Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PPE > TOB > Flashcards

TOB Flashcards

0
Q

Types of electron microscopy

A

Scanning

Transitional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Types of light microscopy

A

Bright field - normal
Dark field - light shined at angle - see reflections only
Phase contrast - light passed through sample changes phase, exaggerate using phase plate
Differential interference contrast - like phase contrast but. Edge highlights
Fluorescence - add fluorescent stain or gene - add specific wavelength and it glows a specific colour
Confocal - fluorescence that uses focused beam so scans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Types of stains for histology

A

Eosin - stains basic stuff red
Haemotoxylin - stains acid stuff blue
Periodic acid shiff - stains carbohydrates and glycoproteins magenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the two layers of the basement membrane?

A

Basal lamina

Lamina reticularis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is mucus?

A

Liquid containing highly glycosylated polypeptides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What stains mucous glands?

What stains serous glands?

A

PAS

H and E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the three types of secretion?

A

Merocrine - extends membrane as vesicle fuses
Apocrine - shrinks membrane as vesicle forms
Holocrine - cell disintigrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

On which side of golgi are cis and trans?

A

Cis faces ER

Trans faces PM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the covering of carbohydrates over a cell membrane called?

A

Glycocalyx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are sebaceous glands?

A

Associated with hair follicles
Branched acinar structure
Holocrine secretion of sebum
Sebum helps protect hair and skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the layers of the gi mucous membrane?

A

Lumen
Mucosa - epithelium, lamina propria, muscularis mucosa
Submucosa
Muscularis externa - circular, longitudinal
Serosa / adventitia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is found in the lamina propria?

A

Payers patches

Mucosal glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is found in the submucosa?

A

Glands, vessels, lymphatics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What the three sorts of cytoskelelton? What do they do?

A

Microfilaments - e.g. Actin around edge of cell providing support, shape and movement
Intermediate filaments - tough support network, anchors cell junctions, stabilises cell e.g keratin
Microtubules - long hollow tubes, allow movement within the cell, dynein and kinesin attach organelles to the microtubules. E.g. Spindle fibre or cilia / flagella movers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What produces spindle fibre? What sort of cytoskeleton is it?

A

Centrioles within centrosomes

Microtubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the distinction between flagella and cillia?

A

Cillia move things over surface of cell

Flagella move cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the microtubule structure of flagella?

A

Two central single tubes surrounded by nine double tubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a peroxisome?

A

Similar to a lysome but smaller, detoxifies chemicals via oxidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is found on the outer coat of a gram positive bacteria?

A

Peptidoglycan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is found on the outer coat of a gram negative bacteria?

A

Lipopolysacaride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the three main stages of in utero development?

A

Weeks 1-2 pre embryonic
Weeks 3-8 embryonic
Weeks 9-birth fetal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In what ways can a fetus grow?

A

Proliferation of cells
Hypertrophy of cells
Secretion of extracellular matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What occurs in week one of development?

A

Morula formation
Differentiation between inner and outer cell masses
Fluid leaks in forming blastocele within blastocyst
Formation of trophoblast and embryoblast
Breakdown of zona pellucidia
Binding to external endometrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What cavities form in the second week of development?

A

Amniotic cavity within epiblast
Hypoblast migrates around edge of blastocele forming primitive yoke sac
Extraembryonic mesoderm forms between yoke sac and cytotrophoblast. Lancunae form in this mesoderm, merging to. Frm extraembryonic or chorionic cavity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Differentiate the extraembryonic mesoderms

A

Splanchnic - lines the yoke sac
Somatic - lines the amniotic cavity
Chorionic plate - lines chorionic cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the functions of connective tissue?

A 
Support
Substance/form
Protection
Attachment
Defence against infection
Repair
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is ground substance?

What are its functions?

A

Hyaluronic acid (large GAG) with proteoglycan branches (protein cores with GAG branches)

Highly negatively charged attracting water forming a gel
Porous
Good at resisting compression
Filtering role in bowmans capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What cell types are commonly found in connective tissue?

A 
Fibro/chondro/osteo -  blasts/cytes
Myofibroblasts
Adipocytes
Macrophages
Mast cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the 4 types of collagen?

A

1 - 90%, forms fibres
2 - doesn’t form fibres, found in cartilage
3 - reticulin, forms mesh around tissues/organs
4 - doesn’t form fibres, part of basement membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What comprises elastic fibres?

