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Pharm II Top 200 > Top 200 > Flashcards

Top 200 Flashcards

1
Q

A drug used for GERD, esophagitis, Zolinger-Ellison Syndrome; prodrugs activated by acidity (so do not combo with H2 Blockers), H+/K+ ATPase blockers; chronic use increase risk of gastric atrophy, H.pylori/CAP/HAP/C.diff infection…risk hypochorhydria, decreased absorption of iron/B12/Ca/Mg (should get baseline Mg before starting). PPI.

A

Esomeprazole (Nexium)

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2
Q

A drug used for GERD, esophagitis, Zolinger-Ellison Syndrome; prodrugs activated by acidity (so do not combo with H2 Blockers), H+/K+ ATPase blockers; chronic use increase risk of gastric atrophy, H.pylori/CAP/HAP/C.diff infection…risk hypochorhydria, decreased absorption of iron/B12/Ca/Mg (should get baseline Mg before starting). PPI.

A

Omeprazole (Prilosec)

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3
Q

A drug used for GERD, esophagitis, Zolinger-Ellison Syndrome; prodrugs activated by acidity (so do not combo with H2 Blockers), H+/K+ ATPase blockers; chronic use increase risk of gastric atrophy, H.pylori/CAP/HAP/C.diff infection…risk hypochorhydria, decreased absorption of iron/B12/Ca/Mg (should get baseline Mg before starting). PPI.

A

Pantoprazole (Protonix)

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4
Q

A drug used for GERD, esophagitis, Zolinger-Ellison Syndrome; prodrugs activated by acidity (so do not combo with H2 Blockers), H+/K+ ATPase blockers; chronic use increase risk of gastric atrophy, H.pylori/CAP/HAP/C.diff infection…risk hypochorhydria, decreased absorption of iron/B12/Ca/Mg (should get baseline Mg before starting). PPI.

A

Dexlansoprazole (Dexilant)

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5
Q

A drug used for GERD, esophagitis, Zolinger-Ellison Syndrome; prodrugs activated by acidity (so do not combo with H2 Blockers), H+/K+ ATPase blockers; chronic use increase risk of gastric atrophy, H.pylori/CAP/HAP/C.diff infection…risk hypochorhydria, decreased absorption of iron/B12/Ca/Mg (should get baseline Mg before starting). PPI.

A

Lansoprazole (Prevacid)

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6
Q

A drug used for GERD, esophagitis, Zolinger-Ellison Syndrome; prodrugs activated by acidity (so do not combo with H2 Blockers), H+/K+ ATPase blockers; chronic use increase risk of gastric atrophy, H.pylori/CAP/HAP/C.diff infection…risk hypochorhydria, decreased absorption of iron/B12/Ca/Mg (should get baseline Mg before starting). PPI.

A

Rabeprazole (Aciphex)

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7
Q

Mild-moderate intermittent GERD, prophylaxis before meals/exercise, effective in combo with antacids; renally excreted so caution in renal impairment

A

Ranitidine (Zantac)

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8
Q

Mild-moderate intermittent GERD, prophylaxis before meals/exercise, effective in combo with antacids; renally excreted so caution in renal impairment

A

Famotidine (Pepcid)

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9
Q

Anti-inflammatory, glucocorticoid replacement in adrenal insufficiency etc.

A

Prednisone (Deltasone) - (Corticosteroid)

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10
Q

Anti-inflammatory, glucocorticoid replacement in adrenal insufficiency etc.

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Methylprednisone (Medrol) - (Corticosteroid)

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11
Q

Chemo, autoimmune dz, abortion, molar pregnancy etc.

