Top 300 Flashcards

1
Q

Metronidazole

A

Flagyl, Flagyl ER

Antibacterial, Antiprotozoal

Finish course as prescribed. Avoid alcohol during therapy and for 2 days after. May discolor urine reddish-brown.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Fluconazole

A

Diflucan

Antifungal

Finish course as prescribed. May cause headache and GI upset. CYP interactions: strongly inhibits 2C9, 2C19 (ex. Clopidogrel, warfarin and phenytoin); moderately inhibits 3A4. May prolong QT interval.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Ketoconazole

A

Nizoral

Antifungal

Available topically and orally. Tablets should be taken with food. Drug is absorbed best in acidic conditions; avoid antacids, PPI’s and H2 blockers for 2 hours before and after administration. Major CYP 3A4 drug interactions. Topical formulations are flammable. Potential for hepatotoxicity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Nystatin

A

Mycostatin, Nystop

Antifungal

Available in many different dosage forms (topical, oral, suspension, powder) and some combination products. Suspension can be dosed as “swish and spit” for oral candidiasis or “swish and swallow” for esophageal candidiasis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Terbinafine

A

Lamisil

Antifungal

Finish course as prescribed. Topical formulation available OTC and is most common use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Acyclovir

A

Zovirax

Antiviral against HSV

Available topically and orally. Avoid intercourse during herpes outbreaks. Dose and duration depends on indication. CNS side-effects especially in elderly and renal impairment. Interacts with herpes zoster vaccine. Stay well hydrated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Valacyclovir

A

Valtrex

Antiviral against HSV

Avoid intercourse during herpes outbreaks. Dose and duration depends on indication. CNS side-effects especially in elderly and renal impairment. Interacts with herpes zoster vaccine. Stay well hydrated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Cephalexin

A

Keflex

Cephalosporin antibiotic, 1st generation

Finish course as prescribed. May cause GI upset. Hypersensitivity reactions may occur if allergic to penicillin and/or other cephalosporins. May decrease absorption of oral contraceptives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cefuroxime axetil

A

Ceftin

Cephalosporin antibiotic, 2nd generation

Finish course as prescribed. May cause GI upset. Hypersensitivity reactions may occur if allergic to penicillin and/or other cephalosporins. May decrease absorption of oral contraceptives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cefdinir

A

Omnicef

Cephalosporin antibiotic, 3rd generation

Finish course as prescribed. May cause GI upset. Hypersensitivity reactions may occur if allergic to penicillin and/or other cephalosporins. May decrease absorption of oral contraceptives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Ciprofloxacin

A

Cipro (XR)

Fluoroquinolone antibiotic

Finish course as prescribed. Monitor glucose. Do not take within 2 hours of consuming foods or other products containing di- or trivalent cations (ex. milk, calcium antacids, multivitamins and supplements). May cause sun sensitivity and CNS side-effects. FDA requires assessment of risk of QTc prolongation. Black box warning for tendonitis/tendon rupture. Available orally and in ophthalmic and otic suspensions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Levofloxacin

A

Levaquin

Fluoroquinolone antibiotic

Finish course as prescribed. Monitor glucose. Do not take within 2 hours of consuming foods or other products containing di- or trivalent cations (ex. milk, calcium antacids, multivitamins and supplements). May cause sun sensitivity and CNS side-effects. FDA requires assessment of risk of QTc prolongation. Black box warning for tendonitis/tendon rupture. Available orally and in ophthalmic suspension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Moxifloxacin

A

Avelox

Fluoroquinolone antibiotic

Finish course as prescribed. Monitor glucose. Do not take within 2 hours of consuming foods or other products containing di- or trivalent cations (ex. milk, calcium antacids, multivitamins and supplements). May cause sun sensitivity and CNS side-effects. FDA requires assessment of risk of QTc prolongation. Black box warning for tendonitis/tendon rupture. Available orally and in ophthalmic solution (Vigamox, Moxeza).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Azithromycin

A

Zithromax, Zmax, Azasite

Macrolide antibiotic

Finish course as prescribed. No CYP 3A4 inhibition. QT prolongation possible. Opthalmic solution, Azasite, is refrigerated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Clarithromycin

A

Biaxin (XL)

Macrolide antibiotic

Finish course as prescribed. May impart metallic taste. Inhibits CYP 3A4. QT prolongation possible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Clindamycin

A

Cleocin, Cleocin T, Evoclin, Clindagel

Available in many dosage forms (oral, topical, vaginal suppository, powder for suspension) and combination products. Oral therapy may cause C. diff-associated severe diarrhea. Suspension has horrible taste, little flavoring options available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Nitrofurantoin

A

Macrobid, Macrodantin, Furadantin

Take with food to enhance absorption. May cause peripheral neuropathy or pulmonary fibrosis. Shake suspension thoroughly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Amoxicillin

A

Amoxil

Penicillin antibiotic

Finish course as prescribed. May cause GI upset; take with food. Hypersensitivity reactions possible. May decrease efficacy of oral contraceptives. Secondary vaginal yeast infection may develop. Shake susp well and keep refrigerated, note exp date after reconstitution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Amoxicillin + Clavulanate

A

Augmentin, Augmentin XR

Penicillin antibiotic

Finish course as prescribed. May cause GI upset; take with food. More likely to have diarrhea b/c of clavulanate- maintain hydration. Clavulanic acid doses vary among formulations; double-check if using alternate formulation to achieve prescribed dose (ex. 400mg-57mg/5ml suspension cannot be substituted for 600mg-42.9mg/5ml suspension). Shake susp well and keep refrigerated, note exp date after reconstitution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Penicillin V Potassium

A

Veetids, Pen-Vee K

Penicillin antibiotic

Finish course as prescribed. May cause GI upset; take with food. C. diff-associated diarrhea may develop. Hypersensitivity reactions possible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Sulfamethoxazole + Trimethoprim

A

Bactrim, Bactrim DS, Septra, Septra DS

Sulfonamide antibacterial

Finish course as prescribed. Take with plenty of water. Increases sensitivity to sunlight. Increased risk of hypoglycemia if taken with other sulfonylureas. Severe life-threatening skin reactions possible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Doxycycline

A

Vibramycin, Doryx, Adoxa, Monodox, Oracea, Periostat

Tetracycline antibiotic

May increase sensitivity to sunlight. Do not take within 2 hours of consuming foods or other products containing di- or trivalent cations (ex. milk, calcium antacids, multivitamins and supplements). Hyclate and monohydrate salts not interchangeable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Metronidazole

A

Metrogel, Metrogel-Vaginal, Metrocream, Metrolotion

Topical antibiotic

Use condoms during vaginal therapy. Some drug is absorbed systemically; avoid alcohol consumption during therapy and for 2 days after. Also used topically on the face for rosacea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Mupirocin

A

Bactroban

Topical antibiotic

Used most in hospital to reduce the risk of MRSA infection from carriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Nystatin + Triamcinolone

A

Mycolog II

Topical antifungal + steroid combination

Use a sparing amount, avoid application around eyes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Chlorhexidine Gluconate

A

Peridex, PerioGard

Tx for gingivitis/Periodontitis

Swish/spit 15 mls BID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Olsetamivir

A

Tamiflu

antiviral against influenza

BID dosing for Tx, QD dosing for prophylaxis, tx within 24-48 hours of sx, rarely causes behavioral disturbances inc delirium, risk of anaphylaxis and allergic skin rxns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Emtricitabine + Tenofovir

A

Truvada

Reverse transcriptase inhibitor

Adherence important to prevent resistance. May be taken without regard to food. May cause decrease in bone mineral density, fat redistribution, lactic acidosis, hepatomegaly, and renal toxicity. Recently approved for pre-exposure HIV prophylaxis for those whose partner has HIV; must have regular testing every 3 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Zidovudine + Lamivudine

A

Combivir

Reverse transcriptase inhibitor

Adherence important to prevent resistance. May be taken without regard to food. May cause fat redistribution, lactic acidosis, hepatomegaly, myopathy, and hematologic toxicity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Enalapril

A

Vasotec

ACE Inhibitor, antihypertensive

Pregnancy category D. May cause a dry cough, first-dose hypotension (especially in CHF and hypervolemia) and hyperkalemia (avoid salt substitutes). Angioedema is a serious reaction; discontinue immediately and medical intervention may be necessary. Drug has renoprotective properties, but may also cause acute renal failure; monitor serum creatinine and discontinue if >30% increase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Ramipril

A

Altace

ACE Inhibitor, antihypertensive

Pregnancy category D. May cause a dry cough, first-dose hypotension (especially in CHF and hypovolemia) and hyperkalemia (avoid salt substitutes). Angioedema is a serious reaction; discontinue immediately and medical intervention may be necessary. Drug has renoprotective properties, but may also cause acute renal failure; monitor serum creatinine and discontinue if >30% increase. May have greater benefit if dosed at bedtime.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Quinapril