A

Fibrillin (orders fibres)

Elastin (secreted as tropoelastin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Structure and examples of loose connective tissue

A

Many fibroblasts
Disordered sparse fibres
Eg submucosa, lamina propria, mammary glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Structure and examples of dense regular connective tissue

A

Densely packed collagen with few fibroblasts
Collagen direction regular
Eg tendons, ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Structure and examples of dense irregular connective tissue

A

Densely packed collagen with few cells
Collagen direction irregular
Eg dermis, periosteum etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the 4 layers of the epidermis from external to internal?

A

Stratum corneum
Stratum granulosum
Stratum spinulosum
Stratum basalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What causes someones skin to be darker in colour?

A

Increased melanin

Number of melanocytes the same

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How can skin differ region to region?

A

Colour
Hair
Laxity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the functions of skin?

A 
Protection (physical, chemical, radiological, pathogens)
Sensation
Thermoregulation
Water balance
Metabolism
Sexual attraction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What cell types are found in the epidermis and where

A

Keritinocytes - from basalis to corneum
Melanocytes - basalis
Langerhans - spinosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How do keritinocytes develop?

A

Mitosis in stratum basalis
Gain many desmosme junctions joined by tonofilaments through stratum spinulosum
Keratinohyline granules visible in stratum granulosum
Keratinohyline released converting tonofilaments into keratin cell dehydrates, organelles degrade in stratum corneum
All takes 28 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is found in sebum?

A

Fatty acids, cholesterol, glycerol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Where are sebacious glands found

A

One for each hair follicle
Fordyce spots of the genitals
Tysons glands of the foreskin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the two types of sweat glands? Where are they found? Hw do they secrete? How are the secretions different?

A

Merocrine - found over most skin
Appocrine - secretes in a merocrine fashion found in groin, axilla, aerola and beard
Appocrine glands secrete proteins, initially odourless until vrokend down by bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is. Psoriasis?

A

? Genetic ?immune

Execess proliferation of stratum basalis causing thickening of skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What causes vitiligo? What is the risk?

A

Autoimmune destruction of melanocytes

Increased risk of sunburn and cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is alopecia areta?

A

Immune destruction of hair follicles

Usually patchy

45
Q

What causes acne?

A

Obstruction of sebaceous glands ducts due to abnormal differentiation followed by infection of trapped sebum

46
Q

What occurs to epiblast cells during gastrulation?

A

Invaginate down primitive streak
Displace hypoblast forming endoderm
Fill gap between hypoblast and epiblast forming mesoderm
Epiblast becomes ectoderm

47
Q

How does the notochord form?

A

Pre notochordal cells invaginate through the cranial primitive pit, forming a midline rod running cranially to the procordal plate (just caudal to the buccopharyngeal membrane
Initial fusion to hypoblast, then as this is replaced by endoderm detach forming definitive notochord

48
Q

What are the functions of the notochord?

A

Drives neurolation
Defines midline
Provides framework
Becomes part of nucleus pulposus of intervertebral discs.

49
Q

What structures are derivied from ectoderm?

A

Epidermis

Nervous

50
Q

What is a cause of dextrocardia/situs invertus?

A

Derrangement of cilliated cells at primitive node causing disturbed left to right development.

51
Q

From which germ layers is epithelium derived?

A

Ectoderm - all external epithelium (skin and cornea)
Mesoderm - all internal tubes closed to outside (and GU tract)
Endoderm - all internal tubes open to outside (except GU tract)

52
Q

What are the two broad classifications of twins?

A

Dizygotic

Monozygotic

53
Q

What are the different classifications of monozygotic twins? What do they share?

A

Split morula - own placenta, own amnion
Split inner cell mass - shared placenta, own amnion
Two primitive streaks - shared placenta, shared amnion

54
Q

What is the major fibre of cartilage? What effect does its properties have on the cartilage? What else contributes to this property?

A

Type ii collagen
Doesn’t form fibres making the cartilage strong but flexible
Large amounts of ground substance

55
Q

How does cartilage develop?

A

Mesenchymal cells - chondroblasts - groups of chondroblasts - secretion of ground substance and collagen pushing chondroblasts apart - chondroblasts divide to groups of maintaining chondrocytes

56
Q

How can cartilage grow?

A

Appositional - fibroblasts in perichondrium differentiate into chondroblasts, secrete matrix then differentiate into chondrocytes
Interstitial - chondrocytes divide forming clusters of chondroblasts termed isogenous groups which separate as matrix produced.

57
Q

What are the three types of cartilage? Where are they found?

A

Hyaline - synovial joints, sterno costal junction, framework for development of skeleton, epiphysal plates, nasal septum, bronchi/trachea
Elastic - pinnia of ear, epiglottis, eustachian tubes
Fibro - high impact areas - menisci of knee, pubic symphysis, annulus fibrosis, tmj

58
Q

Why does articular cartilage heal so poorly?

