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Semester 1 > ToB Sessions 1-6 > Flashcards

ToB Sessions 1-6 Flashcards

1
Q

What are stereocillia, found in the lumen of vas deferens?

A

Non-motile microvilli modified for absorption

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2
Q

What cell adaptation is found on cells in the trachea, bronchi and larger bronchioles?

A

Motile cilia

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3
Q

What type of epithelia lines small excretory ducts?

A

Simple cuboidal

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4
Q

What lines the apical surfaces in the proximal convoluted tubule?

A

Microvilli brush border

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5
Q

Which type of organs is simple columnar epithelium seen in?

A

Digestive

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6
Q

What does simple columnar epithelium exhibit in the small intestine?

A

Microvilli

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7
Q

What is the function of simple squamous epithelium?

A

Reduce friction by producing lubricating fluids

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8
Q

What is mesothelium?

A

Simple squamous tissue found on the external surfaces of digestive organs, lungs and heart

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9
Q

What type of transport occurs across simple squamous tissue?

A

Passive

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10
Q

Which passive transport surfaces are formed by simple squamous epithelium?

A

Pleural, pericardial and peritoneal cavities

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11
Q

What is endothelium?

A

Simple squamous tissue in the lumina of heart chambers, blood vessels and lymphatic vessels

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12
Q

What epithelium is found on larger excretory ducts of pancreas, salivary glands and sweat glands?

A

Stratified columnar and cuboidal

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13
Q

How do basal stratified squamous cells transition from being cuboidal in shape to being truly squamous shaped?

A

Migrate and squash

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14
Q

Where is non-keratinised stratified squamous epithelium found?

A

On moist cavities e.g. mouth, pharynx, eosophagus, vagina

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15
Q

Where is keratinised stratified squamous epithelium found?

A

Stratum corneu my

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16
Q

How does the connective tissue in stratified squamous tissue vary I the cornea?

A

Smooth when typically it is wavy

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17
Q

What is the function of stratified squamous epithelium?

A

Withstand wear and tear

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18
Q

Where is stratified transitional epithelium found?

A

Urinary system

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19
Q

What does stratified transitional epithelium resemble when stretched?

A

Stratified squamous epithelium

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20
Q

What is visible in superficial cells of stratified transitional epithelium?

A

Binucleate cells

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21
Q

What is the function of stratified transitional epithelium?

A

Osmotic barrier to tissue fluids

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22
Q

What are cells in epithelium joined by?

A

Lateral contacts

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23
Q

What are tight junctions?

A

Where klaus a proteins fuse between cells

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24
Q

Where are demosomes used?

A

Epithelia under large mechanical stress

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25
Q

How do demosomes join epithelial cells?

A

Interlock like a zip providing constant tension

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26
Q

What forms the basement membrane?

A

Reticular lamina
Basal lamina
Lamina propria

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27
Q

What is the function of the basement membrane?

A

Selectively filter

Scaffold

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28
Q

What are the non-cellular components of epithelium that can be seen by light microscope?

A 
Glycoproteins
Collagen fibres
Lymphocytes
Macrophages
Fibroblasts
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29
Q

What secretes glycoproteins in epithelium?

A

Epithelial cells

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30
Q

What is the blood supply to the epithelium like?

A

Avascular, supplied by diffusion

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31
Q

Is epithelium innervated?

A

Yep

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32
Q

How do simple and stratified epithelium differ?

A 
Simple = single layer
Stratified = numerous cell layers
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33
Q

How many cell layers are there in pseudostritified epithelium?

A

One

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34
Q

What gives pseudostritified epithelium its apparently stratified appearance?

A

Different heights of cells

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35
Q

What are glands?

A

Aggregates of epithelial cells which perform specific secretory functions

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36
Q

What is an endocrine gland?

A

Releases secretory products in pro vascular or lymphatic system

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37
Q

How are endocrine glands arranged?

A

Cords, follicles or clusters around profuse blood supply

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38
Q

Where do endocrine glands occur?

A

Discretely in specific organs

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39
Q

What type of exocrine gland is a goblet cell?

A

Unicellular

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40
Q

What are multicellular exocrine glands?

A

Glands that extend from epithelial surface into connective tissue

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41
Q

How can exocrine glands be classified?

A

Epithelial components

Mode of secretion

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42
Q

How does the proliferation of glandular cells of mucous membranes compare to that in the liver, thyroid and pancreas?

A

Mucous membranes: multiply throughout life

Liver, thyroid and pancreas: cease to multiply ~puberty unless injured

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43
Q

What is a malignant neoplasms derived from glandular epithelium?

A

Adenocarcinoma

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44
Q

How may multicellular exocrine gland ducts become obstructed?

A

Store

Disease

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45
Q

What happens to epithelial cells that have rapidly reproduced?

A

Leave surface of development and invade underlying CT

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46
Q

What surrounds newly formed gland?

A

Basal lamina

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47
Q

How are glandular products synthesised and stored?

A

Synthesised intracellularly and stored in secretory granules

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48
Q

What is mucin?

A

Principle glycoprotein constituent of mucus

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49
Q

What is Alcian Blue used to stain a vivid blue?

A

Mucin

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50
Q

What are Lieberkühns glands?

A

Simple tubular structures lined by water absorptive columnar cells and goblet cells

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51
Q

What is the function of Lieberkühns glands?

A

As water is absorbed from gut the mucus permits adherence of solid waste into a compact mass
Protects from trauma

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52
Q

What is the structure of the duct in a simple gland?

A

In branched w/secretory portion that can be straight, coiled or branched

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53
Q

What are the ducts in a compound gland like?

A

Repeatedly branched

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54
Q

What is an acinus?

A

Sac-like cavity in a gland which is surrounded by secretory cells that are grouped to give lobes

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55
Q

What type of glands might acini be found in?

A

Acinar
Tubular
Tubuloacinar

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56
Q

What is the function of mucous secretions?

A

Lubrication

Protection of inner lining of organs

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57
Q

What are serous secretions often rich in?

A

Enzymes

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58
Q

What type of secretion do mixed glands release?

A

Serous and mucous

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59
Q

What is merocrine secretion?

A

Exocytosis w/out loss of cellular components

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60
Q

What is holocrine secretion?

A

Cells themselves become secretory products

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61
Q

What is apocrine secretion?

A

Part of secretory cell is released as product

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62
Q

Give an example of an apocrine gland.

A

Mammary

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63
Q

Where is the parotid gland located?

A

Below and in front of each ear

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64
Q

How is the parotid gland classified?

A

Entirely serous exocrine gland of acinar type

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65
Q

How does the parotid gland store its secretions?

A

Zymogen granules in apical cytoplasm of its acinar cells

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66
Q

Where does the principal duct of the parotid gland open?

A

Onto inner side of cheek opposite second upper molar

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67
Q

What is the hypotonic saliva secreted by the parotid gland rich in?

A

Salivary amylase

IgA

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68
Q

Where are myoepithelial cells found in glandular epithelium?

A

Above basement membrane below luminal cells

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69
Q

Where does the submandibular gland release its secretions?