A

Accupril, Accuretic

ACE Inhibitor, antihypertensive; Accuretic-combo with HCTZ

Pregnancy category D. May cause a dry cough, first-dose hypotension (especially in CHF and hypovolemia) and hyperkalemia (avoid salt substitutes). Angioedema is a serious reaction; discontinue immediately and medical intervention may be necessary. Drug has renoprotective properties, but may also cause acute renal failure; monitor serum creatinine and discontinue if >30% increase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Benazepril, Ben/HCTZ

A

Lotensin, Lotensin HCT

ACE Inhibitor, antihypertensive; HCT-combo with HCTZ

Pregnancy category X. May cause a dry cough, first-dose hypotension (especially in CHF and hypovolemia) and hyperkalemia (avoid salt substitutes). Angioedema is a serious reaction; discontinue immediately and medical intervention may be necessary. Drug has renoprotective properties, but may also cause acute renal failure; monitor serum creatinine and discontinue if >30% increase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Lisinopril, Lis/HCTZ

A

Zestril or Prinivil, Zestoretic

ACE Inhibitor, antihypertensive; Zestoretic-combo with HCTZ

Pregnancy category D. May cause a dry cough, first-dose hypotension (especially in CHF and hypovolemia) and hyperkalemia (avoid salt substitutes). Angioedema is a serious reaction; discontinue immediately and medical intervention may be necessary. Drug has renoprotective properties, but may also cause acute renal failure; monitor serum creatinine and discontinue if >30% increase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Doxazosin Mesylate

A

Cardura, Cardura XL

Alpha 1 Blocker antihypertensive, also used in BPH

May cause postural hypotension/orthostasis after first dose or an increase in dose. Dizziness and headache common.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Terazosin

A

Hytrin

Alpha 1 Blocker antihypertensive, also used in BPH

May cause postural hypotension/orthostasis after first dose or an increase in dose. Dizziness and headache common.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Clonidine

A

Catapres, Catapres TTS, Nexiclon XR, Kapvay ER

Alpha II agonist, antihypertensive

May cause drowsiness, dry mouth, or skin reactions. Rotate patch application sites and discard patches carefully. Do not discontinue abruptly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Amiodarone

A

Cordarone

Antiarrhythmic

Many drug interactions, complicated by extremely long half life of 40-50 days. Hepatic and pulmonary damage possible; notify MD if jaundice, dark urine or trouble breathing occur. May cause thyroid problems, hypotension, bradycardia, ocular disease and exacerbate arrhythmia. Have regular ophthalmic visits. May cause skin to turn bluish-grey in color

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Warfarin Sodium

A

Coumadin

Anticoagulant

Risk of bleeding, especially GI. Very narrow therapeutic index; INR must be monitored regularly and vitamin K intake should be uniform. Many drug interactions; always check with MD or RPh when taking a new medication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Fenofibrate

A

TRICOR, Trilipix

Antihyperlipidemic

Risk of myopathy; taking with statins increase risk. Discontinue immediately and report any signs (muscle pain, brown urine) to MD and/or RPh. Increases action of sulfonylureas; monitor for hypoglycemia. No good outcome data; FIELD and ACCORD Lipid were not positive. Safer to combine with a statin than gemfibrozil, but not evidence based. Many different “Brand” formulations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Gemfibrozil

A

Lopid

Antihyperlipidemic

Increases effects of statins and therefore myopathy risk; discontinue immediately and report any signs (muscle pain, brown urine) to MD and/or RPh. Should be taken 30 minutes before breakfast and dinner. Increased risk of gall stones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Niacin

A

Niaspan ER

Antihyperlipidemic

Causes flushing in most individuals (>80%); take at bedtime with a low-fat snack and 325mg aspirin to reduce effects. Doses higher than 2g/day may cause hepatotoxicity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Atorvastatin

A

Lipitor

Antihyperlipidemic - HMG CoA reductase inhibitor

Pregnancy category X. Myopathy is a serious reaction; discontinue immediately and report any signs (muscle pain, brown urine) to MD and/or RPh. May be taken at any time of day. Avoid excessive alcohol and grapefruit juice. Some CYP 3A4 interactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Lovastatin

A

Mevacor, Altoprev ER

Antihyperlipidemic - HMG CoA reductase inhibitor

Pregnancy category X. Myopathy is a serious reaction; discontinue immediately and report any signs (muscle pain, brown urine) to MD and/or RPh. Take in the evening. Avoid excessive alcohol and grapefruit juice. Several CYP 3A4 interactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Pravastatin

A

Pravachol

Antihyperlipidemic - HMG CoA reductase inhibitor

Pregnancy category X. Myopathy is a serious reaction; discontinue immediately and report any signs (muscle pain, brown urine) to MD and/or RPh. Avoid excessive alcohol. Significantly fewer drug interactions compared to other statins (cleared by kidney rather than liver).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Rosuvastatin

A

Crestor

Antihyperlipidemic - HMG CoA reductase inhibitor

Pregnancy category X. Myopathy is a serious reaction; discontinue immediately and report any signs (muscle pain, brown urine) to MD and/or RPh. May be taken at any time of day. Avoid excessive alcohol and grapefruit juice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Simvastatin/ezetimibe

A

Vytorin

Antihyperlipidemic - HMG CoA reductase inhibitor and cholesterol absorption inhibitor

Pregnancy category X. Myopathy is a serious reaction; discontinue immediately and report any signs (muscle pain, brown urine) to MD and/or RPh. Take in the evening. Avoid excessive alcohol and grapefruit juice. Several CYP 3A4 interactions. Lacks data that combination is superior to simvastatin alone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Simvastatin

A

Zocor

Antihyperlipidemic - HMG reductase inhibitor

Pregnancy category X. Myopathy is a serious reaction; discontinue immediately and report any signs (muscle pain, brown urine) to MD and/or RPh. Take in the evening. Avoid excessive alcohol and grapefruit juice. Several CYP 3A4 interactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Aspirin

A

Ecotrin

Antiplatelet

Used for cardiovascular or cerebrovascular accident treatment/prophylaxis. 75-325 mg pod daily. Risk/benefit important for prophylaxis decisions. Increased risk of bleeding. Be aware of hypersensitivity reactions especially in patients with allergic triad of as a allergy, nasal polyps, and asthma, avoid in children due to risk of Reye syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Amlodipine + Valsartan

A

Exforge, Exforge HCT

ARB + calcium channel blocker combo; HCT also contains diuretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Valsartan, Val/HCTZ

A

Diovan, Diovan HCT

ARB Antihypertensive, HCT also contains diuretic

Black box warning in pregnancy. May cause dizziness, hypotension, hyperkalemia (avoid salt substitutes, potassium sparing diuretics), and renal dysfunction (discontinue if serum creatinine increases >30%). NSAIDs reduce antihypertensive effect and increase risk of renal dysfunction. Taking with ACE inhibitor or renin inhibitor increases side effects with little benefit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Irbesartan, Irbesartan/HCTZ

A

Avapro, Avalide

ARB Antihypertensive; Avalide-combo with diuretic

Black box warning in pregnancy. May cause dizziness, hypotension, hyperkalemia (avoid salt substitutes, potassium sparing diuretics), and renal dysfunction (discontinue if serum creatinine increases >30%). NSAIDs reduce antihypertensive effect and increase risk of renal dysfunction. Taking with ACE inhibitor or renin inhibitor increases side effects with little benefit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Candesartan, Can/HCTZ

A

Atacand, Atacand HCT

ARB Antihypertensive; HCT-combo with diuretic

Black box warning in pregnancy. May cause dizziness, hypotension, hyperkalemia (avoid salt substitutes, potassium sparing diuretics), and renal dysfunction (discontinue if serum creatinine increases >30%). NSAIDs reduce antihypertensive effect and increase risk of renal dysfunction. Taking with ACE inhibitor or renin inhibitor increases side effects with little benefit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Olmesartan

A

Benicar, Benicar HCT

ARB Antihypertensive; HCT-combo with diuretic

Black box warning in pregnancy. May cause dizziness, hypotension, hyperkalemia (avoid salt substitutes, potassium sparing diuretics), and renal dysfunction (discontinue if serum creatinine increases >30%). NSAIDs reduce antihypertensive effect and increase risk of renal dysfunction. Taking with ACE inhibitor or renin inhibitor increases side effects with little benefit. Sprue -like enteropathy (unexplained wt loss and diarrhea)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Losartan, Los/HCTZ

A

Cozaar, Hyzaar

ARB Antihypertensive; Hyzaar-combo with diuretic

Black box warning in pregnancy. May cause dizziness, hypotension, hyperkalemia (avoid salt substitutes, potassium sparing diuretics), and renal dysfunction (discontinue if serum creatinine increases >30%). NSAIDs reduce antihypertensive effect and increase risk of renal dysfunction. Taking with ACE inhibitor or renin inhibitor increases side effects with little benefit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Atenolol

A

Tenormin

Beta Blocker, Beta-1 Selective

May cause drowsiness. Masks symptoms of hypoglycemia. Do not discontinue abruptly. Limited evidence/data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Metoprolol Succinate

A

Toprol XL

Beta Blocker, Beta-1 Selective

May cause drowsiness. Masks symptoms of hypoglycemia. Do not discontinue abruptly. Succinate and tartrate salts are not interchangeable!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Metoprolol Tartrate

