RNA using an RNA-recognition motif (RRM) and interacts with the spliceosome with an arginine and serine rich domain (RS domain), which facilitates spliceosome binding

63
Q

Expression if Sxl is _______ in females and _______ in males

A

Activated; repressed

64
Q

If two X chromosomes are present (Drosophila), what happens to Sxl expression?

A

Sis-a and Sis-b are transcribed and translated into SisA and SisB, which turn the Pe promoter on (Sxl transcription)

65
Q

If one X chromosome is present (Drosophila), what happens to Sxl expression?

A

Dpn inhibits Pe, so Sxl is not transcribed

66
Q

Is Dpn only present in male Drosophila? If not, why do we see Sxl expression in females?

A

No. It is transcribed from an autosome that males and females share; SisA and SisB outcompete Dpn for Pe

67
Q

What kind of splicing does Sxl undergo?

A

Alternative splicing through autoregulation (Sxl protein regulates pre-mRNA splicing)

68
Q

Explain what happens in the presence/absence of Sxl in D. melanogaster

A

Presence: Sxl alternatively splices tra gene. Tra splices dsx gene to make the female Dsx (represses male genes and promotes female development)
Absence: no transcription and translation of sxl and tra, so no functional proteins emerge. dsx is not spliced by Tra, so male Dsx is made (represses female genes)

69
Q

What are iPS cells?

A

Induced pluripotent stem cells

70
Q

How are iPS cells made?

A

Terminally differentiated cells are reprogrammed (dedifferentiated) and differentiated into new cell types

71
Q

Alternative splicing of FOXP1 gene may result in:

A

FOXP1-ES (stimulates pluripotency) or FOXP1 (stimulates differentiation)

72
Q

What is the early intron model?

A

Initially, introns were present in all organisms, but primitive organisms had selective pressure to increase the rate of chromosome replication and cell division, so lost them

73
Q

What is the late intron model?

A

Introns were inserted into genes that previously had no introns (derived character)

74
Q

Why are so many introns found in multicellular organisms?

A
  • generate multiple protein products from a single pre-RNA
  • create “new genes” by reshuffling exons
75
Q

Each exon encodes:

A

A protein domain with an independent function

76
Q

What is the hypothesis for the creation of the LDL receptor gene?

A

C9 and EGF precursor genes were shuffled together to create a new gene with properties from both

77
Q

What is RNA editing?

A

Changes the RNA sequence post-transcriptionally, so the protein translated is different than what the gene sequence originally encoded for

78
Q

In what three ways may RNA be edited?

A
  • deamination of C into U by cytidine deaminase
  • deamination of A into I by ADAR
  • uridine insertion
79
Q

Deamination of ____ in APOB occurs in ________ cells, causing a _________ protein due to the encoding of a __________

A

C; intestinal; truncated; stop codon (CAA to UAA)

80
Q

Is RNA editing in APOB random?

A

No, it occurs at a specific C

81
Q

Inosine is interpreted as ____ by translational machinery

A

G

82
Q

Where does A deamination via RNA editing most commonly occur?

A

Nervous system

83
Q

Describe uridine insertion in trypanosome coxII

A

Multiple U’s are inserted into specific regions of mRNAs after transcription, changing the codon and therefore the protein product

84
Q

Describe nuclear export as a post-transcriptional modification

A

Some proteins coating mRNA are shed and recycled into the nucleus upon export. Export is regulated so that RNAS are not exported prematurely