Topic 1 - Control Systems Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the 3 main roles of the kidney?

A
  • Remove urea from blood; urea produced in liver from breakdown of excess amino acids
  • Adjust ion levels in blood
  • Adjust water content of blood
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2
Q

What are the 3 main processes that happen in the nephrons in the kidney?

A
  • Ultrafiltration
  • Reabsorption
  • Release of waste
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3
Q

How do the nephrons in the kidney undergo ultrafiltration?

A
  • High pressure built up, squeezing out water, urea, ions, glucose out of blood to Bowman’s capsule
  • Glomerulus + Bowman’s capsule act like filters, big molecules like proteins + blood cells stay in blood (not squeezed out)
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4
Q

How do the nephrons in the kidney undergo reabsorption?

A
  • All glucose is selectively reabsorbed (moved out of nephron back into blood against concentration gradient)
  • Sufficient water is reabsorbed by how much ADH hormone present
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5
Q

What is the process that maintains a constant water level in the body?

A

Osmoregulation

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6
Q

What are the blood vessels going into and out of the nephron for filtration?

A
  • Renal artery in

- Renal vein out

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7
Q

How do the nephrons in the kidney release wastes?

A
  • Urea + excess water not reabsorbed

- Continue out of nephron, into ureter + to bladder as urine

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8
Q

Where is urine released from?

A

Urethra

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9
Q

What does ADH stand for (hormone)?

A
  • Anti diuretic hormone

- Controls amount of water reabsorbed in the kidney

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10
Q

Where is ADH released from?

A

Pituitary gland

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11
Q

What part of the body monitors water content of the blood and instructs pituitary gland to release ADH?

A

Brain

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12
Q

Osmoregulation is done by what system?

A

Negative feedback (changes in environment trigger a response to counteract changes so internal environment stay around a norm at which cells work best)

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13
Q

Through the use of ADH, what does the body do when the water content of the blood gets to high or too low?

A
  • Water loss–>brain detects water loss–>pituitary gland releases more ADH–>ADH makes kidney reabsorb more water–>hydrated
  • Water gain–>brain detects water gain–>pituitary gland releases less ADH–>lack of ADH means kidney reabsorbs less water–>hydrated
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14
Q

What can a person with kidney failure have?

A

Dialysis machine

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15
Q

What does a dialysis machine do?

A

Filters the blood for people with kidney failure

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16
Q

How does dialysis work?

A
  • Has to be done regularly to keep dissolved substances at right concentrations/remove waste
  • Dialysis fluid has same concentration of salts/glucoe as blood plasma (so aren’t removed from blood)
  • Barrier is permeable to ions/waste substances but not big molecules e.g. proteins (like kidney); waste substances/excess ions/water move from blood across membrane to dialysis fluid
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17
Q

What can someone with a kidney disease have?

A

Kidney transplant

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18
Q

In a kidney transplant, what measures are taken to minimise rejection?

A
  • Donor has tissue type that closely matches patient

- Patient treated w/ drugs that suppress immune system so won’t attack transplanted kidney

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19
Q

What is the main functions of an egg cell?

A
  • Carry female DNA

- Nourish developing embryo in early stages

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20
Q

What are the features of an egg cell?

A
  • Contains nutrients in cytoplasm to feed embryo
  • Straight after fertilisation (when sperm fuses w/ egg). egg’s membrane changes structure to stop more sperm getting in so offspring has right amount of DNA
  • Haploid nucleus so when fertilised the cell has right number of chromosomes
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21
Q

What is the main function of a sperm cell?

A

Transport male’s DNA to female’s egg cell so DNA can combine

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22
Q

What are the main features of a sperm cell?

A
  • Small w/ long tails so can swim to egg
  • Lots of mitochondria in middle providing energy (from respiration) needed to swim distance
  • Have acrosome at front of head, where enzymes stored to digest through membrane of egg cell
  • Haploid nucleus
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23
Q

What does haploid nucleus mean?

A
  • 23 chromosomes
  • One copy of each chromosomes
  • No pairs
  • Half the number of chromosomes
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24
Q

What are the 4 stages of the menstrual cycle?