A

Floor of mouth each side of frenulum

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70
Q

What are large multicellular glands surrounded by?

A

Connective tissue that send septa into gland to divide into lobes and lobules

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71
Q

What forms a demilune?

A

Serous cells that cap mucous cells

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72
Q

How do serous enzymes from demilunes in the sublingual salivary glands reach acinar lumen?

A

Canaliculi b/w mucous cells

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73
Q

How are endocrine glandular cells arranged in the thyroid?

A

Secretory products stored and modified extracellularly in the central lumen of follicles which are lined by glandular cells

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74
Q

How do adipose cells in glands change with time?

A

Occupy an increasing amount of space w/age

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75
Q

How many embryological origins do the adrenal glands have?

A

2

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76
Q

What do all cells of the adrenal glands contain?

A

Lots of SER

Mitochondria w/lots of cristae

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77
Q

What are the layers of the adrenal glands from outside to inside?

A

Outer capsule
Zona glomerulosa
Zona fasciculata
Zona reticularis

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78
Q

What is secreted by the zona glomerulosa?

A

Mineralocorticoids - primarily aldosterone

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79
Q

What is the function of aldosterone?

A

Increase sodium and water retention –> increase blood pressure

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80
Q

What does the zona fasciculata secrete?

A

Glucocorticoids - principally cortisol

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81
Q

What does the zona reticularis secrete?

A

Androgens

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82
Q

What is the function of glucocorticoids?

A

Affect most tissues for carbohydrate, protein and lipid metabolism

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83
Q

What is the function of androgens?

A

Weak masculinising hormones

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84
Q

What do the modified sympathetic nerve cells of the adrenal medulla lack?

A

Dendrites and axons

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85
Q

What blood supply does the adrenal medulla have intimate contact with?

A

Arterial and blood drained through cortex

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86
Q

What are hormones made from in the zona glomerulosa?

A

Cholesterol

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87
Q

How are cells in the zona fasciculata arranged?

A

Parallel cords perpendicular to adrenal capsule

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88
Q

How are the cells arranged in the zona reticularis?

A

Branching cords or clusters separated by wide capillaries

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89
Q

How are chromaffin cells arranged in the adrenal medulla?

A

Clusters or short cords

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90
Q

How do cells in each of the layers of the adrenal cortex compare?

A

ZG: less cytoplasm than in ZF
ZF: more cytoplasm w/lipid droplets, large pale cells
ZR: smaller

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91
Q

What do chromaffin cells release upon nervous stimulation along with catecholamine hormones?

A

Enkephalins

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92
Q

What are enkephalins?

A

Opioid peptides involved in pain control

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93
Q

What is the usual structure of the parathyroid gland?

A

4 small ovoid structures on the posterior wall of the thyroid

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94
Q

What is the parathyroid gland composed of?

A

Masses and cords of epithelial cells supported by reticular fibres and a rich network of capillaries

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95
Q

What is the function of each of the cells in the parathyroid gland?

A

Chief/principal cells: parathyroid hormone

Oxyphil: uncertain (maybe inactive chief cells)

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96
Q

What are the excretory ducts of the exocrine pancreas lined by?

A

Simple columnar epithelium w/occasional goblet cell

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97
Q

What does the exocrine pancreas secrete?

A

Digestive enzymes and proenzymes

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98
Q

What passage do the exocrine secretions from the pancreas take?

A

Form closely packed secretory acini
Drain into highly branched duct system
Into duodenum

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99
Q

What do each of the cells of the endocrine pancreas secrete?

A

Alpha - glucagon
Beta - insulin
Delta - somatostatin

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100
Q

What is the special feature seen in the endocrine pancreas?

A

Islets of Langerhans

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101
Q

What is the distinguishing characteristic of the pancreas?

A

Terminal of duct w/in acinus consists of centro-acinar cells, often seen in the acinar lumen

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102
Q

Where is the pancreas situated?

A

Behind stomach with one end in curve of duodenum

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103
Q

What are the 2 major exocrine secretions of the pancreas?

A

Trypsinogen and ribonuclease

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104
Q

What are the 2 major endocrine secretions of the pancreas?

A

Insulin and gastrin

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105
Q

Where is HCl produced in the GI tract?

A

Parietal cells of stomach

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106
Q

What is the limit of resolution?

A

Minimum distance at which two objects can be distinguished

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107
Q

What is the relationship between the limit of resolution and wavelength?

A

Limit of resolution improves as wavelength decreases

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108
Q

What are the 10 components of a eukaryotic cell?

A 
Cytosol
Golgi apparatus
Lysosome
Mitochondrion
Nuclear envelope
Endoplasmic reticulum
Nucleolus
Nucleus
Peroxisome
Endosome
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109
Q

Why does the Endosome have an interior pH of 6?

A

Proton pumps in membrane

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110
Q

What forms late endosomes?

A

Endosome uncouples receptors from ligand, receptor is recycled and ligand retained

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111
Q

What do endosomes mature into when their pH decreases?

A

Lysosomes

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112
Q

What is the structure of a peroxisome?

A

Roughly spherical w/granular matrix and single membrane

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113
Q

Why is the replication of peroxisomes odd?

A

Self-replicate but have no genome

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114
Q

Why are peroxisomes found in all cells, especially liver and kidney cells?

A

Detoxification

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115
Q

How do peroxisomes oxidise about 50% of consumed alcohol?

A

Use oxygen to form hydrogen peroxide which can oxidise other substrates incl. alcohol

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116
Q

What is contained in the nucleus?

A

DNA, nucleoproteins and RNA

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117
Q

What does TEM show in the nucleus?

A

Electron dense heterochromatin and electron-leucent euchromatin

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118
Q

Why is there no nucleus in erythrocytes, stratum corneum and kens fibre cells?

A

Terminally differentiated

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119
Q

Which form of chromatin is active in RNA?

A

Euchromatin

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120
Q

What happens in the nucleolus?

A

Ribosomal RNA synthesis
Ribosomal subunits exported
Disappear during cell division

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121
Q

The nuclear envelope is a double layer of what?

A

Specialised ER

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122
Q

What is between the inner and outer nuclear membrane which is continuos with the ER?

A

Perinuclear cisternae

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123
Q

What are nuclear pores guarded by?

A

Nuclear pore complexes

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124
Q

What forms the endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Interconnecting membranes, vesicles and cisternae

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125
Q

What is the function of smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Lipid biosynthesis

Intracellular transport - steroid production

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126
Q

Where do vesicles bud off from and fuse to?

A

Bud off from RER and fuse w/convex forming face of Golgi body

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127
Q

What does the Golgi apparatus have to ensure that proteins migrate from convex to concave end?

A

Polarity

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128
Q

What is the function of the Golgi apparatus?

A

Sort, concentrate, package and modify proteins from RER

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129
Q

What does the lysosome contain?

A

Acid hydrolase said at pH 5

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130
Q

What modification do the lysosomal membrane proteins have?

A

Glycosylated

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131
Q

How are primary lysosomes identified?

A

Enzyme content

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132
Q

How are secondary lysosomes formed?