A

Lopressor

Beta Blocker, Beta-1 selective

May cause drowsiness. Masks symptoms of hypoglycemia. Do not discontinue abruptly. Succinate and tartrate salts are not interchangeable!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Bisoprolol, Bisoprolol + HCTZ

A

Zebeta, Ziac

Beta Blocker, Beta-1 selective; Ziac is combo with diuretic

May cause drowsiness. Masks symptoms of hypoglycemia. Do not discontinue abruptly due to risk of tachycardia and hypertension. Bisoprolol has outcome data in heart failure; target dose of 10mg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Atenolol/chlorthalidone

A

Tenoretic

Beta Blocker, Beta-1 Selective/ thiazide diuretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Propranolol

A

Inderal, Inderal LA, Innopran, Innopran XL

Beta Blocker, nonselective

May cause drowsiness. Masks symptoms of hypoglycemia. Do not discontinue abruptly. LA and immediate release formulations are not mg-mg equivalent; dose may need to be increased by up to 30% when converting from immediate release to LA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Carvedilol

A

Coreg (CR)

Beta Blocker, nonselective; Alpha-1 blocker

May cause drowsiness. Masks symptoms of hypoglycemia. Do not discontinue abruptly. CR and immediate release formulations are not mg-mg equivalent; CR 10mg equivalent to 3.125mg BID of immediate release.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Labetalol

A

Normodyne or Trandate

Beta Blocker, nonselective; Alpha-1 blocker

May cause drowsiness. Masks symptoms of hypoglycemia. Do not discontinue abruptly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Digoxin

A

Lanoxin or Lanoxicap

Cardiac glycoside: + Inotropic, - chronotropic

Narrow therapeutic index, many drug interactions. Digoxin toxicity possible (anorexia, nausea, fatigue, vision disturbances, bradycardia, arrhythmias).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Amlodipine + Olmestartan

A

Azor, Tribenzor

Combination of ARB + calcium channel blocker; Tribenzor also contains diuretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Amlodipine

A

Norvasc

Dihydro calcium channel blocker

May cause drowsiness, risk of hypotension and orthostasis. Risk of peripheral edema that is not responsive to diuretics but may be relieved by ACEi or ARB.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Nifedipine

A

Procardia, Procardia XL, Adalat CC

Dihydro calcium channel blocker

May cause drowsiness. Risk of peripheral edema that is not responsive to diuretics; ACEi or ARB used to reverse. Adalat and Procardia not equivalent, double-check when dispensing generics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Amlodipine + Benazepril

A

Lotrel

Dihydro calcium channel blocker + ACE inhibitor combo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Amlodipine + Atorvastatin

A

Caduet

Dihydro calcium channel blocker + HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor combo

trate amlodipine to response over 1-2 weeks and atorvastatin in 6-8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Dabigatran

A

Pradaxa

Direct thrombin inhibitor

Monitor for bleeding. May cause some GI upset. Store capsules in original container or blister pack; discard unused medication after 4 months. Do not crush, chew or open capsules. If a dose is missed, do not take a double dose if more than 6 hours have passed. Drug interactions with p-glycoprotein substrates (dronedarone, ketoconazole, rifampin). Dose should be adjusted for kidney function. Discontinuation for surgery determined by creatinine clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Potassium Chloride

A

Klor-Con

Electrolyte supplement

May cause GI upset, take with food. Monitor salt intake.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Rivaroxaban

A

Xarelto

Factor Xa inhibitor

Monitor for bleeding. Doses of 15 mg or more must be taken with food. Compliance extremely important, but do not take a double dose if a dose is missed. Discontinue at least 24 hours before surgeries. Drug interactions with CYP 3A4 substrates, but benefit outweighs cost in some cases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Apixaban

A

Eliquis

Factor Xa inhibitor

Monitor for bleeding. 5 mg orally twice daily. A dose of 2.5 mg twice daily is recommended for patients at least 80 years old, who weigh no more than 60 kg, or who have serum creatinine of at least 1.5 mg/dL, as well as those receiving strong dual inhibitors of cytochrome P450 3A4 and P-glycoprotein. Boxed warning - inc risk of stroke if DC’d. Not indicated in patients with prosthetic heart valves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Furosemide

A

Lasix

Loop diuretic

May cause hypokalemia; monitor potassium levels and kidney function. Also watch salt intake. May be used as needed in congestive heart failure. Hypersensitivity reaction may occur in individuals with sulfa allergy. Lasix short for “last six hours”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Enoxaparin

A

Lovenox

Low molecular weight heparin

Increased risk of bleeding. Counsel on injection technique. Often used when beginning warfarin to achieve goal INR more quickly. In community pharmacy, double-check to make sure proper package size and quantity are being dispensed/billed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Isosorbide Mononitrate

A

Imdur, ISMO

Nitroglycerin antianginal/vasodilator

Frequently causes dizziness and/or headache. Dosed twice daily, but must be taken “asymmetrically” to prevent tolerance; take second dose 8 hours after first dose rather than every 12 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Nitroglycerin SL

A

Nitrostat

Nitroglycerin antianginal/vasodilator

Frequently causes dizziness and/or headache. If chest pain persist after first dose, take second dose in 5 minutes. Call 911 if symptoms persist after second dose. Store in original container.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Topical Nitroglycerin

A

Nitro-Dur

Nitroglycerin antianginal/vasodilator

Finish course as prescribed. Apply patch for 12 hours and remove for 12 hours for nitrate-free period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Diltiazem

A

Cardizem, Cardizem SR, Cardizem CD, Cardizem LA, Tiazac

Non-dihydro Calcium Channel Blocker

May cause drowsiness/dizziness or headache. Do not discontinue therapy without discussing with MD. Many formulations that may not be equivalent; double-check when dispensing generics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Verapamil

A

Calan, Calan SR, Isoptin SR

Non-dihydro Calcium Channel Blocker

May cause drowsiness/dizziness, headache, or constipation. Do not discontinue therapy without discussing with MD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Clopidogrel

A

Plavix

Platelet Inhibitor

Monitor for bleeding. Compliance extremely important. CYP 2C19 inhibitors such as omeprazole and esomeprazole greatly decrease efficacy. Check with MD or RPh before starting new medications or taking OTC medications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Triamterene + HCTZ

A

Dyazide capsules or Maxzide tablets

Potassium-sparing + thiazide diuretic combo

Take in the early morning. Monitor renal function, potassium levels, and salt intake; not to be used if renal function impaired. Risk of kidney stones; drink plenty of fluids to reduce risk. Double-check patient profile when dispensing generics; patients should remain on tablets or capsules unless MD changes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Spironolactone, Spir/HCTZ

A

Aldactone, Aldactazide

Potassium-sparing diuretic; Aldactazide also contains diuretic

Take in the early morning. Monitor renal function, potassium levels, and salt intake. May cause gynecomastia in males, menstrual irregularities in females (antiandrogenic properties). Evidence-based data for heart failure, post MI, and resistant hypertension. Aldactazide may cause hypersensitivity reactions in individuals with sulfa allergy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Indapamide

A

Lozol

Thiazide diuretic

Take in the early morning. Monitor renal function, potassium levels, and salt intake; not to be used in severe renal impairment, but may be used in minimally impaired renal function. Hypersensitivity reaction may occur in individuals with sulfa allergy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Chlorthalidone

A

Thalidone, Hygroton

Thiazide diuretic

Take in the early morning. Monitor renal function, potassium levels, and salt intake; not to be used if renal function impaired. Hypersensitivity reaction may occur in individuals with sulfa allergy. Chlorthalidone is twice as potent as HCTZ.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Hydrochlorothiazide (aka HCTZ)

A

Oretic, Microzide

Thiazide diuretic

Take in the early morning. Monitor renal function, potassium levels, and salt intake. Hypersensitivity reaction may occur in individuals with sulfa allergy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Metolazone

A

Zaroxolyn

Thiazide diuretic

Take in the early morning. Monitor renal function, electrolytes (esp. potassium and magnesium) and salt intake. Hypersensitivity reaction may occur in individuals with sulfa allergy. Often used in diuretic-resistant patients in combination with loop diuretics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Ondansetron

A

Zofran, Zofran ODT

5-HT3 antagonist Antiemetic

May cause headache, fatigue. Dissolve ODT under the tongue, store in original container until ready to use. QT prolongation possible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Donepezil

A

Aricept

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

Take in the evening. Significant nausea, vomiting and diarrhea possible, as well as anorexia. May also cause bradycardia and fainting. Set realistic expectations for Alzheimer’s patients. Keep in mind positive statistical significance vs. clinical significance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Rivastigmine

A

Exelon, Exelon Patch

Acetylcholinesterase Inhibitor

Take capsules in the evening. Rotate patch application sites. Significant nausea, vomiting and diarrhea possible, as well as anorexia. May also cause bradycardia and fainting. Set realistic expectations for Alzheimer’s patients. Keep in mind positive statistical significance vs. clinical significance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Butalbital + aspirin + caffeine, available with or without codeine