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Methotrexate (MTX) - (Immunomodulator)

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12
Q

N/V from chemo/radiation/surgery/gastroenteritis/migraines (NOT motion sickness)

A

Ondansetron (Zofran) - (5-HTE)

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13
Q

N/V and prokinetic effects (promotes gastric emptying and SI peristalsis)

A

Metoclopramide (Reglan) - (Dopamine blocker D2)

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14
Q

N/V associated with motion sickness, vestibulocochlear dz i.e. vertigo

A

Promethazine (Phenergan) - (antihistamine H1 and D2 blocker)

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15
Q

N/V associated with motion sickness, vestibulocochlear dz i.e. vertigo

A

Meclizine (Dramamine) - (antihistamine)

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16
Q

HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitor. Competitive inhibition of rate-limiting enzyme for cholesterol synthesis; pleiotropic effects (CV, renal, endocrine, bone); best taken at bedtime or with dinner. Monitor AST/ALT prior/12 wks after starting/every 6mo; CYP 450 3A4 inhibitors (except Rosu and Prav); C/I in pregnancy, liver and renal dz.

A

Atorvastatin (Lipitor)

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17
Q

HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitor. Competitive inhibition of rate-limiting enzyme for cholesterol synthesis; pleiotropic effects (CV, renal, endocrine, bone); best taken at bedtime or with dinner. Monitor AST/ALT prior/12 wks after starting/every 6mo; CYP 450 3A4 inhibitors (except Rosu and Prav); C/I in pregnancy, liver and renal dz.

A

Simvastatin (Zocor)

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18
Q

HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitor. Competitive inhibition of rate-limiting enzyme for cholesterol synthesis; pleiotropic effects (CV, renal, endocrine, bone); best taken at bedtime or with dinner. Monitor AST/ALT prior/12 wks after starting/every 6mo; CYP 450 3A4 inhibitors (except Rosu and Prav); C/I in pregnancy, liver and renal dz.

A

Rosuvastatin (Crestor)

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19
Q

HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitor. Competitive inhibition of rate-limiting enzyme for cholesterol synthesis; pleiotropic effects (CV, renal, endocrine, bone); best taken at bedtime or with dinner. Monitor AST/ALT prior/12 wks after starting/every 6mo; CYP 450 3A4 inhibitors (except Rosu and Prav); C/I in pregnancy, liver and renal dz.

A

Pravastatin (Pravachol)

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20
Q

Lowers TG; inhibits lipolysis, increases lipoprotein lipase (LPL); reduces major coronary events. PPARα agonist, fibrate. Hepatotoxicity, neutropenia, myopathy (C/I if CPK 10x normal); avoid in women, Native American, obese.

A

Fenofibrate (TriCor)

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21
Q

Lowers TG; inhibits lipolysis, increases lipoprotein lipase (LPL); reduces major coronary events. PPARα agonist, fibrate. Hepatotoxicity, neutropenia, myopathy (C/I if CPK 10x normal); avoid in women, Native American, obese.

A

Gemfibrozil (Lopid)

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22
Q

Inhibits SI absorption of cholesterol. Decreases total cholesterol, LDL-C and TG; increases HDL. May increase ALT/AST elevation in combo with statin.

A

Ezetimibe (Zetia)

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23
Q

Mixed hyperlipoproteinemia; adjunct to raise HDL and decrease TG. C/I in gout/PUD/liver dz/DM; myopathy and hepatotoxicity risk with statins, hypotn with BP lowering drugs, worsens glucose tolerance.

A

Niacin (Niaspin)

24
Q

Fish oil. Decrease CHD events; lower TG, raises LDL at high dose, minimal effect on HDL.

A

Omega 3 (Lovaza)

25
Q

A2RB. HTN; renal protective and can be First Line for DM pt. No cough like with ACEI; C/I in preg and renal stenosis.

A

Irbesartan (Avapro)

26
Q

DMII First Choice; hepatic gluconeogenesis inhibition, increased insulin sensitivity. Lactic acidosis risk; C/I in renal impairment and metabolic acidosis; no weight gain, rarely hypoglycemia.

A

Metformin (Glucophage)

27
Q

Sulfonylurea. DMII; increases insulin secretion, high dose decreases glucagon release and hepatic gluconeogenesis; not effective if severe diabetic with few viable beta cells. Hypoglycemia, weight gain; give 30min prior to 1st main meal.