A

Primary lysosomes fuse w/ phagosomes/endosomes/autophagosomes or excess secretory product

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133
Q

What are residual bodies?

A

Indigestible remnants in lysosomes

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134
Q

Describe the structure of a mitochondrion.

A

Variable shape

Double membrane - inner folded into cristae

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135
Q

What is the function of the mitochondria?

A

Oxidative phosphorylation using glucose and fatty acids

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136
Q

What is present in the mitochondrial matrix?

A 
Enzymes of Krebs and fatty acid cycles
DNA
RNA
Ribosomes
Calcium granules
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137
Q

What lineage do mitochondria follow?

A

Female - all from mum

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138
Q

What makes up the cytoskeleton of cells?

A

Microfilaments
Intermediate filaments
Micro tubules

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139
Q

What is the function of the cytoskeleton?

A

Structural support
Contractility in cells of specialised tissues
Locomotor mechanisms - intercellularly and cilia, flagella etc.
Maintain/change cell shape

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140
Q

What forms microfilaments?

A

2 actin filaments twisted together associated w/ATP

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141
Q

Why are Microfilaments said to be dynamic?

A

Actin filaments can assemble and dissociate

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142
Q

What helps keep intestinal microvilli shape?

A

Core of microfilaments

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143
Q

Are intermediate filaments dynamic?

A

Nope

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144
Q

Where are intermediate filaments found?

A

Nerve cells
Neuroglial cells
Epithelial cells made of cytokeratin

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145
Q

What is the structure of microtubules?

A

13 alpha and beta subunits polymerise to form wall of a hollow microtubule

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146
Q

Where do micro tubules originate from?

A

Centrosome

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147
Q

Where are micro tubules found?

A

Where structures move e.g. nerve fibres, mitotic spindle, cilia and flagella cores

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148
Q

What basic structure do all cell membranes have?

A

Phospholipid bilayer

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149
Q

How are proteins organised in the cell membrane?

A

Many freely mobile within bilayer
Some attached to cytoskeleton
Many glycosylated

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150
Q

What is the outermost bounding membrane called?

A

Plasmalemma

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151
Q

What is the glycocalyx?

A

Cell coat made up of oligosaccharide and polysaccharide sidechains of glycoproteins and glycolipids

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152
Q

What is the function of the cell membrane?

A 
Intercellular adhesion and recognition
Signal transduction
Compartmentalisation
Selective permeability
Transport along cell surface
Endo/exocytosis
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153
Q

Where can pseudostritified epithelium found?

A

Lumina of epididymis
Respiratory passages
Lumen of vas deferens

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154
Q

Which parts of the cell does haemotoxylin and eosin?

A 
Acidic = purple/blue
Basic = pink
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155
Q

What staining is used for classification of bacteria?

A

Gram staining

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156
Q

What staining is used for TB and leprosy?

A

Acid fast

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157
Q

Which cell components does gram staining stain violet?

A

-ve

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158
Q

Which type of bacteria stain violet with gram staining?

A

Gram +ve

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159
Q

What colour do gram -ve bacteria stain?

A

Red

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160
Q

What do gram +ve bacteria have more of than gram -ve?

A

Peptidoglycan wall

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161
Q

What shapes of bacteria are there?

A

Cocci - spherical
Bacilli - elongated
Coccobacilli

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162
Q

What internal structures are unique to bacteria?

A

Spores

Inclusion granules

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163
Q

Which external structures are unique to bacteria?

A 
Fimbriae
Pili
Flagellae
Cell capsule
Cell envelope
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164
Q

What is the outer membrane of a bacterium made from which makes it toxic?

A

Lipo-polysaccharide

Phospholipids

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165
Q

What can spores resist?

A

Boiling

Many disinfectants

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166
Q

What are mycoplasmas?

A

Bacteria with no peptidoglycan wall

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167
Q

What do gram negative bacteria have in their outer membrane which stimulates a strong immune response?

A

Lippolysaccharides
Lipoglycans
Endotoxin

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168
Q

How can bacteria be grown for identification?

A

Broth
Colonies
Bio films

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169
Q

How are bacteria measured in growth in broth?

A

Measured in turbidity

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170
Q

What are endogenous bacteria?

A

From body’s own microbiome

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171
Q

Which type of bacteria are dominant in the body?

A

Anaerobes

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172
Q

What are facultative bacteria?

A

Have both aerobic and anaerobic function

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173
Q

Give two examples of gram +ve cocci.

A

Staphylococcus

Streptococcus

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174
Q

Give an example of gram -ve cocci.

A

Neisseria

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175
Q

Give an example of a gram +ve bacilli

A

Clostridium

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176
Q

Give four examples of gram -ve bacilli.

A

Eschericha
Pseudomonas
Salmonella
Legionella

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177
Q

Which major groups form prokaryotes?

A

Bacteria

Archae

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178
Q

Which major groups form eukaryotes?

A

Fungi

Protozoa

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179
Q

Compare the number of chromosomes in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

A

Prokaryotes: 1
Eukaryotes: many

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180
Q

How do the ribosomes compare in prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

A

Prokaryotes: 30S + 50S subunits - 70S ribosome
Eukaryotes: 40S + 60S subunits - 80S ribosome

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181
Q

What is infection?

A

Establishment of an organism in or on a host that multiplies and causes damage/dysfunction

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182
Q

What determines whether individuals get particular infections?

A

Epidemiology
Virulence vs host resistance
Innate and adaptive immunity

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183
Q

What influences the outcome of infection?

A

Encounter dose and route
Virulence vs host resistance
Innate and adaptive immunity
Timely diagnosis and treatment

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184
Q

What are Negritos bodies?

A

Visible artefacts in neurons infected by Rabies

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185
Q

Describe the genetic information in a virus.

A

No genes for protein

Have RNA or DNA, not both

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186
Q

What are enveloped viruses?

A

On the way out of the cell some viruses pick up a lipid envelope for protection - contain lipids unlike naked viruses

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187
Q

What is used to classify viruses?

A

Nuclei can acids

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188
Q

What can viruses do in bacteria?

A

Alter antibiotic resistance

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189
Q

What is positive sense in single stranded RNA?

A

gRNA can serve as mRNA and be directly translated into protein

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190
Q

What is negative sense in single stranded RNA?

A

gRNA cannot be RNA so has to become +ve before it can be read

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191
Q

What are the phases of a colony number vs time curve for bacteria?

A

Lag
Log
Stationary

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192
Q

How does the curve for virus number vs time compare to that of colony number versus time for bacteria?

A

Virus has steeper increase and reaches plateau much faster

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193
Q

Why do RNA viruses mutate at a much higher rate than DNA viruses?

A

RNA polymerase cannot proofread like DNA polymerase

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194
Q

Why is HIV so difficult to treat?

A

Enveloped by host cell membrane so looks like host

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195
Q

What mechanisms do immunisations use?

A

Interfere with receptor binding

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196
Q

What is meant when a cell is said to be permissive for a virus?

A

A virus can successfully replicate in the cell due to it having the necessary cellular machinery

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197
Q

What is the Baltimore scheme?

A

How the viral genome enters the host cell

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198
Q

What kind of processes are usually used to convert viral genome?