A

Fiorinal, Fiorinal with codeine

Analgesic Combo for Tension Headaches, C-III

May cause drowsiness or dizziness; avoid alcohol use during therapy. Caution against taking other products containing aspirin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Butalbital + acetaminophen + caffeine (sometimes called B-A-C), available with or without codeine

A

Fioricet, Fioricet with codeine

Analgesic Combo for Tension Headaches, C-III if it has codeine

May cause drowsiness or dizziness; avoid alcohol use during therapy. Do not exceed 4g of APAP per day, 3g if frequent alcohol drinker, 2g if taking warfarin. New black box warning with acetaminophen due to hepatotoxicity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Buspirone

A

Buspar

Antianxiety- serotonin 5-HT1A receptor partial agonist

May cause drowsiness or dizziness, slow onset, mildly effective, little potential for abuse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Scopolamine

A

Transderm-Scop

Anticholinergic

May cause drowsiness or dizziness. wash your hands after application as touching your eyes after application may result in blurred vision (dilation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Mirtazapine

A

Remeron

Antidepressant

May cause drowsiness or dizziness, dry mouth, constipation and weight gain. Do not discontinue abruptly. Open from blister and dissolve SolTab on the tongue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Trazodone

A

Desyrel

Antidepressant/Sleep Aid

May cause dizziness/drowsiness/orthostasis, priapism risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Bupropion

A

Wellbutrin (SR) (XL) or Zyban

Antidepressant/smoking cessation aid

Take XL tabs in AM to avoid insomnia, do not crush or chew SR or XL tabs, do not take doses too close or exceeding maximum doses because of seizure risk. Potential side-effects inc nervousness, constipation, trouble sleeping, dry mouth, tremor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Carbamazepine

A

Tegretol (XR)

Antiepileptic

Take with food, may cause drowsiness, avoid alcohol. Serious and sometimes fatal dermatologic reactions (including Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis) have been reported, especially in patients with the inherited allelic variant HLA-B*1502. Genetically at-risk patients (IE those form Asia including China) should be screened prior to receiving carbamazepine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Lamotrigine

A

Lamictal

Antiepileptic

Report hypersensitivity/rash to MD, may cause drowsiness, do not operate heavy machine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Levetiracetam

A

Keppra

Antiepileptic

May cause dizziness/drowsiness, do not operate heavy machinery, do not abruptly discontinue therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Oxcarbazepine

A

Trileptal

Antiepileptic

May cause dizziness/drowsiness, do not operate heavy machinery, do not abruptly discontinue therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Phenytoin Sodium

A

Dilantin Kapseals

Antiepileptic

May cause dizziness/drowsiness, do not operate heavy machinery. Emphasize good oral hygiene to reduce risk of gingival hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Divalproex

A

Depakote (ER)

Antiepileptic, mood stabilizer

Do not abruptly discontinue therapy, avoid alcohol use, may cause drowsiness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Phenobarbital

A

Phenobarbital

Antiepileptic/hypnotic; C-IV

May cause drowsiness or dizziness, avoid alcohol use during therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Topiramate

A

Topamax

Antiepileptic/Migraine prophylactic

May cause drowsiness or dizziness, avoid alcohol use during therapy. Confusion (“Dopamax”) and it is now FDA approved in a combination with phentermine in extended release - Qsymia (C-IV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Gabapentin

A

Neurontin

Antiepileptic/neuropathic analgesic

May cause drowsiness or dizziness, avoid alcohol use during therapy. Edema, weight gain and confusion as common side effects, as well as generally need to titrate slowly to higher doses as this agent has dose related kinetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Hydroxyzine hydrochloride

A

Atarax

Antihistamine

May cause anticholinergic side-effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Eletriptan

A

Relpax

Antimigraine, 5-HT1 agonist

Take at onset of migraine. If headache is relieved but returns after 1st dose, repeat in 2 hours. Do not exceed 2 doses or 80mg in a 24 hour period. If 1st dose does not relieve symptoms, reevaluate condition. Ischemic cardiovascular events possible. Drug interactions with CYP 3A4 substrates and ergot derivatives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Rizatriptan

A

Maxalt, Maxalt MLT

Antimigraine, 5-HT1 agonist

Take at onset of migraine. If headache is relieved but returns after 1st dose, repeat in 2 hours. Do not exceed 2 doses or 30mg in a 24 hour period. If 1st dose does not relieve symptoms, reevaluate condition. Ischemic cardiovascular events possible. Drug interactions with ergot derivatives. Dissolvable tablets contain phenylalanine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Sumatriptan

A

Imitrex

Antimigraine, 5-HT1 agonist

Take at onset of migraine. If headache is relieved but returns after 1st dose, repeat in 2 hours. Do not exceed 2 doses or 200mg in a 24 hour period. If 1st dose does not relieve symptoms, reevaluate condition. Ischemic cardiovascular events possible. Drug interactions with ergot derivatives. Available in oral tablet, injection kit, and nasal spray.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Benztropine

A

Cogentin

Antiparkinson Agent

May take with food to decrease GI symptoms. Potential anticholinergic side-effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Levodopa/Carbidopa

A

Sinemet (CR)

Antiparkinson Agent

Avoid products containing B6 as they reduce the effectiveness of levodopa, may be taken with food/milk if GI upset occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Pramipexole

A

Mirapex

Antiparkinson Agent

Hallucinations may occur, report any changes in vision to MD, may cause drowsiness and even sleep attacks (falling asleep without warning)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Ropinirole

A

Requip

Antiparkinson/Restless Leg agent

May cause drowsiness or dizziness, avoid alcohol use during therapy, orthostasis may occur. May also cause sleep attacks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Olanzapine

A

Zyprexa

Antipsychotic

Initially may cause dizziness, use caution when operating heavy machinery due to drowsiness, may cause wt gain, DM and dyslipidemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Quetiapine

A

Seroquel (XR)

Antipsychotic

Initially may cause dizziness, use caution when operating heavy machinery due to drowsiness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Risperidone

A

Risperdal

Antipsychotic

First doses may cause fainting, may impair judgment, avoid alcohol use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Ziprasidone

A

Geodon

Antipsychotic

May cause arrhythmias, do not discontinue use abruptly, take with food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Aripiprazole

A

Abilify

Antipsychotic for bipolar, schizophrenia, and major depressive disorder

Avoid alcohol, D/I 3A4, QT prolongation, do not discontinue abruptly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Meclizine

A

Antivert

Antivertigo Agent

Potential anticholinergic side-effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Alprazolam

A

Xanax (XR)

Benzodiazepine Antianxiety, C-IV

Do not exceed prescribed dose, do not take with alcohol, may cause drowsiness/dizziness, do not operate heavy machinery, avoid abrupt discontinuation

122
Q

Clonazepam

A

Klonopin

Benzodiazepine Antianxiety; C-IV

Do not exceed prescribed dose, do not take with alcohol, may cause drowsiness/dizziness, do not operate heavy machinery

123
Q

Diazepam

A

Valium

Benzodiazepine Antianxiety; C-IV

Do not exceed prescribed dose, do not take with alcohol, may cause drowsiness/dizziness, do not operate heavy machinery

124
Q

Lorazepam

A

Ativan

Benzodiazepine Antianxiety; C-IV

Do not exceed prescribed dose, do not take with alcohol, may cause drowsiness/dizziness, do not operate heavy machinery

125
Q

Temazepam

A

Restoril

Benzodiazepine Antianxiety; C-IV

Do not exceed prescribed dose, do not take with alcohol, may cause drowsiness/dizziness, do not operate heavy machinery

126
Q

Phentermine

A

Adipex-P

CNS stimulant - Obesity Management; C-IV

Cardiovascular risk caution, take in the morning,

127
Q

Methylphenidate

A

Concerta or Ritalin (ER) or Metadate CD

CNS Stimulant for ADD, C-II

Take as directed, don’t share your pills

128
Q

Atomoxetine

A

Strattera

CNS Stimulant, used for ADD

May impair cognitive & motor function, use caution when operating machinery, not a drug of abuse

129
Q

(Dex)/Amphetamine Mixed salts

A

Adderall (XR)

CNS Stimulant, used for ADD; C-II

Take as directed, don’t share your pills

130
Q

Lisdexamfetamine

A

Vyvanse

CNS Stimulant, used for ADHD; C-II

Take as directed, don’t share your pills

131
Q

Modafinil

A

Provigil

CNS Stimulant, used for narcolepsy; C-IV

Take in morning or 1 hour prior to work, avoid driving until deemed safe by MD

132
Q

Dexmethylphenidate

A

Focalin (XR)

CNS stimulant; C-II

Take as directed, don’t share your pills

133
Q

Zaleplon

A

Sonata

hypnotic, nonbenzodiazepine; C-IV

Take 30min to 1h prior to desired sleep, Allocate at least 5 hours after a dose to sleep (T ½ ~1 hour)

134
Q

Cyclobenzaprine

A

Flexeril

Muscle Relaxant

May cause drowsiness or dizziness and other anticholinergic side-effects, avoid alcohol use during therapy

135
Q

Metaxalone

A

Skelaxin

Muscle Relaxant

Least drowsy muscle relaxant, requires frequent dosing

136
Q

Carisoprodol

A

Soma

Muscle Relaxant; C-IV

Drug of abuse, may be scheduled in some states, caution for drowsiness

137
Q

Fentanyl

A

Duragesic

Narcotic Analgesic; C-II

Caution for respiratory depression, do not exceed prescribed dose. Avoid exposing patch on the skin to heat as it will increase the delivery of the fentanyl and increase the risk of toxicity, dispose of the used patch by folding over and flushing it, be careful when starting therapy and remember the patch is used for several days normally 72 hours but may see it changed every 48 hours in some patients. Caution in narcotic naive patients as it is 80-100 times more potent analgesic than morphine.