A

Glipizide (Glucotrol)

28
Q

Sulfonylurea. DMII; increases insulin secretion, high dose decreases glucagon release and hepatic gluconeogenesis; not effective if severe diabetic with few viable beta cells. Hypoglycemia, weight gain.

A

Glyburide (Diabeta)

29
Q

DM I. Hypoglycemia, weight gain, hypokalemia.Basal insulin.

A

Insulin (Lantus)

30
Q

DMII; increased insulin sensitivity in fat/liver/skeletal muscle; increased LDL&HDL. Black box CHF; rapid weight gain, edema, new onset HF; C/I alcoholism, liver dz/elevated enzymes, HF class III/IV.

A

Pioglitazone (Actos)

31
Q

DDP-4 Inhibitor. DMII; prevents degradation of GLP-1, increases insulin and decreases glucagon release. Adjust for CrCl; no weight gain, no hypoglycemia.

A

Sitagliptin (Januvia)

32
Q

Hypothyroid First Choice; brands not interchangeable. C/I in thyrotoxicosis; several drug interactions (lithium, amiodarone, warfarin, OCP/estrogen, separate dosing from drugs altering absorption, watch out for drugs increasing metab.

A

Levothyroxine (Synthroid)

33
Q

Non-selective COX inhibitor; lower risk for GI damage. Fever, mild-mod pain, anti-inflammation; effects due to inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis; can use Misoprostol to tx NSAID-induced GI damage; caution NSAID use in asthma/renal impairment/thrombocytopenia, all carry a warning for GI and CV adverse effects

A

Ibuprofen (Advil)

34
Q

Non-selective COX inhibitor; the preferred for long-term use in pt at-risk for cardiovascular complications. Fever, mild-mod pain, anti-inflammation; effects due to inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis; can use Misoprostol to tx NSAID-induced GI damage; caution NSAID use in asthma/renal impairment/thrombocytopenia, all carry a warning for GI and CV adverse effects.

A

Naproxen (Aleve)

35
Q

Selective COX-2 inhibitor; extensive 1st pass metab into its active metabolite. Fever, mild-mod pain, anti-inflammation; effects due to inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis; can use Misoprostol to tx NSAID-induced GI damage; caution NSAID use in asthma/renal impairment/thrombocytopenia, all carry a warning for GI and CV adverse effects.

A

Nabumetone (Relafen)

36
Q

Highly selective COX-2 inhibitor; Black box: MI or stroke risk. Fever, mild-mod pain, anti-inflammation; effects due to inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis; can use Misoprostol to tx NSAID-induced GI damage; caution NSAID use in asthma/renal impairment/thrombocytopenia, all carry a warning for GI and CV adverse effects.

A

Celecoxib (Celebrex)

37
Q

Partially selective COX inhibitor, selective for COX-2 at lower therapeutic doses (non-selective at high). Fever, mild-mod pain, anti-inflammation; effects due to inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis; can use Misoprostol to tx NSAID-induced GI damage; caution NSAID use in asthma/renal impairment/thrombocytopenia, all carry a warning for GI and CV adverse effects.

A

Meloxicam (Mobic)

38
Q

Opioid combo. Pain relief; combos are an attempt to improve analgesic effect/limit adverse effects etc.Any combo with APAP: risk of hepatotoxicity.

A

Hydrocodone/APAP

39
Q

Opioid combo. Pain relief; combos are an attempt to improve analgesic effect/limit adverse effects etc.Any combo with APAP: risk of hepatotoxicity.

A

Oxycodone/APAP (Percocet)

40
Q

Opioid combo. Pain relief; combos are an attempt to improve analgesic effect/limit adverse effects etc.Any combo with APAP: risk of hepatotoxicity.

A

Codeine/APAP (Tylenol #2)

41
Q

Pain relief. Less effective than morphine. Opioid.

A

Oxycodone (OxyContin)

42
Q

Opioid. Analgesic and substitute for morphine/heroin for controlled withdrawal, long-acting chronic pain control. Equal potency to morphine but less euphoria; longer half-life so also increased toxicity risk, caution with wide range of “dose-equivalents”

A

Methadone (Dolophine)

43
Q

Opioid. For anesthesia too in combo with Droperidol; caution with patch form pt education.

A

Fentanyl (Duragesic)

44
Q

Opioid. Weak Mu agonist, inhibits NE/serotonin CNS re-uptake.

A

Tramadol (Ultram)

45
Q

Analgesic; partial Mu agonist, can be used to treat opioid addiction. 20x potent as morphine, similar ADR to morphine; respiratory depression concern.

A

Buprenorphine (Suboxone)

46
Q

GABA Analogue. Seizures, neuropathic pain (i.e. peripheral neuropathy from diabetes, post-herpes, central neuropathy). Somnolence, ataxia, nystagmus; renally excreted (may need dosage adjustment).

A

Gapapentin (Neurontin)

47
Q

Relieve pain caused by muscle injury/spasms (off-label use for fibromyalgia). Central acting; ADRs drowsiness, dry mouth, tachycardia; C/I with MAOI use (i.e. increased risk of serotonin syndrome). Muscle relaxant.

A

Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)

48
Q

Relieve pain caused by muscle injuryspasms; has barbituate effects and abuse potential/withdrawal reaction. Central acting; ADRs drowsiness, dizzy, tachycardia. Muscle relaxant.

A

Carisoprodol (Soma)

49
Q

Osteoporosis tx and prevention; inhibits osteoclasts to increase bone mineral density; take 30min before meal and stay upright for 30min bc is corrosive to esophagus; C/I in hypocalcemia, renal insufficiency. Bisphosphonate.

A

Ibandronate (Boniva)

50
Q

Osteoporosis tx and prevention; inhibits osteoclasts to increase bone mineral density; take 30min before meal and stay upright for 30min bc is corrosive to esophagus; C/I in hypocalcemia, renal insufficiency. Bisphosphonate.

A

Alendronate (Foxamax)

51
Q

Osteoporosis tx and prevention; inhibits osteoclasts to increase bone mineral density; take 30min before meal and stay upright for 30min bc is corrosive to esophagus; C/I in hypocalcemia, renal insufficiency. Bisphosphonate.

A

Risendronate (Actonel)

52
Q

Deficiencies i.e. in rickets, osteomalacia, IBD, elderly/obese, vampires, babies exclusively breast-fed. Toxicity rare, but can be associated with hypercalcemia.

A

Vitamin D (Caltrate)

53
Q

Involved in resting cell-membrane potential, hormone secretion, GI motility, acid/base homeostasis, mineralcorticoid action, BP control, renal concentrating ability, fluid/electrolyte balance (imbalance low/high can cause dangerous arrythmias). Hypokalemia: fatigue/muscle cramp/constipation, U-wave & flattened T; Hyperkalemia: paralysis, weakness, wide/no P wave, wide QRS, peaked T.

A

Potassium (K-Tab)

54
Q

Deficiencies i.e. megaloblastic macrocytic anemia, NTDs from defiecient mothers. Many causes of deficiencies, meds can cause too i.e. MTX, sulfasalazine, metformin.

A

Folic Acid (Folvite)

55
Q

Gout by reducing production of uric acid, prevents gout attacks but doesn’t tx them. Complex dosing, potential severe hypersensitivity syndrome (i.e. SJS, toxic epidermal necrolysis).

A

Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

56
Q

Gout attack prevention and gout-specific pain relief (as anti-inflammatory effect); is a mitotic inhibitor. C/I in renal failure, toxicity can result in neuromyopathy with proximal weakness; peripheral neuropathy.

A

Colchicine (Colcrys)

57
Q

Osteoporosis tx and prevention in post-menopausal women; decrease risk of invasive breast cancer in at-risk women. Black Box: blood clot risk; should have adequate calcium and vitamin D while on. SERM.

A

Raloxifene (Evista)

Pharm II Top 200 (1 decks)

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