A

Translational that don’t usually occur in eukaryotic mammalian cells

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199
Q

Give three examples of an enveloped DNA virus.

A

Hepatitis B
Herpes virus
Smallpox

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200
Q

Give an example of non-enveloped viruses.

A

Papillomaviruses

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201
Q

Give four examples of enveloped RNA viruses.

A

Rubella
Rotavirus
HIV
Coronavirus

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202
Q

Give an example of a class of non-enveloped RNA viruses.

A

Picornaviruses

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203
Q

What often happens on release of virus from a cell?

A

Cellular death

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204
Q

What cytopathic effects are visible due to viral replication?

A

Inclusion bodies
Syncytia formation
Chromosomal damage
Inhibition of host cell protein, RNA or DNA synthesis

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205
Q

What do RNA retroviruses have that allows them to cause cancer?

A

Reverse transcriptase

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206
Q

How do DNA viruses cause cancer?

A

Inactivate tumour-suppressor proteins in non-permissive cells

207
Q

What binds to receptors on the CSM in Ebola infection?

A

Glycoproteins on filovirus surface

208
Q

Why is Ebola so destructive to the body?

A

Immune cells become disordered as the body knows it needs to get rid of something but it cannot determine what

209
Q

Which sense if as RNA does Ebola have?

A

-ve

210
Q

Which type of viruses are harder to get rid of?

A

Non-enveloped

211
Q

Which type of virus survives less well outside of cells?

A

Enveloped

212
Q

What is the general structure of a virus?

A

Nuclei can acid core surrounded by capsid

213
Q

Give an example of a viral infection that must be reported by law.

A

Meningitis

214
Q

How is viral infection curtailed within host?

A

Cell-mediated immunity

215
Q

What classes of virus are there based on their timescale?

A

Acute
Subacute
Chronic
Latent

216
Q

How can viral infection be detected?

A

Particles or antigens in tissue specimens
Specific virus-directed immune response
Cell culture
Genome directed nuclei can acid amplification

217
Q

How is viral infection characterised?

A

Incubation period in which replication leads to symptomatic damage/dysfunction

218
Q

How can viral infection be acquired?

A

Vertical transmission
Sexual contact
Respiratory
Transcutaneous (inoculation)

219
Q

What is the pre-embryonic period?

A

First two weeks of development after fertilisation

220
Q

What does the hypothalamus produce which acts on the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland to stimulate release of gonadotropins?

A

Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone

221
Q

What does FSH stimulate?

A

15-20 follicles to grow so that one can mature and discharge an oocyte

222
Q

What does oestrogen production stimulate?

A

Uterine endometrium enters proliferative phase
Cervical mucus thins to allow passage of sperm
Anterior lobe of pituitary gland stimulated to secrete LH

223
Q

When is the oocyte arrested in meiosis?

A

~3hrs before ovulation

224
Q

What happens in ovulation?

A

Oocyte arrested in meiosis
Ovary surface bulges locally
LH surge break collagen fibres an causes ovarian wall contractions
Oocyte and granulosa cells break free

225
Q

What propels the oocyte post ovulation?

A

Peristaltic contractions and cilia in tubal mucosa

226
Q

What stage does the uterine mucosa enter ready for implant post ovulation?

A

Progestational

227
Q

What happens if there is no fertilisation of the oocyte released in ovulation?

A

Progesterone production decreases and menstrual bleeding ensues

228
Q

Where is hCG secreted from?

A

Syncytiotrophoblast

229
Q

What happens if progesterone secretion is removed before the end of the fourth month of development?

A

Abortion

230
Q

How long are the oocyte and sperm viable for?

A 
Oocyte = 1 day
Sperm = up to 3 days
231
Q

Where does fertilisation usually occur?

A

Ampulla

232
Q

What two processes must the sperm undergo to fertilise the oocyte?

A

Capcitation

Acrosome reaction

233
Q

What is the function of the acrosome reaction?

A

Release of zona pellucida penetrating enzymes

234
Q

What are the 3 stages of fertilisation?

A

Penetration of Corona Radiata
Penetration of Zona Pellucida
Fusion of gamete membranes

235
Q

What happens upon fusion of the gamete membranes in fertilisation?

A

Prevention of polyspermy
Meiosis II resumed
Egg metabolically activated

236
Q

Where is the ideal site of implantation of the fertilised ovum?

A

Psterior uterine wall

237
Q

What are the main results of fertilisation?

A

Restoration of diploid number
Determination of sex
Initiation of cleavage

238
Q

When does cleavage of the zygote begin?

A

30 hours after fertilisation

239
Q

How are blast omers of equal size formed?

A

Mitotic divisions of the zygote produce equally sized cells which are restricted by the zona pellucida

240
Q

What happens to the blastomeres after the third cleavage?

A

Compaction: maximise contact and are held together by tight junctions

241
Q

What do the compacted embryo cells divide into?

A

16 cell morula

242
Q

What can be said about the cells in the morula?

A

They are totipotent

243
Q

Why do you wait for the formation of the 16-cell morula before transfer into the uterus in IVF?

A

Not all oocyte said will undergo cleavage

244
Q

How is the first embryonic cavity formed in the morula?

A

Cells secrete fluid which pushes them to one side, creating a shell of cells

245
Q

What does the embryoblast give rise to?

A

Embryo proper

246
Q

What does the trophoblast give rise to?

A

Supportive tissues

247
Q

When does the first true differentiation of embryonic cells occur?

A

Following compaction where they change from totipotent to pluripotent

248
Q

What is the outer cell mass of the blastocyst called?

A

Trophoblast

249
Q

What is the inner cell mass of the blastocyst called?

A

Embryoblast

250
Q

What is the blastocele?

A

Blastocyst cavity

251
Q

What hatches from the zona pellucida once the risk of polyspermy has been retracted?

A

Blastocyst

252
Q

What can happen to the blastocyst once it has hatched from the zona pellucida?

A

Free to enlarge

Interact w/ uterine surface to implant

253
Q

What is the most important event in the pre-embryonic period of development?

A

Implantation

254
Q

How are the 107 cells of the conceptus present at the initiation of implantation distributed?

A

8 embryo

99 foetal membranes

255
Q

What do the pre-embryonic and early embryonic periods prioritise in development?

A

Development of placenta

256
Q

What gives rise to two distinct cellular layers in the week of twos during embryonic development?

A

Differentiation

257
Q

What does the outer cell mass divide into during differentiation?

A

Syncytiotrophoblast

Cytotrophoblast

258
Q

What does the inner cell mass become during differentiation in embryonic development?

A

Bilaminar disc

259
Q

What types of cells make up the bilaminar disc?

A

Columnar epiblast

Cuboidal hypoblast

260
Q

Which layer of the bilaminar disc is most important for tissue development?

A

Epiblast

261
Q

Where are the epiblast and hypoblast located?

A

Epiblast: adjacent to amniotic cavity
Hypoblast: adjacent to blastocyst cavity

262
Q

How do the cells of the syncytiotrophoblast appear?

A

Multinucleated w/no distinct cell borders

263
Q

What do the syncytiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast give rise to?