A

1) Day 1: start of bleeding; uterus lining breaks down + is released (menstruation)
2) Days 4-14: lining of uterus builds up again into thick spongy layer of blood vessels ready to receive fertilised egg
3) Day 14: egg released from ovary (ovulation)
4) Days 14-28: Lining is maintained; if no fertilised eff landed on uterus by day 28 spongy lining breaks down + process restarts

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25
Q

What are the 4 hormones that control the menstrual cycle?

A
  • FSH (follicle stimulating hormone)
  • Oestrogen
  • LH (luteinising hormone)
  • Progesterone
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26
Q

What is the role of the FSH in the menstrual cycle?

A
  • Causes follicle (egg + surrounding cells) to mature in one of the ovaries
  • Stimulated oestrogen production
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27
Q

What is the role of the oestrogen in the menstrual cycle?

A
  • Causes lining of uterus to thicken + grow

- High level stimulates LH surge (rapid increase)

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28
Q

What is the role of the LH in the menstrual cycle?

A
  • LH surge stimulated ovulation at day 14; follicle ruptures + egg released
  • Stimulates remains of follicle to develop into structure called corpus luteum, secreting progesterone
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29
Q

What gland is progesterone secreted from?

A

Corpus luteum

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30
Q

What is the role of the progesterone in the menstrual cycle?

A
  • Maintains lining of uterus
  • Inhibits production of FSH + LH
  • When level of progesterone falls + low oestrogen level, uterul lining breaks down
  • Low progesterone level allows FSH to increase
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31
Q

What happens to the hormone levels if pregnancy occurs?

A

Progesterone stays high to maintain lining of uterus

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32
Q

What happens to the uterus lining during pregnancy?

A

-Uterus has thick spongy layer of blood vessels; blood supply allows placenta to develop

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33
Q

What is the role of the placenta during pregnancy?

A
  • Supplies baby w/ oxygen, glucose + nutrients needed to grow
  • Removes waste products like urea + carbon dioxide
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34
Q

What system controls levels of hormones in the menstrual cycle?

A
  • Negative feedback
  • e.g. FSH stimulates ovary to release oestrogen, oestrogen inhibits release FSH from pituitry gland in brain; after FSH caused follicles to mature, negative feedback keeps FSH level low o no mroe follicles mature
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35
Q

How can hormones be used to increase fertility?

A
  • Some women have FSH levels too low for follicles to mature so no eggs released + women can’t get pregnant
  • FSH + LH can be injected by women to stimulate egg release in ovaries
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36
Q

What are the advantages of using hormones to increase fertility?

A

Helps women get pregnant when they otherwise wouldn’t be able to

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37
Q

What are the disadvantages of using hormones to increase fertility?

A
  • Not always successful so often has to be repeated + can be expensive
  • Too many eggs can be stimulated, so unexpected multiple pregnancies
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38
Q

How can IVF be used to help couples have children?

A
  • In vitro fertilisation
  • Eggs collected from woman’s ovaries + fertilising them in lab using man’s sperm; grown into embryos
  • One embryos are tiny ball of cells, 1-2 transferred to woman’s uterus (womb) to increase chance of pregnancy
  • FSH + LH given before collection to stimulate egg production so more than 1 egg can be collected
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39
Q

What are the advantages of using IVF to help couples have children?

A

Can give infertile couple a child

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40
Q

what are the disadvantages of using IVF to help couples have children?

A
  • Some women have strong reaction to hormone (abdominal pain, vomitting, dehydration)
  • Reports of increase of cancer from hormonal treatment but some say no risk; unsure
  • Can result in multiple births if more than embryo grows into baby; risk to mother
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41
Q

How can IVF be done with donated eggs?

A

Women who can’t produce eggs can use an egg from donor to have IVF to conceive

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42
Q

What are the advantages of using IVF with donated eggs?

A
  • Women who can’t produce eggs can have a baby

- Prevents risk of passing genetic disorder from mother

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43
Q

What are the disadvantages of using IVF with donated eggs?

A

Emotionally difficult as baby has different genetic mother

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44
Q

How can a surrogate mother be used to help a couple have a child?

A
  • If women can’t become pregnant, may ask another woman to carry baby for her
  • Women who carries baby known as surrogate mother
  • IVF used to produce embryo, either using egg + sperm from couple or donor egg + sperm
  • Embryo implanted into surrogate mother’s uterus
  • After birth, woman gives baby to couple
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45
Q

What are the advantages of using a surrogate mother to help a couple have a child?