A

Avascular

No perichondrium on articular surface

59
Q

What cells are found in fibrocartilage? What does this mean for the matrix?

A

Chondroblasts (secrete type 2 collagen)

Fibroblasts (secrete type 1 collagen)

60
Q

What cartilages lack perichondrium?

A

Articular hyaline

Fibro

61
Q

What are the different sorts of bone?

A

Compact/cortical
Spongy/cancellous
Woven

62
Q

What are the features of cortical bone?

A

Arranged in osteons of concentric lamellae with interstitial lamellae between them surrounded by circumferential lamellae.

63
Q

What is the structure of an osteon?

A

Osteocytes sat in lacunae between circumferential lamellae
Communicate via canaliculi
Central havasian canal
Perforating volkmans canal

64
Q

What is the structure of cancellous bone?

A

Circumferential lamellae forming trabeculae but no canals.

65
Q

How is bone remodelling performed?

A

Osteoclasts cut a cone out of the bone.
This is filled with loose connective tissue
Then replaced by osteoblasts with new bone forming an osteon

66
Q

How do bones develop?

A

Endochondrial ossification

Intermembranous ossification

67
Q

How does endochondrial ossification occur?

A

Mesenchymal cells to chondroblasts to hyaline cartilage model.
Collar of compact bone around shaft
Central chondrocytes hypertrophy and matrix calcifies
Nutrient artery penetrates shaft
Chondrocytes differentiate to osteoblasts forming primary ossification centre replacing cartilage with bone matrix
Osteoclasts break down middle of bone forming medullary canal
Secondary arteries penetrate epiphysis - secondary ossifcation centres.
Hyaline cartilage remains at epiphyseal growth plate and at either end for articulation

68
Q

Describe intermembranous ossification

A

Development of osteoblasts in mesenchyme (ossification centres)
Secretion of ecm
Osetoblasts to osteocytes
Calcification of ecm
Condensation of menchyme around trabeculae forming periosteum. Layer under periosteum forms cortical bone.

69
Q

What are the layers of the epiphysal growth plate?

A 
Zone of resting cartilage
Zone of proliferation
Zone of hypertrophy
Zone of calcified cartilage
Zone of reabsorption
70
Q

How do bones grow in width?

A

Appositional growth from periosteum

71
Q

What occurs in the zone of calcified cartilage and zone of reabsorption in the epiphysal growth plate?

A

Zcc - calification = death of chodroblasts

Zr - capillaries permiate, reabsorption leaving bony spicules on which bone is deposited by osteoblasts

72
Q

What effects bone growth?

A

Hormones - growth hormone, thyroid hormone, sex hormones

Raw materials - need minerals and vitamins (for collagen production and calcium absorption)

73
Q

How do the sex hormones influence bone growth?

A

Increase osteoblast activity hence puberty growth spurt

However, oestrogens also ultimately stop epiphysal plate growth hence shorter females.

74
Q

What are the stages of fracture repair?

A

Haemotoma
Phagocytosis
Fibrocartilage soft callous (3 weeks to a month)
Osteoblasts produce cancellous bone hard callous (about 3 months)
Remodelling

75
Q

What is brittle bone disease?

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta
Autosomal dominant
Effects synthesis of type 1 collagen
Causes - repeated fractures, bowed bones, blue sclerae, joint laxity, hearing loss

76
Q

What is the effect of precocious puberty on bone development?

A

Less growth prior to puberty so stunted growth overall as plates close early

77
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

Decreased bone mass caused by excessive osteoclast activity in relation to osteoclast activity.

78
Q

How is bone density measured? What are the values given?

What are the diagnostic values?

A

DEXA scan
Z score - value compared against similar demographic to yourself
T score - value compared against average 30 year old female
Measured in standard deviations
T score of less than 1 is osteopenia, less than 2.5 is osteoporosis

79
Q

What are the risk factors for osteoporosis?

A 
Gradual decline with age
Post menopausal women
Hyperparathyroidism or hyperthyroidism
Smoking
Glucocorticoids 
Heparin!
80
Q

What are symptoms of osteoporosis?

A

Fractures

Height loss and kyphosis due to vertebral fractures

81
Q

What is the commonest form of dwarfism?

A

Achodroplasia
Autosomal dominant
Defect in fibroblast growth factor receptor
- decreased endochondrial ossification
- decreased chondrocyte proliferation inn epiphyseal growth plate
- decreased cellular hypertrophy
- decreased cartilage matrix
- bar of bone seals off epiphyseal growth plate

82
Q

What are rickets and osteomalacia?

A

Decreased bone mineralisation most commonly as a result of low vitamin D causing low calcium and thus increased reabsorption from bone.