A

Syncytiotrophoblast: transport/support tissues
Cytotrophoblast: true epithelium

264
Q

How do the cells of the cytotrophoblast appear?

A

Almost simple cuboidal

Mononucleated

265
Q

What heals the site of the blastocyst once physical implantation has completed?

A

Fibrin plug

266
Q

What can happen during implantation which causes confusion when calculating the due date?

A

Bleeding

267
Q

What forms the primitive yolk sac?

A

Multiplication of the hypoblast lining the blastocyst cavity

268
Q

What is the primitive yolk sac in contact with?

A

Cytotrophoblast layer

269
Q

What happens to the yolk sac which produces a slight protusion into the lumen of the uterus?

A

Pushed away by acellular extraembryonic reticulum which is later converted to mesoderm

270
Q

How does the uteroplacental circulation begin?

A

Maternal sinusoids invaded by syncytiotrophoblast
Lacunae become continuous w/sinusoids
Uterine stroma becomes incredibly vascular

271
Q

How is the secondary yolk sac formed?

A

Pinches off from primitive yolk sac

272
Q

What is the importance of the formation of the definitive yolk sac?

A

V. important for GI tract development

273
Q

How is the chorionic cavity formed?

A

Spaces in extraembryonic mesoderm merge

274
Q

What does the column of mesoderm which will later form the umbilical cord suspend?

A

Embryo and cavities

275
Q

What is the name of the column of mesoderm which will later become the umbilical cord?

A

Connecting stalk

276
Q

What are the end results of week two of development?

A

Conceptus has been implanted
Embryo and two cavities formed
Embryo and cavities suspended by connecting stalk w/in supporting chorionic activity

277
Q

What are the two cavities present at the end of week of two in embryonic development?

A

Amniotic cavity

Yolk sac

278
Q

What aids breach of the uterine epithelium by the conceptus during implantation?

A

Proteolytic enzymes

279
Q

How does blood supply to the conceptus change during implantation?

A

Histiotrophic –> haemotrophic

280
Q

What is IUGR?

A

Inter Utrinine Growth Restriction, suggests suboptimal establishment of maternal-foetal exchange

281
Q

What fails to happen in embryonic development which leads to pre-eclampsia at 20+ weeks?

A

Differentiation of cytotrophoblast cells from epithelial –> endothelial cells

282
Q

What is ectopic pregnancy?

A

Site of development other than uterine body

283
Q

Why can ectopic pregnancy be incredibly dangerous?

A

Can cause fatal haemorrhage before the pregnancy is discovered

284
Q

What is placenta praevia?

A

Implantation in lower uterine segment leading to placental obstruction –> requires C-section

285
Q

What percentage of all zygotes are lost in the first 2-3 weeks of development before the pregnancy is discovered?

A

~50%

286
Q

What percentage of women suffer recurrent (3 consecutive) miscarriage?

A

1%

287
Q

What are the functions of connective tissue?

A 
Provide substance and form to body organs
Provide medium for diffusion 
Attach muscle to bone and bone to bone
Provide cushioning
Defend against infection
Aid in injury repair
288
Q

Why does dense connective tissue have a long healing time?

A

Avascular

289
Q

What are the components of connective tissue?

A

Cells
Extracellular matrix
Fibres

290
Q

What forms the ground substance?

A

Hyaluronate proteoglycan aggregates

291
Q

What types of fibres may be present in connective tissue?

A

Collagen
Reticular
Elastic

292
Q

How is connective tissue classified?

A

Mesenchyme
Dense
Areolar (loose)
Specialised

293
Q

Where is irregular connective tissue seen?

A

Dermis
Organ capsules
Areas needing strong support

294
Q

Where is dense regular connective tissue seen?

A

Tendons

Ligaments

295
Q

Where is areolar tissue found?

A

Adipose tissue

296
Q

What cells are present in areolar connective tissue?

A

Macrophages
Fibroblasts
Mast

297
Q

Give some examples of specialised connective tissue.

A 
Blood
Cartilage
Bone
Haemopoietic
Lymphatic
298
Q

What are the different mesenchymal cells in different tissues?

A

Osteoblasts in bone
Myoblasts in skeletal muscle
Fibroblasts in supporting tissues
Chrondroblasts in cartilage

299
Q

Why does mesenchymal tissue persist in the adult for healing?

A

Cells are pluripotent

300
Q

What makes up ground substance?

A

Hyaluronic acid
Glucosaminglycan
Collagen fibrils

301
Q

What forms hyaluronate proteoglycan aggregates?

A

Hyaluronic acid

Glucosaminoglycan

302
Q

How do hyaluronate proteoglycan aggregates form a gel?

A

Negative charge attracts water

303
Q

What is the function of the gel part of ground substance?

A

Barrier

Diffusion of water soluble molecules b/w cells and BV

304
Q

What does fibronectin bind to?

A

Cells
Collagen
Proteoglycans

305
Q

What do integrins bind to?

A

Cells

Extracellular collagen

306
Q

What does laminin bind to?

A

Epithelial cells

Basal lamina

307
Q

Which type of collagen accounts for 90% of all collagen in the body?

A

I

308
Q

Which type of collagen is found in hyaline cartilage?

A

II

309
Q

Do type II collagen fibrils form fibres?

A

Nope

310
Q

What is another name for type III collagen?

A

Reticulin

311
Q

Where do type III collagen fibrils form fibres?

A

Around muscle and nerve cells w/in lymphatic tissues and organs

312
Q

What is type IV collagen?

A

Unique form of collagen present in basal lamina of the basement membrane

313
Q

What is the dominant cell type in connective tissue?

A

Fibroblasts

314
Q

What do fibroblasts synthesise?

A

Collagen
Reticular fibres
Elastic fibres
Carbohydrates of ECM

315
Q

What lays down procollagen?

A

Fibroblasts

316
Q

What are fibrocytes?

A

Spindle shaped more mature and less active fibroblasts

317
Q

What cellular components are fibroblasts rich in?

A

Euchromatin

RER

318
Q

What cells are found in connective tissue?

A 
Fibroblasts/cytes
Plasma cells
Adipose
Small and large lymphocytes
Macrophages
Eosinophils
Neutrophils
Mast cells
319
Q

Do collagen fibres branch?

A

Nope

320
Q

Describe the structure of elastic fibres.

A

Thin, small, branching that recoil w/out deformation

321
Q

What is the structure of arteries from the lumen outwards?

A

Tunica intima
Tunica media w/smooth muscle
Tunic adventitia

322
Q

Where are elastic fibres found?

A

Lungs
Bladder
Skin
Blood vessels

323
Q

What do the smooth muscle cells in the tunica media secrete?

A

Elastin
Collagen
ECM

324
Q

How are reticular fibres arranged?

A

Thin fibres that form a delicate net-like framework

325
Q

Where are reticular fibres found?

A

Liver
Lymph nodes
Spleen
Haemopoietic organs

326
Q

What is the function of reticular fibres?

A

Filter blood and lymph

Support capillaries, nerves and muscles

327
Q

How are the fibres in areolar tissue arranged?