A

Allows couple to have children if medical problems mean women can’t become pregnant or risky for her to give birth

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46
Q

What are the disadvantages os using a surrogate mother to help a couple have a child?

A
  • Surrogate mother legally mother of child until adopted

- Right to keep child so may decide doesn’t want to give away

47
Q

How many matches pairs of chromosomes are there in the body?

A

22, 23rd pair is XX or XY

48
Q

What are males’ 23rd chromosomes?

A

X + Y, controlling male characteristics

49
Q

What are the females’ 23rd chromosomes?

A

X + X, allowing female characteristics to develop

50
Q

Which gamete is responsible for the gender to the offspring?

A

Sperm, can carry X or Y but egg can only carry X

51
Q

What does it mean if a characteristic is sex-linked?

A

The allele that codes for it is on the sex chromosome (X or Y)

52
Q

Which sex chromosome is smaller and what does this mean?

A
  • Y chromosome is smaller than C chromosome
  • Carries fewer genes
  • Most genes on the sex chromosome are carried on X chromosome
53
Q

Which gender are more likely to get sex-linked disorders and why?

A
  • Men
  • Only have one allele for sex linked disease (different sex chromosomes, XY)
  • Even if recessive have it as no dominant to counteract (unlike women)
54
Q

What is a sex-linked genetic disorder?

A

Disorders caused by faulty genes on the sex chromosomes

55
Q

What are some examples of sex-linked genetic disorders?

A
  • Colour blindness

- Haemophilia (where sufferer’s blood won’t clot properly when cut themselves)

56
Q

How does bacteria reproduce?

A
  • Reproduce by splitting in 2

- Growth is exponential (start with small number but grows quickly)

57
Q

What did Louis Pasteur do?

A
  • Showed microbes caused decay + disease
  • Until 19th century, people though disease just appeared
  • Showed microbes in air which cause disease/decomposition
58
Q

What was the experiment Louis Pasteur did to show disease was caused by microbes?

A
  • Heated broth in 2 flasks the left open
  • One have curved neck so bacteria in air would settle in loop; not get through to broth
  • This broth stayed fresh but other didn’t
  • Showed it was microbes in air causing it to go off
59
Q

What is pasteurisation?

A
  • Heating something to about 70⁰C then cooling it

- Kills of most harmful germs so product shouldn’t make you ill

60
Q

What is an aseptic technique?

A

A process that reduces contamination by germs, like pasteurisation

61
Q

When is pasteurisation used?

A

Treats milk to kill harmful bacteria, making it safe to drink

62
Q

Why is pasteurisation preferred to sterilising?

A

Sterilisation kills everything, including some vitamins + makes milk taste funny

63
Q

What is resazurin dye?

A

A dye sensitive to oxygen

64
Q

What are the different colours of the Resazurin dye at different levels of oxygen?

A
Lots of oxygen
Blue
Lilac
Mauve
Pink
Colourless
Least oxygen
65
Q

How can you used Resazurin dye to measure the microorganism numbers?

A
  • Microorganisms use up oxygen (respiration)
  • Lots of microorganisms = less oxygen = colourless dye
  • Few microorganisms = more oxygen = blue dye
66
Q

How could you test how different conditions affect the growth of bacteria?

A
  • Pour 10cm3 fresh milk to 3 sterile test tubes; add 1cm3 Resazurin dye + mix
  • Store different test tubes at different conditions (e.g. temp,, pH)
  • Record colour change of dye at different time intervals
67
Q

What happens when a microorganism enters the body?

A

Reproduces rapidly unless destroyed

68
Q

What is the role of the immune system?

A

Kill harmful microorganisms that enter the body

69
Q

What is the role of the white blood cells?

A
  • Travel around body

- Watch for microorganisms

70
Q

What do B-lymphocytes do?

A
  • Each pathogen has unique molecules on surface of cells, called antigens
  • When B-lymphocytes come across foreign antigen produce proteins called antibodies
  • Antibodies bind to + kill new invading cells
  • Antibodies produced are specific to that pathogen; won’t attack other pathogens
  • Antibodies then produced rapidly + flow all round body to kill all similar bacteria/viruses
71
Q

Why is the response slow when a pathogen enters the body for the first time?

A

There aren’t many -B-lymphocytes that can make the antibody to lock on to the antigen
-Person will show symptoms of the disease

72
Q

When are memory lymphocytes produced?

A

After first being exposed to an antigen

73
Q

What do memory lymphocytes do?

A
  • Remain in the body for a long time + remember a specific antibody
  • Person now immune
74
Q

What happens when a pathogen enters the body for the second time?

A
  • Immune system will have a quicker response

- Gets rid of pathogen before any symptoms show

75
Q

Why do people get immunised?

A

Avoid getting ill by some diseases

76
Q

How does immunisation work?

A
  • Injecting dead/inactive microorganisms into body
  • They’re antigenic (carry antigens)
  • So harmless but body still makes antibodies to attack them
  • Antigens trigger memory lymphocytes to be made
  • If live microorganisms (same type) appear after, killed immediately by already developed antibodies
77
Q

Who invented the first vaccine and what did it immunise against?

A

Edward Jenner against smallpox

78
Q

How did Edward Jenner create the first vaccine?

A
  • Noticed those w/ cowpox (mild disease from cattle) didn’t get smallpox
  • 1796: took bits of scab from girl w/ cowpox, put into cut on arm of boy.
  • Boy was unwell but recovered
  • Jenner exposed boy to cowpox but didn’t catch it
79
Q

Why did Edward Jenner’s vaccine work?

A
  • Cowpox antigen triggered boy’s B-lymphocytes to produce antibodies
  • Smallpox has some same antigens as cowpox
  • When infected by smallpox, immune system quickly made antibodies to stop him getting disease
80
Q

What are the benefits of immunisation?

A
  • Prevents epidemics if large % of population immunised. (Even those not immunised have reduced risk as less have disease)
  • Some diseases virtually wiped out by immunisation e.g. smallpox
81
Q

What are the drawbacks of immunisation?

A
  • Doesn’t always work

- Although rarely, some have bad reaction to disease

82
Q

What produces antibodies?

A

B-lymphocytes

83
Q

How are monoclonal antibodies produced?

A
  • B-lymphocytes not divide quickly but tumour cells do so can be grown easily
  • Fuse B-lymphocyte + tumour cell to produce hybridoma cell
  • Hybridoma cells divide quickly producing lots of identical antibodies called monoclonal antibodies
  • Produce lots of antibodies against a certain antigen
84
Q

How are monoclonal antibodies used in pregnancy tests?

A
  • Hormone found in urine of only pregnant women which pregnancy test sticks detect
  • Where you wee has antibodies to hormone w/ blue beads attached
  • Test strip (turns blue if pregnant) has antibodies to hormone stuck on it (can’t move)
  • If pregnant: hormone binds to antibodies on blue beads; urine moves up stick, carrying hormone + beads; beads + hormone bind to antibodies on strip; blue beads stuck on strip, turning it blue
  • If not pregnant: wee on stick; urine moves up stick w/ blue beads; nothing to stick blue beads to test strip so not blue
85
Q

How can monoclonal antibodies be used to stick to cancer cells?

A
  • Different cell have different antigens on surface so monoclonal antibodies made to stick to any
  • Cancer cell have antigens on cell membrane not on normal body cells: tumour markers
  • Monoclonal antibodies made to bind to tumour markers to help diagnose + treat cancer
86
Q

How can monoclonal antibodies be used to diagnose cancer?

A
  • Antibodies labelled w/ a radioactive element
  • Labelled antibodies given to patient through a drip, into blood so carried around body
  • When antibodies come into contact w/ cancer cells they bind to the tumour markers
  • Pic of patient’s body taken w/ special camera detecting radioactivity: cancer spots show w/ bright spot
  • Doctors see where cancer is, size + see if spreading
87
Q

How can monoclonal antibodies be used to target drugs to cancer cells?

A
  • Anti-cancer drug attached to monoclonal antibody
  • Antibodies given to patient through drip
  • Antibodies target specific cells (cancer cells) as only bind to tumour markers
  • Drug kills cancer cells but not normal cells near tumour
88
Q

What are the benefits of using monoclonal antibodies to target drugs to cancer cells as opposed to other drugs or radiotherapy?

A
  • Other drugs/radiotherapy kill normal cells

- Lower side effects w/ monoclonal antibody treatment

89
Q

How can monoclonal antibodies be used to find blood clots?

A
  • When blood clots, proteins join together in blood forming solid mesh
  • Monoclonal antibodies developed to bind to proteins
  • Can attach radioactive element to antibodies
  • Inject into body + take pics using camera that detects radiation, there’ll be bright spot where blood clot is
  • Can easily find potentially harmful blood clots
90
Q

How do plants defend themselves against pests and pathogens?

A

Chemicals

91
Q

What are some examples of plant chemicals being used as medicines?

A
  • Aspirin
  • Taxol
  • Quinine
92
Q

Where is aspirin from and what is it used for?

A
  • Used to treat many type of pain + lower fever

- Developed from chemical found in leaves + bark of willow tree

93
Q

Where is Taxol from and what is it used for?

A
  • Anti-cancer drug
  • From bark of Pacific Yew tree
  • Discovered when scientists screened plants for potential treatments
94
Q

Where is Quinine from and what is it used for?

A
  • From South American cinchona tree

- Was the main treatment against malaria

95
Q

What are the three main types of pests to crops?

A
  • Insects
  • Weeds
  • Pathogens
96
Q

How do insects (fruit flies) affect crop yield?

A

Feed on them so ruin entire fruit crops

97
Q

How do weeds affect crop yield?

A
  • When growing near plants take up nutrients from soil

- Plant gets fewer nutrients = won’t grow as well = lower yield

98
Q

How do pathogens affect crop yield?

A
  • Energy taken by pathogen/used to replace bits broken
  • Less energy to make useful things e.g. fruit, so lower yield
  • Heavy infestation = whole fields of plants produce no food at all
99
Q

How do pests affect the cost of producing food?

A
  • Increases
  • Money spent on pesticides
  • Disease-resistant/insect-resistant crops
100
Q

How do pests affect consumers?

A

Lower crop yields increases the price for consumers

101
Q

What is a photoperiodic response?

A
  • Response to a change in amount of light + dark in 24 hour cycle
  • Some plants germinate, grow or slower in certain amounts of light + dark to ensure they grow at time of year that best suits them
102
Q

How do seeds of Arctic plants act as a photoperiodic response?

A
  • Some only germinate when the fays are long
  • So only germinate in middle of summer
  • When temperatures are warmest
103
Q

How do some plant buds act as a photoperiodic response?

A
  • Use increasing day length to know it’s far enough from winter to start to grow
  • So don’t sprout + get killed by frost
104
Q

How do long-day plants and short-day plants act as a photoperiodic response?

A
  • Long-day: only flower when days at least certain length (near midsummer)
  • Short-day: only slower when days less than certain length (early spring/autumn)
  • So only right insect are about to pollinate flowers
105
Q

What is a circadian rhythm?

A

Biological processes that follow a 24 hour period

106
Q

What types of circadian rhythms are there?

A
  • Chemical patterns
  • Physiological patterns
  • Patterns of behaviour
107
Q

How are circadian rhythms controlled?

A

Controlled internally but affected by environmental facts (e.g. light intensity)

108
Q

What are some circadian rhythms in animals?

A
  • Sleep patterns

- Urine production

109
Q

What is the body’s master clock?

A

A group of nerve cells in the brain

110
Q

What does animal’s sleep pattern follow a circadian rhythm?

A
  • Body’s master clock gets info of light intensity from eyes
  • Controls production of melatonin (which makes you tired)
  • When dark: melatonin production increases (opposite in nocturnal animals)
  • Regular sleep patterns = good for health + feel awake at right times
111
Q

How does animal’s urine production follow a circadian rhythm?

A
  • Body’s master clock controls ADH production
  • At night ADH level increases
  • Reduces urine production (so sleep not interrupted)
112
Q

What are some circadian rhythms in plants?

A
  • Stomata opening

- Flower opening

113
Q

How does the stomata opening in plants follow a circadian rhythm?

A
  • Stomata respond to light intensity
  • Open in day + close at night
  • During day photosynthesis occurs; stomata open so CO2 in + O2 out
  • Night: photosynthesis stops so stomata closes reducing water loss
114
Q

How does the flower opening in plants follow a circadian rhythm?

A
  • Respond to light intensity by opening/closing flowers at different times of day
  • Only need to be open when created that pollinate them are active