83
Q

What treatment is given to rickets? How would this differ in kidney failure?

A

Give vitamin D (ergocalciferol)

If kidneys fucked give calcitriol

84
Q

How do muscles develop?

A

Mesoderm derived myoblasts form fuse to form multinucleated myotubes. Myofilaments develop in the myotubes pushing the nucleus to the edge.

85
Q

What are the layers of a skeletal muscle?

A 
Myofilament - contractile proteins
Myofibrils - collections of myofilaments 
Muslce fibre - individual cell
Endomysium 
Muscle fascicle
Perimysium 
Muscle
Epimysium
86
Q

What are the histological differences between the fascial layers of a skeletal muscle?

A

Epi and peri both dense irregular

Endo is loose areolar

87
Q

What sorts of muscle fibres are there?

A

Red - slow twitch, very vascular, lots of myoglobin, lots of mitochondria
White - fast twitch, large, many myofibrils,

88
Q

What is the histological appearance of a skeletal muscle fibre?

A

Multinucleate (peripherally displaced)
Striated
T tubules on the A-I band junction
T tubule arranged in triad with 2 terminal cisterna

89
Q

What contractile filaments are attached to the m line in skeletal muscle?

A

Myosin

90
Q

What letter region is actin attached too in skeletal muscle?

What else is attached to this region?

A

Z disc

Titin

91
Q

What are the three bands/zones found in skeletal muscle? What do they contain?

A

H zone - area of myosin only
A band - area spanning entire length of myosin including actin overlap
I band - area of actin only, spans two sarcomeres

92
Q

When skeletal muscle shortens what bands change? How?

A

Actin slides over myosin pulling z disc towards m line
H zone shrinks (more overlap)
A band stays constant (no change in length of myosin)
I band shrinks (less non-overlapping actin)

93
Q

What is the process of skeletal muscle contraction?

A

Atp binds to myosin head causing it to release from actin
Atp to adp and pi causing the head to cock
This allows binding to the actin
The adp and pi are released causing a stroke movement

94
Q

What is the physiological basis for rigor mortis?

A

No atp means myosin head cant be released from actin

95
Q

How is skeletal muscle activated by a nerve impulse?

A

Acetyl choline released from terminal and binds to NACh receptors
Depolarises membrane and t tubules
Releases calcium ions from sarcoplasmic reticulum
Calcium binds to troponin c which moves troponin i and troponin t. The movement no troponin t moves tropomyosin exposing myosin binding sites on actin.

96
Q

What are the histological features of cardiac muscle?

A 
Mononucleated (central)
Striated
Intercalated discs
No myofibrils (mass of myofilaments)
No triad around t tubules 
T tubules descend at z disc
97
Q

How do smooth muscle cells appear histologically?

A

Spindle shaped
Actin and myosin arranged between dense bodies on surface and within cell.
Not striated, no t tubules

98
Q

How is smooth muscle contraction different from skeletal or cardiac?

A

Slow
Sustained
Passes between muscle cells through gap junctions

99
Q

How is smooth muscle activated?

A

Depolarisation
Calcium release - binds to calmodulin activating it
Activated calmodulin activates MLCK
MLCK phosphorylates myosin heads allowing binding and contraction

100
Q

What muscle cells can and cant regenerate?

A

Skeletal - limited from satellite cells
Cardiac - cant
Smooth - mitotically divides

101
Q

What are causes of muscle atrophy?

A

Disuse
Denervation
Age

102
Q

What do muscles gain during hypertrophy?

A

Increased myofibrils
Increased glycolysis enzymes
Increased mitochondria
Increased blood flow

103
Q

How does stretching change muscles?

A

Increased number of sarcomeres increasing length

104
Q

What is. Myasthenia gravis?

A

Autoimmune destruction of muscle ACh receptors, loss of folds in sarcolemma and widening of synaptic cleft

105
Q

Why does myasthenia gravis not show symptoms until the disease is advanced? Why does it effect repeatedly used muscles?

A

Only 25% of receptors needed to trigger a contraction therefore have to loose many for a clinical effect
Successive contractions result in less ACh release so there is fatigability

106
Q

Hw does myasthenia gravis present?

How is it treated?

A

Dropping eyelids
Blurred. Vision
Difficulty with speech, chewing, swallowing
Respiratory imparment

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as neostigmine

107
Q

What bacteria causes botulism?

A

Clostridium botulinum

108
Q

How does clostridium botulinum cause botulism?

A

Botulism toxins inhibit release of ACh

109
Q

What is the mechanism of organophosphate poisoning?

A

Inhibits acetylcholinesterase irreversibly increasing ACh ++ resulting in continued muscle contraction

PPE (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions