Top Exam Pearls Flashcards

1
Q

Which scan is best for temporal bone fracture

A

CT temporal bone without contrast

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2
Q

Best imaging for imaging the internal auditory canal (IAC) for acoustic neuroma?

A

MRI of the IAC with contrast

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3
Q

Best imaging for thyroid nodules

A

ultrasound

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4
Q

What is the most common pathogen of malignant otitis externa

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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5
Q

Ludwig’s angina

A
  • odontogenic infection of the subental and submandibular spaces
  • causes progressive swelling of the floor of the mouth and upper airway obstruction
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6
Q

Infections of which 3 spaces can extend into the “danger space” allowing spread to the medistinum

A
  1. Parapharyngeal
  2. Prevertebral
  3. Retropharyngeal
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7
Q

Classic presentation of peritonsillar abscess (4)

A
  1. Deviation of the uvula
  2. Soft palate edema
  3. Trismus
  4. Muffled (“hot potato”) voice
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8
Q

First-line treatment for persistent idiopathic facial pain?

A

tricyclic antidepressants

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9
Q

4 types of papillae on the tongue

A
  1. Fungiform
  2. Filiform (only one that doesn’t contain taste buds)
  3. Folate
  4. Circumvalate
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10
Q

Which branchial cleft is the most common branchial cleft to develop an anomaly?

A

2nd branchial cleft

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11
Q

Does hypopharyngeal cancer carry a worse prognosis than laryngeal cancer?

A

Yes. hypopharyngeal has more frequent mucosal spread

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12
Q

Most common benign salivary gland tumor?

A

pleomorphic adenoma

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13
Q

Most common malignant salivary gland tumor?

A

mucoepidermoid carcinoma

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14
Q

Most common thyroid malignancy

A

Papillary carcinoma

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15
Q

Most common neoplasm of the thyroid?

A

Follicular adenoma

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16
Q

Name factors that increase risk of regional lymphatic involvement

A
  1. Tumor site
  2. Stage
  3. Presence of perineural and angiolymphatic invasion
  4. Thickness
  5. Differentiation
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17
Q

MC paraganglioma of the head and neck

A

carotid body tumor

  • pulsatile mass
  • Lyre’s sign (splaying of the external and internal carotid arteries)
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18
Q

What do you think a young male patient with unilateral nasal obstruction, epistaxis, and a bluish mass filling the nasal cavity might have?

A

JNA - juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma

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19
Q

JNA radiolgraphic findings

A
  • Bony destruction of the pterygoid process
  • Widening of the spehopalatine and vidian foamina
  • Expansion of the PPF on axial view (Holman-Miller sign)
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20
Q

Which cancer of the paranasal sinuses is associated with wood and leather dust exposure?

A

adenocarcinoma

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21
Q

Which cancer of the paranasal sinuses is associated with exposure to chromium, nickel, mustard gas, aflatoxin?

A

SCC

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22
Q

Which cranial nerves are present in cavernous sinus(4)?

A
  • CN III
  • CN IV
  • CN V1, V2
  • CN VI
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23
Q

Which cranial nerve in the cavernous sinus is most medial and most commonly injured?

A

CN VI (Abducens)

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24
Q

Chandler Classification is in regards to what?

A

Orbital infection

I- preseptal cellulitis
II-orbital cellutiis
III- subperiosteal abscess
IV-orbital abscess
V-cavernous sinus thrombosis
25
Q

MC complication from a septal hematoma?

A
  • septal perforation

- saddle nose deformity

26
Q

What site is most commonly seen to have iatrogenic CSF leak during endoscopic sinus surgery?

A

lateral lamella of the cribriform

27
Q

Top 4 causes of CHL?

A
  1. Cerumen impaction
  2. Otitis media with effusion
  3. TM perforation
  4. Otosclerosis
28
Q

Top 3 causes of SNHL?

A
  1. Presbycusis
  2. Noise exposure
  3. Hereditary
29
Q

Most common ototoxic drugs (4)?