138
Q

Morphine Sulfate

A

MS Contin

Narcotic Analgesic; C-II

Risk of CNS and respiratory depression, avoid alcohol, may cause drowsiness/dizziness, do not operate heavy machinery, constipation

139
Q

Oxycodone

A

Oxycontin

Narcotic Analgesic; C-II

CNS depression, avoid alcohol, may cause drowsiness/dizziness, do not operate heavy machinery, constipation

140
Q

Oxycodone/APAP

A

Percocet or Roxicet

Narcotic Analgesic; C-II

CNS depression, avoid alcohol, may cause drowsiness/dizziness, do not operate heavy machinery, constipation. APAP combination dose will be reduced to no more than 325mg per tablet in the next year. Consider the total daily dose of acetaminophen from all sources.

141
Q

Acetaminophen/ Codeine

A

Tylenol with Codeine

Narcotic Analgesic; C-III

CNS depression, avoid alcohol, may cause drowsiness/dizziness, do not operate heavy machinery, constipation. Consider the total daily dose of acetaminophen from all sources.

142
Q

Hydrocodone / chlorpheniramine Polistirex

A

Tussionex

Narcotic Analgesic; C-III

CNS depression, avoid alcohol, may cause drowsiness/dizziness, do not operate heavy machinery, constipation, taking with food may decrease some GI upset, Max dose 5mls BID

143
Q

Hydrocodone/Ibuprofen

A

Vicoprofen

Narcotic Analgesic; C-III

CNS depression, avoid alcohol, may cause drowsiness/dizziness, do not operate heavy machinery, constipation, taking with food may decrease some GI upset

144
Q

Hydrocodone/APAP

A

1 prescribed drug! CNS depression, avoid alcohol, may cause drowsiness/dizziness, do not operate heavy machinery, avoid concomitant said drugs, constipation. Vicodin reformulated to contain only 300mg of APAP per dose to avoid generic competition and to meet new FDA requirement.

Lortab or Vicodin or Lorcet

Narcotic/APAP Analgesic - CIII

145
Q

Pregabalin

A

Lyrica

Neuropathic Analgesic - CV

May cause drowsiness, do not discontinue therapy abruptly. Weight gain, edema and confusion are potential side-effects

146
Q

Varenicline Tartrate

A

Chantix

Nicotinic receptor agonist, Smoking cessation

Usually titrated upward. Most effective smoking cessation agent to date ~ 44% at 12 weeks, also watch for night mares and any changes in affect and/or behavior and report them to the prescriber. Side-effects may be dose related.

147
Q

Memantine

A

Namenda

NMDA receptor antagonist; anti-Alzheimer’s agent

Take in the evening, potential N & D, dizziness and agitation possible. Set realistic expectations. Keep in mind positive statistical significance vs. clinical significance. Take without regard to food

148
Q

Enteric Diclofenac sodium, Diclofenac potassium (non-enteric coated formulation)

A

Voltaren, Cataflam

NSAID

Take with food, monitor for s/sx of GI bleed. CV and renal risks. Enteric coated diclofenac sodium, slow onset not for PRN pain, greater risk of hepatotoxicity vs. other NSAIDs, use the Cataflam-diclofenac potassium non-enteric coated formulation if for PRN use for pain

149
Q

Etodolac

A

Lodine (XL)

NSAID

Take with food, monitor for s/sx of GI bleed. CV and renal risks.

150
Q

Indomethacin

A

Indocin

NSAID

Take with food, monitor for s/sx of GI bleed.CV and renal risks. Most likely NSAID to cause headache and CNS side-effects.

151
Q

Ketorolac Tromethamine

A

Toradol

NSAID

Take with food, monitor for s/sx of GI bleed. Very high risk of GI bleeding limits this drug to 5 days max of therapy. CV and renal risks.

152
Q

Meloxicam

A

Mobic

NSAID

Take with food, monitor for s/sx of GI bleed. CV and renal risks.

153
Q

Nabumetone

A

Relafen

NSAID

Take with food, monitor for s/sx of GI bleed. CV and renal risks.

154
Q

Naproxen

A

Naprosyn, Anaprox/Aleve

NSAID

Take with food, monitor for s/sx of GI bleed. CV and renal risks. Naproxen sodium Aleve/Anaprox fast onset sodium salt vs. regular naproxen-Naprosyn which is slow onset and used for chronic Rx of OA and RA not acute pain relief

155
Q

Piroxicam

A

Feldene

NSAID

Take with food, monitor for s/sx of GI bleed, CV and renal risks.

156
Q

Ibuprofen

A

Motrin or Advil

NSAID

Take with food, monitor for s/sx of GI bleed. CV and renal risks. Motrin at low doses (IE OTC it is analgesic and antipyretic) but if you need anti-inflammatory effects then you need higher doses 2400 to 3200 mg/day

157
Q

Celecoxib

A

Celebrex

NSAID Cox - II selective

Report s/sx of GI bleed, caution for CV risk like all NSAIDS, Not safer for renal function but may be slightly safer for GI bleeding risks

158
Q

Diclofenac/Misoprostol

A

Arthrotec

NSAID/prostaglandin combo

Take with food, Misoprostol may decrease GI bleeding risks. CV and renal risks. Avoid in pregnancy. Diarrhea may be a common side effect of the prostaglandin component

159
Q

Tramadol

A

Ultram, Ultram ER

Opioid analgesic

May cause drowsiness; avoid alcohol. Drug is scheduled in some states but not by the DEA. Some risk of dependence due to weak opioid receptor agonist activity. Drug also has some serotonin reuptake inhibitor properties; caution against GI effects, serotonin syndrome, increased seizure risk, and drug interactions (especially with SSRIs, SNRIs, 5-HT1 agonists/triptans)

160
Q

Tramadol + acetaminophen

A

Ultracet

Opioid analgesic combo

May cause drowsiness; avoid alcohol. Drug is scheduled in some states but not by the DEA. Some risk of dependence due to weak opioid receptor agonist activity. Drug also has some serotonin reuptake inhibitor properties; caution against GI effects, serotonin syndrome, increased seizure risk, and drug interactions (especially with SSRIs, SNRIs, 5-HT1 agonists/triptans). Do not exceed 4g of APAP per day, 3g if frequent alcohol drinker, 2g/day if taking warfarin. New black box warning with acetaminophen due to hepatotoxicity.

161
Q

Hydroxyzine pamoate

A

Vistaril

Antihistamine/antianxiety

May cause anticholinergic side-effects.

162
Q

Fluoxetine

A

Prozac or Sarafem

SSRI Antidepressant

May cause drowsiness or dizziness, avoid alcohol use during therapy. Prozac longest half-life SSRI (metabolite norfluoxetine T1/2 is ~ 9 days) hence the Prozac weekly dosage form; also most activating of the SSRIs AM dosing not PM and a major inhibitor of CYP 2D6

163
Q

Acetaminophen

A

Tylenol

Pain, antipyretic

Limit total daily dose

164
Q

Eszopiclone

A

Lunesta

Sedative Hypnotic

Do not take with alcohol, take 30min prior to bed. has a long half-life of ~6 hours and thus an increased risk of morning residual sedation, ~40% of patients complain of a bitter taste the morning after, Need to have at least 8 hours to sleep after a dose and all of these agents can cause complex sleep behaviors (walking, eating, driving, etc.) Do not put yourself in a position where impairment may lead to increased risk of an accident until you know how you respond to the medication.

165
Q

Zolpidem

A

Ambien (CR)

Sedative Hypnotic; C-IV

Do not take with alcohol, take 30min prior to bed. Same issues as Lunesta. New lower dosing guidelines for women.

166
Q

Desvenlafaxine

A

Pristiq

SNRI antidepressant

Avoid alcohol, do not discontinue abruptly, no added benefit over venlafaxine -recommend generic venlafaxine

167
Q

Duloxetine

A

Cymbalta

SNRI Antidepressant

Do not abruptly discontinue therapy. report any changes in affect and or behavior as psychiatric side effects including suicidal ideation is possible

168
Q

Venlafaxine

A

Effexor (XR)

SNRI Antidepressant

Avoid alcohol, do not discontinue abruptly, monitor BP

169
Q

Citalopram

A

Celexa

SSRI Antidepressant

May cause drowsiness, do not discontinue therapy abruptly. new dosage guidelines of no more than 40 mg/day and avoid in patients with CV disease as it has been shown to increase QT interval (previously recommended for patients with CV disease now only sertraline remains in this category)

170
Q

Escitalopram

A

Lexapro

SSRI Antidepressant

May cause drowsiness, do not discontinue therapy abruptly, recommend generic Celexa for cost savings

171
Q

Paroxetine

A

Paxil (CR)

SSRI Antidepressant

May cause drowsiness, do not discontinue therapy abruptly. Paxil most likely agent to cause discontinuation syndrome, short half-life and also most tricyclic like of the SSRI’s I.e. sedation, and a major inhibitor of CYP 2D6. New 7.5 mg dose and Brand name drug approved for hot flashes related to menopause.

