TOB S4 - Viruses and Early Embryonic Development 1 Flashcards

1
Q

How big are viruses?

A
  • Submicroscopic: 18-350 nm - Can’t be seen with an ordinary light microscope; only with an electron microscope - Can pass through filters that trap even the smallest bacteria
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2
Q

Are viruses living?

A

No, they are obligate intracellular parasites - Have no genes that encode for proteins that function as the metabolic machinery for energy generation or protein synthesis - May or may not contain the genes that encode enzymes involved in nucleic acid synthesis

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3
Q

How do viruses replicate?

A

They hijack the host’s mechanism to support their own replication

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4
Q

Describe the biochemistry of viruses

A
  • Have DNA or RNA, not both. RNA viruses less stable - Have no small ions or polysaccharides - May (enveloped viruses) or may not (naked viruses) contain lipids
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5
Q

Give some examples of viral shapes

A
  • Adenovirus - Papillomavirus - Parvovirus - Morbillivirus - Herpesvirus - Parainfluenzavirus - Influenzavirus - Poxvirus - Filovirus - See images ppt slides 15-17
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6
Q

How do the growth curves of bacteria and viruses compare?

A

Bacteria (A) and viruses (B) have very different growth curves

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7
Q

What is the basic structure of a virus?

A
  • Nucleic acid of RNA or DNA is the genetic information for the virus - Single (SS) or double (DS) stranded - Linear, circular or nicked - Unsegmented or segmented (e.g. influenza; allows reassortment in mixed infections, leading to new strains) - SS RNA can be plus (+) or minus (-) sense: - +RNA: genomic RNA can serve as mRNA and be directly translated into protein - -RNA: genomic RNA cannot serve as mRNA and cannot be translated directly into protein (for example Ebola)
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8
Q

How is specific diagnosis of most viral infections achieved?

A

By molecular detection of their genomes (e.g. by PCR)

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9
Q

What is a long term survival strategy of viruses?

A

RNA ➡️ DNA Reverse transcriptase enzyme

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10
Q

What are the two types of SS RNA genomes?

A

+ve (sense) -ve (anti-sense)

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11
Q

What is a capsid?

A
  • Protein outer coat of a virion (common to all viruses) - Capsid composed of in visual subunits called capsomers (vaccines can be made out of these)
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12
Q

What are the two basic capsid structures?

A
  • Icosahedral - Helical
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13
Q

What is the function of the capsid?

A
  • Protects delicate inner nucleic acid from harsh environmental conditions - May be involved in attachment to host cells
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14
Q

What is a nucleocapsid?

A

A capsid with a genome

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15
Q

What is bacteriophage T4?

A
  • A complex virus (viruses affecting our cells are simple in comparison) - Involved in transfer of drug resistance - Injects DNA through cell wall of bacteria
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16
Q

What is required for a virus to successfully infect a host cell?

A
  • Cell must contain the receptor that the virus bunds to in the process of initiating an infection. The part of the virus that binds to the receptor is called a ligand. The ligand is on the envelope of enveloped viruses. - Glycoprotein gp 120 (the ligand) on HIV binds to CD4 (receptor) and CXCR4 (co-receptor) on T lymphocytes or CCR5 (co-receptor) on macrophages - Glycoproteins in the envelope of Ebola appear to bind a cholesterol transporter in target cells
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17
Q

What is required for a virus to successfully replicate in a host cell?

A
  • Host must contain not only the receptor for the virus, but also the cellular machinery that the virus needs for replication - If the virus successfully replicates in the host cell, the infection is productive and the host cell is said to be permissive for the virus
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18
Q

What is the host range of a virus?

A

The spectrum of host cells that the virus can successfully infect and replicate in

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19
Q

How are viruses classified?

A

Most commonly used classification scheme is the Baltimore scheme - based on the relationship between the viral genome and the mRNA used for translation during expression of the viral genome

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20
Q

Give classifications of viruses by nucleic acid type and envelope as mainly used in medical virology

A

Enveloped viruses are generally more susceptible to disinfectants than non-enveloped

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21
Q

What are the effects of a virus on the host cell?

A
  • Even though can’t see the virus, you may be able to see the effects that the virus has on the host cell - Death of cell: often occurs on release of virus - Cytopathic effects - Many enveloped viruses produce no direct light microscope observable cytopathic effects e.g. HIV and Ebola - Cancer
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22
Q

What are cytopathic effects?

A
  • Visible effects on the host cell caused by viral replication - Inclusion bodies: site of active virus synthesis (Negri bodies of rabies virus) - Syncytia formation: giant, multinucleated cells formed by the fusion of plasma membranes - Chromosomal damage: stop host cell function and direct towards viral replication - Inhibition of host cell protein, RNA and DNA synthesis
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23
Q

How does a virus cause cancer in the host cell?

A
  • Requires that virus integrates all or part of its genome into the host cell DNA (drugs have no effect on integrated DNA) - Only RNA viruses that are retroviruses can cause cancer: they bring in / turn on cellular oncogenes that cause cells to proliferate uncontrollably. - Many DNA viruses can cause cancer, but usually do it in a non-permissive cell (lacks something required for viral growth). They usually inactivate tumour-suppressor proteins that normally act to keep the cell and going through the cell cycle. Thus cells start going through the cell cycle and proliferating
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24
Q

How does Ebola work?

A
  • Damage in infection is often due to ineffective host responses rather than direct toxicity of the microbe - In Ebola, the virus both reduces the effective immune response and enhances unproductive inflammation - These complex interactions lead to coagulation failure and haemorrhage - Specific immune response is often used as an alternative method of diagnosis to genome detection
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25
Q

How are viruses acquired?

A
  • From other humans by direct contact: sexual contact and vertical transmission - From the environment: respiratory (aerosols), gastrointestinal (fecal-oral contamination) and transcutaneous (inoculation)
26
Q

How can viruses be spread?

A

Via nerves to nervous system and via blood to many organs. Many viruses spread via multiple pathways

27
Q

How can viruses be detected?

A
  • By genome directed nucleic acid amplification (NAA, e.g. PCR), culturing in cells or identification of virus particles or antigens in tissue specimens - Can also be recognised by detecting the specific virus-detected immune response
28
Q

Give some features of viral infections

A
  • Can be acute, subacute, chronic or latent - Characterised by an incubation period in which virus replication eventually leads to damage or dysfunction that is symptomatic - Curtailed within the host primarily by cell-mediated immunity
29
Q

Describe viral growth

A

GRAPHS SLIDES 41-44

30
Q

How does one cell become a multicellular body?

A
  • Growth - Morphogenesis: development of form and structure - Differentiation
31
Q

Give a brief overview of the different stages from fertilisation to birth

A

A) Pre-embryonic: weeks 1-2 B) Embryonic: weeks 3-8 (all systems of body built from individual cells) C) Foetal: weeks 9-38 (growth) But pregnancy weeks calculated from date of last menstrual period e.g. conception weeks +2, so term is 40 pregnancy weeks

32
Q

Give an overview of the pre-embryonic period

A
  • First two weeks of development - Cleavage (first mitotic division): formation of morula - Compaction: formation of blastocyst - Implantation begins
33
Q

Describe fertilisation

A
  • Oocyte is released from the ovary - Travels along the Fallopian (uterine) tube - Is fertilised by sperm in the ampulla - Sperm viable for up to 3 days, oocyte viable for 1 day - Fertilised oocyte is called the zygote - Ideal site for implantation is the posterior uterine wall
34
Q

What happens on Day 2?

A
  • Cleavage: begins 30 hours after fertilisation and results in two blastomeres of equal size - Zona pellucida: glycoprotein shell
35
Q

What happens on Day 3?

A
  • Morula - Each cell at this stage of development is identical and totipotent (has capacity to become any cell type)
36
Q

Describe assisted reproductive techniques

A
  • Oocytes are fertilised in vitro and allowed to divide to the 4- or 8-cell stage - Morula is then transferred into the uterus - PGD
37
Q

What is PGD?

A
  • Pre-implantation genetic diagnosis - A cell can be safely removed from the morula and tested for serious heritable conditions prior to transfer of the embryo into the mother
38
Q

What happens on Day 4?

A
  • Compaction - Formation of first cavity - Blastocyst
39
Q

Describe the different cell types before and after compaction

A
  • Before compaction cells are totipotent: the capacity to become any cell type (only cells produced by the first cell divisions after fertilisation are totipotent) - After compaction cells are pluripotent: the capacity to become one of many cell types (“multilineage potential”)
40
Q

What happens on Day 5?