A

Collagen predominate to form a loose fibre meshwork
Elastic fibres branch
Some fine reticular fibres (often unseen)

328
Q

Which cells are always seen in areolar tissue?

A

Macrophages

329
Q

What cells are seen in areolar tissue?

A 
Mast
Eosinophils
Neutrophils
Lymphocytes
Adipocytes
Macrophages
330
Q

What characteristics does areolar tissue have?

A

Highly vascular

Able to stretch quite a lot

331
Q

How are the fibres arranged in dense irregular tissue?

A

Bundles of collagen densely but irregularly packed
Larger and more numerous elastic fibres than in areolar CT
Fine elastic networks

332
Q

How are fibroblasts arranged in dense irregular connective tissue?

A

Compressed among collagen fibres

333
Q

What is the composition of dense irregular tissue?

A

Minimal ground substance

Sparse cells other than fibroblasts

334
Q

What characteristic does dense irregular tissue display?

A

Great tensile strength

335
Q

What type of tissue divides gland into lobules to give strength?

A

Trabeculae of dense irregular tissue

336
Q

How are fibres arranged in dense regular connective tissue?

A

Collagen bundles lie in parallel, densely packed and in line w/tensile force from muscle

337
Q

What is the composition of dense regular tissue?

A

Elongated flattened fibroblasts lie b/w collagen bundles
Little ground substance
Only really fibroblasts present

338
Q

What separates fascicles of densely packed collagen bundles in short ligaments?

A

Loose connective tissue

339
Q

What is an aponeurosis?

A

Flat tendon

340
Q

What happens at the myotendinous junction?

A

Sarcolemma of muscle fibres lies b/w collagen bundles and myofilaments

341
Q

What does interfascicular connective tissue between large collagen bundles contain?

A

Blood vessels

Pacinian corpuscles

342
Q

What are macrophages?

A

Most important antigen presenting cells and phagocytic cells derived from blood monocytes in the tissue

343
Q

What do the abundant granules in mast cells contain?

A

Heparin
Histamine
Eosinophil and neutrophil attractors

344
Q

What are mast cells not seen in the CNS?

A

Avoid oedema formation here

345
Q

What causes release of mast cell contents?

A

Cross-linking of coating IgE by an allergen

346
Q

What causes immediate hypersensitivity reactions, allergy and anaphylaxis?

A

Release of mast cell contents

347
Q

What can early lipoblasts, derived from fibroblasts, mature into?

A

White or brown adipocytes

348
Q

What is the structure of a white adipocyte?

A

Multiple lipid droplets fuse to form one large one that pushes cell contents to the periphery

349
Q

What is the structure of brown adipocytes?

A

Multiple lipid droplets w/central nuclei

350
Q

Which type of adipose tissue has a rich vascular supply and lost of mitochondria?

A

Brown

351
Q

What type of adipose tissue is involved in non-shivering thermogenesis in babies and hibernating animals?

A

Brown

352
Q

What is vitiligo?

A

Symmetrical autoimmune attack of melanocytes

353
Q

What is alopaecia areata?

A

Autoimmune attack of hair follicles causing hair loss

354
Q

How can the skin vary in macroscopic structure?

A

Laxity/wrinkling
Hair
Colour

355
Q

What causes ageing in the skin?

A

UV-induced injury to dermal collagen and elastin

356
Q

Where is ageing in the skin more prominent?

A

Areas that flex a lot

357
Q

Which is the thicker component of the skin?

A

Dermis

358
Q

What does the dermis contain?

A

Blood vessels
Erector pili muscles
Sweat glands

359
Q

What are the layers of the epidermis from top to bottom?

A

Horny
Granular
Prickle
Basal

360
Q

What function do the flattened corneocytes in the horny layer of the epidermis perform?

A

Major skin barrier

Water barrier

361
Q

What does the granular layer of the epidermis contain?

A 
Keratohylin granules
Fibrous proteins
Phopsholipase
Fillaggrin
Involucrin
362
Q

What is the function of fillaggrin?

A

Aggregates keratin

363
Q

What is seen in the granular layer of the epidermis which is a major part of the corneocytes envelope?

A

Involucrin

364
Q

Why is the prickle cell layer of the epithelium so called?

A

Cells are joined by prickle like desmosomes

365
Q

How does a keratinocytes progress through the epithelium?

A

Mitosis in basal layer
Daughter keratinocytes move to prickle cell layer and cannot divide
Lose plasma membrane and become corneocytes in granular layer
Corneocytes are main cells of horny layer

366
Q

How long does cell migration through the epidermis take?

A

30-40 days

367
Q

Does the number of melanocytes in different skin types change?

A

No, production of melanin does

368
Q

In which layer of the epidermis are melanocytes found?

A

Basal

369
Q

What type of cells are melanocytes?

A

Dendritic of neural crest origin

370
Q

What are Langerhans cells highly specialised to do?

A

Present antigens to T-lymph

371
Q

What type of cells are Langerhans cells?

A

Dendritic of bone marrow origin

372
Q

Which layer of the epidermis are Langerhans cells seen in?

A

Prickle

373
Q

What mediates immune reactions in the epidermis?

A

Langerhans cells

374
Q

What aggregates around the nucleus of epithelial cells to protect against UV?

A

Neighbouring keratinocytes w/donated melanin from melanosomes

375
Q

What are melanosomes?

A

Mature melanocytes containing melanin

376
Q

What is psoriasis?

A

Extremes proliferation of epidermal basal layer –> gross thickening of prickle cell layer –> excessive stratum corneum cell production –> scaling

377
Q

What causes psoriasis?

A

Don’t know

378
Q

What mediates allergic contact dermatitis?

A

Langerhans cells

379
Q

What is the difference between a malignant melanoma with a good prognosis and one with a poor prognosis?

A

Tumour cells above BM = good

Penetrating ‘nodular’ melanomas = very poor

380
Q

What is the dermo-epidermal junction?

A

Site of epidermal basement membrane below basal layer of epidermis

381
Q

How is the dermis characterised?

A

Tough
Fibrous
Vascular

382
Q

What shape are fibroblasts in the dermis?

A

Spindle shaped throughout

383
Q

What is found in the ECM of the dermis?

A

Collagens esp. type I
Elastin
Other ECM components

384
Q

What components are found in the dermis in addition to the ECM?

A

Blood vessels
Lymphatic vessels
Mast cells
Nerves

385
Q

What is solar elastosis?

A

Collagen and elastin damage due to excessive UV exposure

386
Q

What causes striae?

A

Damage to collagen and elastin

387
Q

What do scars comprise of?

A

Mainly collagen from fibroblasts

388
Q

What predisposes to keloid formation?

A

Coloured skin

389
Q

How is blood supplied to the skin?

A

Smaller blood vessels in superficial dermis interconnecting vessels larger blood vessels in deeper dermis

390
Q

What is a birthmark?

A

Congenital malformation of dermal blood vessels

391
Q

What happens in acne?

A

Abnormal differentiation of sebaceous gland ducts which become obstructed
Increased sebum production leads to infection by normally harmless skin bacteria

392
Q

What method of secretion do sebaceous ducts use?

A

Holocrine

393
Q

What is the function of eccrine sweat glands?

A

Thermoregulation

394
Q

How are eccrine swear glands classified?

A

Simple, coiled, tubular glands w/clear cells that secrete watery substance and dark cells that secrete mucus

395
Q

What aids expulsion from eccrine sweat glands?

A

Myoepithelial cells

396
Q

What does hyperhidrosis cause?

A

Wet, malodorous feet and embarrassing wet palms

397
Q

What are apocrine sweat glands?

A

Large sweat glands w/no known function

398
Q

Where are apocrine sweat glands abundant?

A

Axillae
Genital area
Submammary area

399
Q

What causes body odour?

A

Cutaneous microbes digesting protein-rich apocrine secretion from apocrine sweat glands

400
Q

What are the main functions of the skin?

A

Barrier
Thermoregulation
Sensation
Psychosexual communication

401
Q

What does the skin act as a barrier to?

A

Loss of fluid, protein, other nutrients and heat

Excessive absorption of potentially harmful exogenous agents

402
Q

Name two conditions that can cause sensory neuropathy.

A

Diabetes

Leprosy

403
Q

What are paramount in thermoregulation?

A

Vasculature

Eccrine sweating

404
Q

What is the overall function of the embryonic period?

A

Right number of cells of the right type in the right place

405
Q

When is the embryonic period?

A

Weeks 3-8

406
Q

Which is the period of greatest change in embryonic development?

A

Embryonic

407
Q

When are all major structures and systems during development?

A

Embryonic period

408
Q

Which is the most perilous stage for the developing child?

A

Embryonic period

409
Q

What happens in the week of threes in the embryonic period of development?

A

3 cavities - chorionic cavity established
Trilaminar disc - 3 germ layers
3 axes set

410
Q

What are the 3 axes set during the embryonic period?

A

Anterior/posterior
Dorsal/ventral
Right/left

411
Q

What is the legal significance of the primitive streak?

A

Cannot clone an embryo after it has appeared

412
Q

What appears on the dorsal surface of the epiblast during gastrulation?

A

Narrow groove w/bulging edges

413
Q

Where are the primitive node and pit located during gastrulation?

A 
Node = cranial end
Pit = centre of node
414
Q

What is the conductor of gastrulation?

A

Primitive node

415
Q

What happens to the primitive streak during gastrulation?

A

Regresses, moving cranial to caudal

416
Q

Why is the cranial end of a developing embryo always more developed than the caudal?

A

Primitive streak regression

417
Q

What happens to the hypoblast cells in migration and invagination?

A

Lost as no longer needed

418
Q

What do the epiblast cells lateral to the primitive streak undergo when they move into it?

A

Epithelial to mesenchymal transformation

419
Q

How do the cells change in appearance in epithelial to mesenchymal transformation?

A

Cuboidal, tightly connected –> irregularly shaped, loosely connected

420
Q

Which layer of the trilaminar disc is formed by invasion and displacement of hypoblast cells?

A

Definitive endoderm

421
Q

Which layer of the trilaminar disc is formed by invasion between epiblast and definitive ectoderm?

A

Mesoderm

422
Q

Which five subgroups can the mesoderm be split into?

A 
Vascular system
CT
Body cavity linings
RBCs 
Muscle
423
Q

Which layer of the trilaminar disc is formed by the remaining epiblast quickly differentiating?

A

Ectoderm

424
Q

Which tissues are derived from the ectoderm?

A 
Organs of special senses
Pigment cells
Epidermis
Neurons
CNS
425
Q

How do the cells in the mesoderm spread out?

A

Laterally and cephalad

426
Q

Where does the ectoderm fuse tightly with the endoderm?

A

At two faint depressions, one at the cranial end and one at the caudal end

427
Q

What will the tight fusions of the ectoderm and endoderm become in the developing embryo?

A

Mouth and anus

428
Q

What forms the notochord?

A

Subgroup of mesodermal cells that migrate cranially to form a thick-walled midline tube

429
Q

Where is the notochord located?

A

In the midline running from the head through the embryo

430
Q

What is the importance of the notochord?

A 
Important signalling role
Defines midline
Defines axial skeleton
Drives neurulation
Regresses into nucleus polposus
431
Q

What is a slipped disc?

A

Herniation of nucleus polposus

432
Q

Which axis is defined by the primitive streak?

A

Rostral/caudal

433
Q

What ensures correct dorso-ventral and left-right development?

A

Molecular signals emanating from primitive node

434
Q

What causes left-right asymmetry as seen in the neonate?

A

Action of ciliated cells at primitive node gives left-ward flow of signal, absence of which gives right sided structures

435
Q

When is the embryonic disc bilaterally symmetrical?

A

Before gastrulation

436
Q

What is situs inversus?

A

Immobile cilia or chance causes lack of left-sidedness signal so major visceral organs appear on reflected side

437
Q

When do problems arise in situs inversus?

A

Faulty cilia

If normal and mirror image disposition occur together

438
Q

Why is gastrulation not complete until week 4?

A

Development proceeds cephalocaudally so not complete in caudal region until then

439
Q

How are twins formed with their own individual placenta?

A

Embryo splits after first cleavage

440
Q

How can twinning occur with two embryos sharing the same placenta?

A

Inner cell mass duplicated and slightly separated

Duplication of primitive streak –> 2 gastrulation events and primitive streaks

441
Q

How are conjoined twins formed?

A

Separation not complete following duplication of inner cell mass

442
Q

What is teratogenesis?

A

Process by which normal embryonic development is disrupted

443
Q

When is the developing embryo most sensitive to teratogenesis?

A

Weeks 3-8 but each organ has its own specific window

444
Q

Give examples of teratogenic agents.

A 
Thalidomide
Rubella
Alcohol
Warfarin
ACEI
445
Q

What is cartilage?

A

Avascular tissue that consists of chondrocytes within extensive extracellular matrix

446
Q

What permits ready diffusion of substances in the extracellular matrix of cartilage?

A

Large ratio of GAGs to type II collagen

447
Q

What is the benefit of having extensive extracellular matrix in cartilage?

A

Makes it pliable so it is resistant to repeated application of pressure

448
Q

What are the three types of cartilage?

A

Hyaline
Elastic
Fibro

449
Q

What does the ECM of hyaline cartilage contain?

A

Proteoglycans
Hyaluronic acid
Type II collagen
Hyaluronate proteoglycan aggregates bound to fine collagen matrix fibres

450
Q

What is the advantage of having highly hydrated hyaline cartilage?

A

Permits resilience to varying pressure loads

451
Q

What type of cells are found in hyaline cartilage?

A

Exclusively chondrocytes

452
Q

How are the chondrocytes in hyaline cartilage arranged?

A

Singly or recently divided isogenous groups

Separate as they elaborate

453
Q

Which is the most common type of cartilage?

A

Hyaline

454
Q

What forms the ECM of elastic cartilage?

A

Same as hyaline w/ elastic fibres and lamellae

455
Q

Does elastic cartilage calcify?

A

No

456
Q

What does the ECM of fibrocartilage contain?