172
Q

Sertraline

A

Zoloft

SSRI Antidepressant

May cause drowsiness or dizziness, avoid alcohol use during therapy. Drug of choice for patients with CV disease and MDD (SAD Heart and ENRICHED Trials, as well as ACC/AHA/APA Guidelines

173
Q

Lidocaine

A

Lidoderm Patches

Topical analgesic

Do not apply to broken skin, do not leave patches on for more than 12 hours in a 24 hour period

174
Q

Amitriptyline

A

Elavil

Tricyclic Antidepressant

May cause drowsiness or dizziness, avoid alcohol use during therapy. Rarely used for depression and usually used in low doses for off label uses (headaches, pain, neuropathy) as it is a side effect of this agent and it is not well tolerated secondary to anticholinergic effects, risk of overdose causing CV death and arrhythmias, caution for suicidal ideation.

175
Q

Imipramine

A

Tofranil (PM)

Tricyclic Antidepressant

May cause drowsiness or dizziness, avoid alcohol use during therapy. Also has significant anticholinergic effects and risk of overdose like Elavil

176
Q

Lithium Carbonate

A

Eskalith or Lithobid

Mood Stabilizer

Do not exceed recommended doses, consume 2-3 quarts of water qday. monitor serum levels and watch out for drug interactions with thiazide diuretics which require a dosage reduction of lithium

177
Q

Adapalene

A

Differin

Topical Acne Product

Acne may worsen before it improves; using more than recommended increases risk of skin reactions. Use as little product as can cover the face or affected areas with a thin film. Caution against sun exposure and recommend using sunscreen.

178
Q

Clindamycin/Benzoyl Peroxide

A

Benzaclin

Topical Acne Product

May cause skin irritation, use a sparing amount. Topical acne products remind patients that their acne may get worse before it gets better and exceeding the recommended doses will increase the risk of severe adverse effects

179
Q

Erythromycin/Benzoyl Peroxide

A

Benzamycin

Topical Acne Product

May cause skin irritation, use a sparing amount. Topical acne products remind patients that their acne may get worse before it gets better and exceeding the recommended doses will increase the risk of severe adverse effects

180
Q

Clobetasol

A

Clobex

Topical Corticosteroid

Use a sparing amount, avoid application on face and around eyes

181
Q

Mometasone

A

Elocon

Topical Corticosteroid

Use a sparing amount, avoid application on face and around eyes

182
Q

Triamcinolone

A

Kenalog

Topical Corticosteroid

Use a sparing amount, avoid application around eyes, available in ointment, cream and lotion

183
Q

Pimecrolimus

A

Elidel

Topical skin product

Black Box warning due to cancer risk

184
Q

Clotrimazole/Betamethasone Diproprionate

A

Lotrisone

Topical Antifungal/Corticosteroid

Use a sparing amount, avoid application on face and around eyes

185
Q

Fluocinonide topical

A

Lidex, Lidex-E, Vanos

Topical Corticosteroid

Use a sparing amount, avoid application on face and around eyes

186
Q

Finasteride

A

Propecia or Proscar

5 alpha reductase inhibitor

Pregnant women should not handle, will not regrow hair but will prevent additional hair loss. new data on sexual dysfunction which may not be reversible in men, when used for BPH they are not rapidly effective and may take 6 plus months to shrink and enlarged prostate and produce a reduction in symptoms, probably best when used in combo with an alpha blocker to reduce symptoms and prevent or delay the need for surgical intervention

187
Q

isotretinoin

A

Accutane or Claravis

Acne treatment

Must follow REMS system for isotretinoin dispensing and counseling. teratogenic category X, adverse lipid effects especially increased TG and psychiatric effects and as with the topical products acne may get worse before it gets better

188
Q

Testosterone

A

AndroGel

Androgen; C-III

Use as directed to upper arm and shoulder and not to genitals. Women and children should avoid contact with this medication; men with BPH may get worse

189
Q

Metformin

A

Glucophage (XR), Fortamet

Antidiabetic - Biguanide

Counsel on GI upset, diarrhea and best titration to minimize symptoms, may lead to B12 deficiency related neuropathy

190
Q

Sitagliptin, Sit+Metformin

A

Januvia, Janumet (XR)

Take without regard to food, risk of pancreatitis

191
Q

Saxagliptin

A

Onglyza

Antidiabetic - Dipeptidyl peptidase IV inhibitor

Take without regard to food, risk of pancreatitis, concomitant use of CYP3A4 Inh - use 2.5mg instead of 5 mg QD.

192
Q

Glimepiride

A

Amaryl

Antidiabetic - Sulfonylurea

Take with breakfast, avoid alcohol use, counsel on hypoglycemic risk

193
Q

Glipizide

A

Glucotrol (XL)

Antidiabetic - Sulfonylurea

May cause hypoglycemia due to active metabolites

194
Q

Glyburide, Glyburide/Metformin

A

Micronase, Glucovance

Antidiabetic - Sulfonylurea

Take with breakfast, avoid alcohol use. Has an active metabolite which is renally eliminated and thus increased risk of hypoglycemia and weight gain as patients age, may also increase CV events and no longer a recommended agent by the ADA

195
Q

Pioglitazone

A

Actos

Antidiabetic - Thiazolidinedione

Take without regard to meals, increased risk of fractures, macular edema, heart failure, weight gain and edema as well as bladder CA in men.

196
Q

Exenatide, Exenatide weekly

A

Byetta, Bydureon

Antidiabetic Glucagon-Like Peptide-1 Receptor Agonist

Counsel on pen injection technique. Nausea and vomiting tend to be dose related and transient start with 5 mcg daily dose and after a month increase to 10 mcg dose, watch for signs of pancreatitis and can be dosed 60 min or less before meals twice a day

197
Q

Liraglutide

A

Victoza

Antidiabetic Glucagon-Like Peptide-1 Receptor Agonist

Counsel on pen injection technique. Nausea and vomiting tend to be dose related and transient, watch for signs of pancreatitis. Box warning - Rodent studies - risk of thyroid C-cell tumors.

198
Q

Alendronate

A

Fosamax

Bisphosphonate Osteoporosis Agent

Take on an empty stomach with a full glass of water, must sit or stand for 30 minutes following the dose, osteonecrosis of jaw and atypical fractures

199
Q

Ibandronate

A

Boniva

Bisphosphonate Osteoporosis Agent

Take on an empty stomach with a full glass of water, must sit or stand for 60 minutes following the dose. osteonecrosis of jaw and atypical fractures

200
Q

Risedronate, delayed release enteric coated risedronate

A

Actonel, Atelvia

Bisphosphonate Osteoporosis Agent

Take on an empty stomach with a full glass of water, must sit or stand for 30-60 minutes following the dose. Atelvia is enteric coated formulation which should be taken after breakfast but not available as generic. osteonecrosis of jaw and atypical fractures

201
Q

Estrogen/Methyltestosterone

A

Estratest (HS)

Combination Hormone

CV, thromboembolic caution

202
Q

Estradiol/Norethindrone

A

Combipatch

Estrogen and Progestin Combination

Stable at room temperature for 3 months

203
Q

Conjugated Estrogens

A

Premarin

Estrogen hormone

May take with food to decrease GI symptoms

204
Q

Estradiol

A

Climara, Estrace

Estrogen Hormone

CV, thromboembolic caution

205
Q

Raloxifene

A

Evista

Estrogen receptor modulator, Post-menopausal Osteoporosis

CV risk and thromboembolic black box warnings, may inc TGs, myalgia. May cause or worsen hot flashes

206
Q

Conjugated Estrogens with medroxyprogesterone

A

Prempro or Premphase

Estrogen-Progestin hormone combo

increased risk of CV and DVT as well as dementia with long term therapy, report any abnormal vaginal bleeding

207
Q

Colchicine

A

Colcrys

Gout - Inflammatory Mediator

Long-term therapy requires blood work. no more than 3 tablets for an acute attack with similar efficacy to 8 tablets but with much less risk of GI toxicity

208
Q

Allopurinol

A

Zyloprim

Gout - Xanthine Oxidase Inhibitor

Consume large amounts of fluids to prevent kidney stone formation. start with 100 mg QD after an acute gout attack has subsided and gradually increase the dose at no more than weekly interval to about 300 mg QD to reduce the risk of mobilization gout, may also add low dose colchicine 1-2 tabs per day for prevention of mobilization gout, D/C at first signs of a rash

209
Q

Febuxostat

A

Uloric

Gout - Xanthine Oxidase Inhibitor

Same as allopurinol but may be safe in patients with a history of adverse skin reactions to allopurinol.

210
Q

Medroxyprogesterone Acetate

A

Provera

Hormone/Progestin

May take with food to decrease GI symptoms, preg cat: X, may lead to uterine bleeding irregularities, long term use may decrease bone mineral density

211
Q

Insulin - regular

A

Humulin R

Insulin - Fast Acting

counsel on injection technique and hypoglycemia, take 15-30 min prior to meal

212
Q

Insulin - NPH

A

Humulin N

Insulin - Intermediate Acting

counsel on injection technique and hypoglycemia

213
Q

Insulin Detemir

A

Levemir

Insulin - Intermediate-Long acting

cannot be mixed with another insulin

214
Q

Insulin Glargine

A

Lantus

Insulin - Long Acting

cannot be mixed with another insulin, May have an increase in injection site pain/rxn

215
Q

Insulin Aspart

A

Novolog

Insulin - Rapid Acting

Take immediately before meals, counsel on injection technique and hypoglycemia

216
Q

Insulin Lispro

A

Humalog

Insulin - Rapid Acting

Take immediately before meals, counsel on injection technique and hypoglycemia

217
Q

Insulin Glulisine

A

Apidra

Insulin - Rapid Acting

Take immediately before meals, counsel on injection technique and hypoglycemia

218
Q

Ethinyl Estradiol/ Drospirenone

A

Yasmin, Ocella, Yaz

Oral contraceptive

Take everyday - counsel on missed dose protocol, caution with antibiotics. new warnings about increased risk of VTEs especially in older women and those who smoke ; risk of hyperkalemia

219
Q

Ethinyl Estradiol / Desogestrel

A

Kariva, Ortho-Cept, Mircette, Desogen or Apri

Oral contraceptive

Take everyday - counsel on missed dose protocol, caution with antibiotics. new warnings about increased risk of VTEs especially in older women and those who smoke ; risk of hyperkalemia

220
Q

Ethinyl Estradiol / Levonorgestrel

A

Aviane, Alesse

Oral contraceptive

Take everyday - counsel on missed dose protocol, caution with antibiotics. new warnings about increased risk of VTEs especially in older women and those who smoke ; risk of hyperkalemia

221
Q

Norethindrone/Ethinyl Estradiol,Fe+

A

Loestrin FE

Oral contraceptive

Take at same time everyday, counsel on missed dose protocol. Caution with antibiotics, smoking

222
Q

Norgestimate & Ethinyl Estradiol

A

TriNessa, Tri-Sprintec

Oral contraceptive

Take at same time everyday, counsel on missed dose protocol. Caution with antibiotics, smoking

223
Q

Norgestimate/Ethinyl Estradiol

A

Ortho Tri-Cyclen (Lo)

Oral contraceptive

Take at same time everyday, counsel on missed dose protocol. Caution with antibiotics, smoking

224
Q

Ethinyl Estradiol / Norelgestromin

A

Ortho Evra

Patch contraceptive

Each patch should remain in place for 7 days, CV risk, smoking risk

225
Q

Insulin 70% NPH/ 30 % Regular

A

Novolin 70/30, Humulin 70/30

Pre-Mixed insulin

counsel on injection technique and hypoglycemia, 1st # is percent of intermediate release insulin and second is fast acting

226
Q

Insulin 70% protamine/ 30 % rapid acting

A

Novalog Mix 70/30, Humalog Mix 75/25

Pre-Mixed insulin

counsel on injection technique and hypoglycemia, 1st # is percent of intermediate release insulin and second is rapid acting

227
Q

Medroxyprogesterone

A

Depo-Provera

Progestin Contraceptive

May cause weight gain, preg cat: X, may lead to uterine bleeding irregularities, long term use may decrease bone mineral density

228
Q

Prednisone

A

Deltasone

Steroid Anti-inflammatory

Take with food, may cause agitation, insomnia

229
Q

Methylprednisolone

A

Medrol

Steroid anti-inflammatory/allergy

Take with food, may cause agitation, insomnia

230
Q

Desiccated thyroid

A

Armour thyroid

Thyroid Hormone

Take on an empty stomach in the morning

231
Q

Levothyroxine

A

Synthroid or Levoxyl

Thyroid Hormone (synthetic T4)

Narrow Therapeutic Index Drug: Take on an empty stomach in the morning with full glass of water at least 30 minutes prior to food (Do not take close to Calcium), Stay on specific brand or generic due to bioavailability issues, TSH monitoring (many dosages available from 25mcg to 300 mcg for fine tuning), adverse drug reactions early on often due to too high of dosing (med induced hyperthyroidism - heat intolerance and sweating, frequent bowel movements, restlessness, tachycardias, hair loss). Pregnancy Cat A:may need to increase dose in pregnancy, drug instable in light and humidity. Levothyroxine FDA Orange Book 4 sub categories of AB ratings (i.e. AB1, AB2,AB3 and AB4) so be careful when switching between brands and generic manufacturers stay within the same AB subclass; takes 4 weeks to reach new steady state levels and TSH may lag another 2-3 weeks

232
Q

Estradiol

A

Vivelle-Dot, Estraderm

Topical estrogen patch

Counsel on twice weekly patch application. Note: Climara is once-weekly patch

233
Q

Ethinyl Estradiol / Etonogestrel

A

NuvaRing

Vaginal contraceptive

Counsel on vaginal application, 3 weeks in, 1 week off

234
Q

Estradiol

A

Vagifem

Vaginal estrogen

Counsel on vaginal tablet use with Vagifem

235
Q

Dicyclomine

A

Bentyl

Anticholinergic for cramping/irritable bowel

May cause dry mouth, dizziness. Avoid alcohol use.

236
Q

Hyoscyamine

A

Levsin/Levbid/Levsinex

Anticholinergic for cramping/irritable bowel

Take before meals. May experience dizziness, blurred vision, constipation.

237
Q

Loperamide

A

Imodium

Antidiarrheal

May cause drowsiness, contact MD if diarrhea persists longer than 48 hours

238
Q

Diphenoxylate/Atropine

A

Lomotil

Antidiarrheal; C-V

Do not exceed prescribed dose, anticholinergic side-effects possible

239
Q

Promethazine

A

Phenergan

Antihistamine - Nausea/Vomiting treatment

May cause anticholinergic side-effects.

240
Q

Lubiprostone

A

Amitiza

Chloride Channel Activator

Take with food to decrease nausea

241
Q

Orlistat

A

Xenical

Fat absorption inhibitor

Caution regarding uncontrollable oily bowel movements especially after high fat meal, patient should take supplemental fat soluble vitamins at least 2 hrs prior to orlistat dose

242
Q

Famotidine

A

Pepcid

H 2 Antihistamine

Do not exceed 14 days of OTC therapy unless directed by MD, report severe abdominal pain/discomfort to MD

243
Q

Ranitidine

A

Zantac

H 2 Antihistamine

Do not exceed 14 days of OTC therapy unless directed by MD, report severe abdominal pain/discomfort to MD

244
Q

Polyethylene Glycol

A

Miralax, Glycolax

Laxative

Safe for daily use, one heaping teaspoon dissolved in 8 oz of water once daily as needed

245
Q

Metoclopramide

A

Reglan

Promotility-Antiemetic

Take 30 minutes prior to meal, avoid use with alcohol, associated with extrapyramidal symptoms and depression, caution in elderly

246
Q

Esomeprazole

A

Nexium

Proton Pump Inhibitor

Take 30- 60 min prior to a significant meal. all of these meds are pro-drugs which need to be absorbed in that state and are activated within the parietal cell when the patient stimulates them to secrete acid by eating. They all also have a short half-life of 1-2 hours. Risks include C Diff diarrhea, pneumonia, fractures and low serum magnesium levels in addition to B12 deficiency

247
Q

Lansoprazole

A

Prevacid

Proton Pump Inhibitor

Take 30- 60 min prior to a significant meal. all of these meds are pro-drugs which need to be absorbed in that state and are activated within the parietal cell when the patient stimulates them to secrete acid by eating. They all also have a short half-life of 1-2 hours. Risks include C Diff diarrhea, pneumonia, fractures and low serum magnesium levels in addition to B12 deficiency

248
Q

Omeprazole

A

Prilosec

Proton Pump Inhibitor

Take 30- 60 min prior to a significant meal. all of these meds are pro-drugs which need to be absorbed in that state and are activated within the parietal cell when the patient stimulates them to secrete acid by eating. They all also have a short half-life of 1-2 hours. Risks include C Diff diarrhea, pneumonia, fractures and low serum magnesium levels in addition to B12 deficiency

249
Q

Pantoprazole

A

Protonix

Proton Pump Inhibitor

Take 30- 60 min prior to a significant meal. all of these meds are pro-drugs which need to be absorbed in that state and are activated within the parietal cell when the patient stimulates them to secrete acid by eating. They all also have a short half-life of 1-2 hours. Risks include C Diff diarrhea, pneumonia, fractures and low serum magnesium levels in addition to B12 deficiency

250
Q

Rabeprazole

A

Aciphex

Proton Pump Inhibitor

Take 30- 60 min prior to a significant meal. all of these meds are pro-drugs which need to be absorbed in that state and are activated within the parietal cell when the patient stimulates them to secrete acid by eating. They all also have a short half-life of 1-2 hours. Risks include C Diff diarrhea, pneumonia, fractures and low serum magnesium levels in addition to B12 deficiency

251
Q

Omeprazole/sodium bicarbonate

A

Zegerid

Proton Pump Inhibitor/Antacid combo

Take 30- 60 min prior to a significant meal. all of these meds are pro-drugs which need to be absorbed in that state and are activated within the parietal cell when the patient stimulates them to secrete acid by eating. They all also have a short half-life of 1-2 hours. Risks include C Diff diarrhea, pneumonia, fractures and low serum magnesium levels in addition to B12 deficiency

252
Q

Dutasteride

A

Avodart

BPH - 5 alpha reductase inhibitor

Capsules should not be handled by women, takes time for shrinkage of prostate and symptom relief

253
Q

Tamsulosin

A

Flomax

BPH - selective alpha blocker

Take 30min after the same meal every day. May cause dizziness.