A
  • Hatching - Blastocyst hatches from zona pellucida - No longer constrained; now free to enlarge - Can now interact with uterine surface to implant
41
Q

What happens on Days 6-7?

A
  • Implantation begins - The concepts now has 107 cells - Of these 8 will make the embryo and 99 will begin development of the foetal membranes - complete only at end of first trimester
42
Q

Give an overview of Week 2

A
  • Differentiation - 2 distinct layers form from both outer and inner cell mass - Outer: syncytioblast (multinucleate sheet) and cytotrophoblast (cellular layer) - Inner becomes the bilaminar disk: epiblast and hypoblast
43
Q

What is a conceptus?

A

The products of conception

44
Q

What has happened by the end of Week 2?

A
  • Conceptus has implanted - Embryo and its two cavities (amniotic cavity and yolk sac) will be suspended (connecting stalk) within a supporting sac (chorionic cavity)
45
Q

What happens on Day 8?

A
  • Bilaminar disk - Syncytiotrophoblast minimises barriers to diffusion and active transport
46
Q

Describe implantation

A
  • Complete days 9-10 - Interstitial (tissues have close, intimate relationship). The uterine epithelium is breached and conceptus implants within the uterine stroma - Establishes maternal blood flow (endometrium has very rich blood supply) within the placenta. Support of the embryo changes from histiotrophic (simple diffusion tissue) to haemotrophic - Establishes the basic structural unit of materno-foetal exchange
47
Q

Describe implantation

A
  • Complete days 9-10 - Interstitial (tissues have close, intimate relationship). The uterine epithelium is breached and conceptus implants within the uterine stroma - Establishes maternal blood flow (endometrium has very rich blood supply) within the placenta. Support of the embryo changes from histiotrophic (simple diffusion tissue) to haemotrophic - Establishes the basic structural unit of materno-foetal exchange
48
Q

Name some conditions linked to implantation defects

A
  • IUGR (inter-uterine growth restriction) - Pre-eclampsia - Ectopic pregnancy - Placenta praevia
49
Q

Describe ectopic pregnancy

A
  • Can be caused by problem with cilia - Implantation at site other than uterine body (most commonly Fallopian tube) - Can be peritoneal or ovarian) - Can very quickly become a life-threatening emergency (haemorrhage)
50
Q

Describe placenta praevia

A
  • Implantation in lower uterine segment - Can cause haemorrhage in pregnancy (can grow across exit to birth canal) - Degrees of severity: can require C-section delivery
51
Q

What happens on Day 9?

A
  • Embryonic pole (rapid development of syncytiotrophoblast) - Abembryonic pole (primitive yolk sac formed) - Yolk sac membrane in contact with cytotrophoblast layer
52
Q

What happens on Day 11?

A
  • Primitive yolk sac (acellular) membrane is pushed away (by creation of ground substances) from cytotrophoblast layer by an acellular extraembryonic reticulum - Reticulum later converted (differentiates) to extraembryonic mesoderm by cell migration
53
Q

What happens on Day 12?

A
  • Maternal sinusoids invaded by syncytiotrophoblast - Lacunae become continuous with sinusoids - Uteroplacental circulation begins - Uterine stroma prepares for support of the embryo
54
Q

What happens on Day 13?

A
  • Formation of secondary/definitive yolk sac - Pinches off from primitive yolk sac
55
Q

What happens on Day 14?

A
  • Spaces within the extraembryonic mesoderm merge to form the chorionic cavity - The embryo and its cavities are suspended by the connecting stalk: column of mesoderm, future umbilical cord - Bleeding around this time can be confused with menstrual bleeding
56
Q

What is the blastocoele?

A

First cavity Formed as a result of compaction

57
Q

What is the amniotic sac?

A

Formed from spaces within the epiblast

58
Q

What is the primitive yolk sac?

A

Aka exocoelomic cavity Formed by hypoblast lining blastocoele

59
Q

What is the secondary yolk sac?

A

Aka definitive yolk sac Formed within primitive yolk sac

60
Q

What is the extraembryonic coelom

A

Aka chorionic cavity Formed from spaces within extraembryonic reticulum and mesoderm

61
Q

Give some figures for early pregnancy loss

A
  • Approximately 50% of all zygotes are lost in the first 2-3 weeks - 15% diagnosed pregnancies will miscarry - 1% of women suffer from recurrent miscarriage (miscarriage in 3 consecutive pregnancies)