A
  1. Aminoglycosides (ex. gentamycin)
  2. Loop diurectics (ex. furosemide)
  3. Platinum containing chemo drugs (ex. cisplatin)
  4. Salicylates (ex. aspirin, NSAIDS)
30
Q

In a pediatric patient with SNHL, what is the most common radiographic finding?

A

Enlarged vestibular aqueduct

31
Q

What is a pure-tone average?

A

Average air conduction hearing threshold at the frequencies associated with speech

  • 500 Hz
  • 1000 Hz
  • 2000 Hz
32
Q

How does peripheral nystagmus change when the patient gazes in the direction of the fast phase?

A

-peripheral nystagmus becomes faster and more apparent when patient looks in the direction of the fast phase

Ex. Right beating nystagmus worsens with rightward gaze

(“Alexander’s Law”)

33
Q

3 types of cholesteatoma

A
  1. Congenital
  2. Primary acquired
  3. Secondary acquired
34
Q

Superior semicircular canal dehiscence symptoms (4)

A
  1. Conductive hearing loss
  2. Autophony
  3. Vertigo (Tullio’s phenomenon)
  4. Ear fullness
35
Q

CSF leak is common in temporal bone fractures. When does it usually stop?

A

Within 7 days

36
Q

What do you think about in a infant patient presenting with respiratory distress and cyanosis at birth, worse with feeding and relieved by crying?

A

Bilateral choanal atresia

37
Q

In a pediatric patient, what is the most common cause of stridorous breathing?

A

Laryngomalacia

38
Q

Most common cause of subglottic stenosis

A

iatrogenic scarring related to endotrachial intubation

39
Q

What is the most common tumor of infancy, of which the majority are found on the head and neck?

A

infantile hemangiomas

40
Q

What distinguishes hemangiomas from vascular malformations?

A

GLUT-1 positivity

41
Q

What is the first-line treatment of infantile hemangioma?

A

propranolol

42
Q

Differential for pediatric midline nasal mass (3)

A
  1. glioma
  2. dermoid
  3. encephalocele
43
Q

What is the MC cleft lip/palate configuration and what side does it occur on?

A

Left, cleft lip and palate

44
Q

MC indication for tonsillectomy

A
  • sleep disordered breathing

- recurrent tonsillitis

45
Q

Layers of the eyelid, superficial to deep (7)

A
  1. skin
  2. orbicularis oculi
  3. orbital septum
  4. preaponeurotic fat
  5. levator aponeurosis
  6. Muller’s muscle
  7. Conjunctiva
46
Q

Name of the skin peel formula containing 88% phenol, croton oil, septisol, and distilled water

A

Baker-Gordon formula

47
Q

What is the main complication of phenol chemical peels?

A

cardiac toxicity

48
Q

MC complication of a facelift surgery?

A

hematoma (occurs 10% of the time, MC in men)

49
Q

What is the most commonly injured nerve in a facelift sugery?

A

Great auricular nerve (sensory, C2-C3)

50
Q

How does botulinum toxin work?

A

prevents the release of acetylcholine from presynaptic nerves at the neuromuscular junction

51
Q

In a patient with facial trauma, what is an early clinical finding suggesting injury to the optic nerve?

A

Loss of red color vision

52
Q

MC site of mandible fracture?

A

angle of the mandible

53
Q

Only abductor of the true vocal folds?

A

PCA - posterior cricoarytenoid muscle

54
Q

Is fluid bright on T1 or T2 weighted MRI?

A

T2

55
Q

What is the only laryngeal muscle not innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve?

A

cricothyroid

56
Q

What is the cricothyroid innervated by?

A

superior laryngeal nerve

57
Q

Your patient has vocal fold nodules from overuse. What treatment do you offer?

A

voice therapy

58
Q

What is the name for the procedure to remove the central portion of the hyoid bone to prevent recurrence of thyroglossal duct cyst?

A

Sistrunk procedure