254
Q

Alfuzosin

A

Uroxatral

BPH - selective alpha blocker

Take prior to bedtime to avoid orthostatic hypotensive effects

255
Q

Vardenafil

A

Levitra

Erectile dysfunction - vasodilator

Report erections lasting longer than 4 hours to ER, avoid nitroglycerin use

256
Q

Sildenafil

A

Viagra

Erectile dysfunction - Vasodilator

Report erections lasting longer than 4 hours to ER, avoid nitroglycerin use

257
Q

Tadalafil

A

Cialis

Erectile dysfunction - Vasodilator

Report erections lasting longer than 4 hours to ER, avoid nitroglycerin use

258
Q

Oxybutynin

A

Ditropan (XL)

Urinary Incontinence - Anticholinergic

May cause dry mouth, dizziness. Avoid alcohol use.

259
Q

Tolterodine

A

Detrol (LA)

Urinary Incontinence - Anticholinergic

May cause dry mouth, dizziness. Avoid alcohol use.

260
Q

Darifenacin

A

Enablex

Urinary Incontinence - Anticholinergic

May cause dry mouth, dizziness. Avoid alcohol use.

261
Q

Phenazopyridine

A

Pyridium

Urinary Tract Analgesic

Urine will change to orange-red color …not a cause for alarm, used only for symptom relief and not a cure

262
Q

cholecalciferol

A

Calcitriol

Vitamin D supplement

Take with food to decrease GI problems

263
Q

Brimonidine

A

Alphagan P

Agent for Glaucoma

264
Q

Latanaprost

A

Xalatan

Agent for Glaucoma

265
Q

Timolol

A

Timoptic (XE)

Agent for Glaucoma

266
Q

Travoprost

A

Travatan

Agent for Glaucoma

267
Q

Brimonidine/Timolol

A

Combigan

Alpha II agonist/beta blocker/ antiglaucoma

268
Q

Olopatadine

A

Pataday or Patanol

Antiallergy (ophthalmic)

269
Q

Tobramycin/Dexamethasone

A

Tobradex

Antibiotic/anti-inflammatory (Ophthalmic)

270
Q

Moxifloxacin

A

Vigamox

Antibiotic/Ophthalmic

271
Q

Cyclosporine

A

Restasis

Calcineurin inhibitor (Ophthalmic)

nvert vial several times prior to use to create uniform emulsion. Used every 12 hours.

272
Q

Dorzolamide/Timolol

A

Cosopt

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor/beta blocker/antiglaucoma

273
Q

Gatifloxacin

A

Zymar

Fluoroquinolone (Ophthalmic)

274
Q

Bimatoprost

A

Lumigan

prostaglandin analog for glaucoma treatment

275
Q

Neomycin/polymyxin/hydrocortisone

A

Cortisporin Otic

Otic Antibiotic

276
Q

Ciprofloxacin/Dexamethasone, Ciprofloxacin/Hydrocortisone

A

Ciprodex, Cipro HC

Otic Antibiotic/Corticosteroid

277
Q

Azelastine

A

Astelin

Allergic Rhinitis - Topical H1 antagonist

Prime 4x upon assembly, 2x if left unused for 3 days or more

278
Q

Budesonide Nasal Spray

A

Rhinocort Aqua

Allergic rhinitis -Nasal Steroid

May cause taste distortion, effects seen after several days of therapy, May cause nasal irritation, bleeding

279
Q

Fluticasone

A

Flonase

Allergic rhinitis -Nasal Steroid

May cause dysgeusia (taste distortion), effects seen after several days of therapy, May cause nasal irritation, bleeding

280
Q

Mometasone

A

Nasonex

Allergic rhinitis -Nasal Steroid

May cause dysgeusia (taste distortion), effects seen after several days of therapy, May cause nasal irritation, bleeding

281
Q

Montelukast

A

Singulair

Anti -asthmatic - Leukotriene inhibitor

chewable tablet contains phenylalanine

282
Q

Albuterol

A

Proair HFA or Ventolin HFA or Proventil HFA

Anti- asthmatic - short-acting beta-2 agonist

Available in both MDI and nebulizer soln. Counsel on appropriate device use and prn rescue dosing. May also be use for prophylaxis for exercise-induce asthma. May cause jitteriness, nervousness, tachycardia and decrease effectiveness of beta blockers.

283
Q

levalbuterol

A

Xopenex (HFA)

Anti-asthmatic - short-acting beta-2 agonist

counsel on appropriate MDI use and prn rescue dosing

284
Q

Budesonide Inhalation Suspension

A

Pulmicort Respules, Flexhaler

Anti-asthmatic - Steroid

Some effects seen after first 2 days of therapy, maximum effect seen within first 2 weeks of therapy, not to be used for rescue

285
Q

Fluticasone

A

Flovent

Anti-asthmatic - Steroid

Some effects seen after first 2 days of therapy, maximum effect seen within first 2 weeks of therapy, not to be used for rescue

286
Q

Fluticasone/Salmeterol

A

Advair

Antiasthmatic - Steroid /LA B2 agonist Antiasthmatic - Controller

Diskus: Do not shake after activating, counsel on device technique, not to be used for rescue

287
Q

Albuterol/Ipratropium

A

Respimat or Duoneb

Antiasthmatic/COPD Combo Bronchodilator/Anticholinergic

see albuterol and ipratropium counseling points, Combivent will no longer be available. Respimat is a new device with a counter - pt counseling required.

288
Q

Tiotropium

A

Spiriva HandiHaler

Anticholinergic bronchodilator for COPD

counsel on device technique and once-daily use

289
Q

Ipratropium Bromide

A

Atrovent

Anticholinergic antibrochospasm and antisecretory

Shake well, hold breath for 10 sec after actuation, wait 1 minute for 2nd inhalation, usually very little systemic side-effects because of poor absorption

290
Q

Cetirizine

A

Zyrtec

Antihistamine, 2nd generation H1

May cause drowsiness, dizziness or dry mouth. Available in syrup and tablets

291
Q

Desloratadine

A

Clarinex

Antihistamine, 2nd generation H1

May cause drowsiness, dizziness or dry mouth

292
Q

Loratidine

A

Claritin

Antihistamine, 2nd generation H1

May cause drowsiness, dizziness or dry mouth

293
Q

Fexofenadine (PSE)

A

Allegra (D)

Antihistamine, 2nd generation H1 (+Decongestant)

May cause drowsiness, do not take with fruit juices. PSE may cause insomnia, take D products in AM

294
Q

Guaifenesin

A

Mucinex (D, DM)

Expectorant (+/- decongestant, antitussive)

Take with large glass of water, BID dosing, PSE may cause insomnia, PSE contraindicated in patients with CV risk, hypertension, DM drug interactions

295
Q

Guaifenesin & Codeine

A

Cheratussin AC

Expectorant/Antitussive combo - CV

Take with water, codeine side-effect possible

296
Q

herpes zoster vaccine

A

Zostavax

Herpes Zoster (shingles virus) Vaccine

CDC 60 yrs and above, FDA approved for 50 and above. Decreases risk of shingles and complications, such as postherpetic neuralgia. Not a substitute for varicella vaccine. Separate from Pneumovaz by 4 weeks

297
Q

Human papillomavirus vaccine

A

Gardasil, Cervarix

Human papillomavirus vaccine (HPV)

Potentially prevents cancer. Given in 3 doses over 6 months, Gardasil approved for males also

298
Q

influenza virus vaccine

A

Afluria or Fluvirin or Fluzone

Influenza Virus Vaccine

Once yearly dosing generally recommended before Halloween. Now, a variety of dosage forms available.

299
Q

pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine

A

Pneumovax

Streptococcus Pneumoniae Bacterial Vaccine

Once (or twice) life-time dosing in high risk patients. Pneumovax can now also be given along with Prevnar 13 in older patients with significant risks as of 6-21-12 ACIP Meeting

300
Q

Tetanus, Diphtheria, Pertussis Vaccine

A

Tdap

Tetanus, Diphtheria, Pertussis

booster dose after DTaP series in childhood, can replace a Td booster, preferred administration 11-12 years of age.