A

Same as hyaline w/an abundance of type I collagen

457
Q

What cells are present in fibrocartilage?

A

Chondrocytes and fibroblasts

458
Q

Which type of cartilage is the most resistant to shearing?

A

Fibrocartilage

459
Q

Is there a perichondrium in fibrocartilage?

A

No

460
Q

How are the cells in fibrocartilage arranged?

A

Chondrocytes in rows

Fibroblasts few and far between

461
Q

What is the structure of the perichondrium of hyaline cartilage?

A

Vascularised, dense irregular w/many elongate fibroblast-like cells which can develop into chondroblasts

462
Q

What produces and maintains the ECM of hyaline cartilage?

A

Chondrocytes

463
Q

How can differentiation of chondrocytes be seen in hyaline cartilage?

A

Cells get bigger

464
Q

Where is perichondrium not present?

A

Joint articulating surfaces

465
Q

Why is there no perichondrium present on the articulating surfaces?

A

It is delicate and would be damaged

466
Q

What is seen on hyaline that contributes to the developing joint capsule?

A

Perichondrium

467
Q

What is the difference between territorial matrix and interterritorial matrix?

A

Territorial surrounds isogenous groups and chondrocytes and is more sulphated

468
Q

How does hyaline cartilage grow?

A

Apposition all growth –> chondrocytes divide –> isogenous groups –> interstitial growth –> isogenous groups separate

469
Q

What is an enthesis?

A

Point of transition b/w tendon and bone

470
Q

How are cells arranged in the intervertebral discs?

A

Chondrocytes in rows or isogenous groups

Small number of elongated fibroblasts

471
Q

Which type of collagen is found in the menisci of the knee?

A

I

472
Q

What does each chondrocyte lie in?

A

Lacuna

473
Q

What stimulates chondrocytes to synthesise ECM?

A

Pressure loads applied to cartilage creating mechanical, electrical and chemical signals

474
Q

What role does hyaline cartilage play in bone elongation?

A

Forms epiphyseal growth plate

475
Q

Why is the bone-cartilage boundary irregular?

A

To prevent shearing

476
Q

What is the structure of cancellous bone?

A

Forms tiny networks of fine bony columns or plates w/bone marrow filled spaces

477
Q

Which type of bone forms the external surface of bones and comprises ~80% of body’s skeletal mass?

A

Compact/cortical

478
Q

How do the osteocytes appear in immature bone?

A

Large and randomly arranged

479
Q

What carries blood vessels, lymph vessels and nerves in bone?

A

Haversian and Volkmann’s canals

480
Q

What is the structure of mature bone?

A

Osteocytes in concentric lamellae of osteons

Resorption canals parallel to osteon long axis

481
Q

What are Haversian canals?

A

Series of tubes that surround blood vessels and nerve cells throughout bone and communicate w/osteocytes in lacunae via canaliculi

482
Q

What is another name for Haversian systems?

A

Osteons

483
Q

What is the basic structural unit of compact bone that consists of the central canal and its concentric lamellae?

A

Osteons

484
Q

What is the general direction of osteons in compact bone?

A

Same as that of long bone but can branch and terminate

485
Q

What happens to Haversian systems as bone remodels?

A

Successive generations are formed

486
Q

Do Volkmann’s canals have concentric lamellae?

A

No

487
Q

What are osteoblasts?

A

Cells present on surfaces of bone that synthesise, secrete and deposit osteons which is rapidly mineralised to become bone

488
Q

What are osteocytes?

A

Mature osteoblasts that are the principal cells of bone trapped in matrix where they lie singularly in lacunae

489
Q

How do osteoblasts and osteocytes differ in size?

A

Osteocytes are smaller

490
Q

How do osteocytes communicate?

A

Canaliculi into which cytoplasmic extensions enter

491
Q

What happens if canaliculi between osteocytes are disrupted?

A

Osteocytes cannot communicate so die and surrounding bone matrix is absorbed by osteoclasts

492
Q

What are osteoclasts?

A

Large, multinucleated cells found along bone surfaces where resorption, remodelling and repair are taking place

493
Q

What can osteoclasts release for bone removal?

A

Hydrogen ions

Lysosomal enzymes

494
Q

Where can elastic cartilage be found?

A

Pinna
Epiglottis
Auditory meatus
Eustachian tube

495
Q

Where can hyaline cartilage be found?

A 
Shoulders
Larynx
Trachea
Lung
Costal joints etc.
Skeletal model for most bones in embryo
496
Q

Where can fibrocartilage be found?

A 
Temperomandibular joint
Sternoclavicular joint
Intervertebral disc
Public symphysis
Menisci of knee
497
Q

What gives limit to lamellae number in Haversian canals?

A

Connection of osteocytes via gap junctions due to absent diffusion

498
Q

What is the composition of bone?

A

65% mineral - hydroxyapatite crystals
23% type I collagen
10% water
2% non-collagen proteins

499
Q

How does the histological structure of cancellous bone differ to that of compact bone?

A

Osteocytes lie between irregular lamellae
No Haversian/Volkmann’s canals
Adipose and haemopoietic cells lie in cavities

500
Q

How does a bone spicule grow?

A

Growing spicule consists of osteocytes trapped in hard bone with surrounding osteoblasts depositing new osteoid and surrounding themselves to become osteocytes

501
Q

What do osteoclasts create in bone remodelling?

A

Cutting cone that usually travels parallel to osteon direction

502
Q

What is found behind the osteoclasts in bone remodelling?

A

Osteoblasts

503
Q

What is a heterografts in relation to bone grafting?

A

Bone donor is a different species

504
Q

How does bone resist fracture?

A

Great tensile and compressive strength coupled w/flexibility

505
Q

What happens to the lamellae in bone before it will break?

A

Slip over each other

506
Q

What are the four stages of bone healing?

A

Haematoma formation
Fibrocartillaginous callus
Bony callus
Bone remodelling

507
Q

What happens during haematoma formation in bone healing?

A

Phagocytic cells and osteoclasts remove dead and damaged tissue
Swelling and inflammation
Blood clot forms

508
Q

What removes the haematoma from a healing bone?

A

Macrophages

509
Q

How is the fibrocartillaginous callus formed in bone healing?

A

Osteoblasts and multipotent cells invade
New blood vessels infiltrate haematoma
Procallus of granulation tissue develops
Fibroblasts secrete type I then type II cartilage to span break
Chondrocytes form hyaline cartilage sleeve

510
Q

Describe the granulation tissue in fibrocartillaginous callus formation.

A

Rick in capillaries and fibroblasts

511
Q

What halogens during bony callus formation?

A

New bone trabeculae form in callus
Callus –> cancellous bone causes tabeculae to develop into cortical bone
Emdochondral ossification replaces all cartilage w/assistance from intramembranous ossification

512
Q

How long does bone remodelling in bone healing last?

A

Several months

513
Q

What happens during the bone remodelling stage of fracture repair?

A

Cancellous bone –> compact bone esp. in cortical region
Bulging material is removed
Bone returns to original shape because of same stressors acting on bone

Semester 1 (7 decks)

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