Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NV Finals Revision > To sort > Flashcards

To sort Flashcards

1
Q

How does amiodarone affect the QT interval and which condition is it contraindicated in?

A

Prolongs QT interval and CI in long QT syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the most common cause of an extradural haematoma?

A

Trauma - skull fracture in teporal/parietal region leading to a bleed in the middle meningeal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What type of haematoma is known to lead to a traumatic brain injury with a lucid interval?

A

extradural haematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What prophylactic drugs are given to longterm steroid users?

A

PPI (lansoprazole) for gastroprotection and bisphosphonates and calcium for osteoporosis prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How do tendon reflexes change above, at and below the level of spinal cord compression?

A

normal above
absent at
increased below

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which condition is internuclear ophthalmoplegia associated with and which cranial nerves are affected?

A

Multiple sclerosis

CN ipsi 3rd and contra 6th leading to diplopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the classic triad of Horner’s syndrome and what causes it?

A

Ptosis, miosis and anhydrosis

lesion of the sympathetic trunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the histological hallmark of pilocytic astrocytomas?

A

Rosenthal fibres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What type of drug is sildenafil and what is it used to treat? What is its street name?

A

phosphodieserase inhibitor
Tx for erectile dysfunction as it inhibits PDE which is used by the sympathetic nervous system to cause smooth muscle contraction that leads to flaccidity
AKA viagra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How can lifting the testis above the symphysis help you differentiate between 2 causes of tesituclar pain?

A

Pain increases if due to testicular torsion

Pain decreases if due to epididymitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the ddx for a rash that involves the palms and soles?

A

Measles, syphilis and coxsackie virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?

A

Fever, headache, rigors and myalgia in reaction to syhphis treatment that resolves w/in 24 hrs - mgmt: antipyretics and reassurance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the ddx for hyponatraemia?

A 
Hypo or hypervolaemia 
Diuretic use
N&V, diarrhoea
liver cirrhosis 
cardiac failure
SIADH
adrenal insufficiency
renal failure
burns
sweating
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which test would help you investigate Cushing’s disease?

A

Overnight dexamethasone suppression test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which test would help you investigate adrenal insufficiency?

A

Synacthen test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which test would help you investigate adrenal insufficiency and GH deficiency?

A

Insulin tolerance test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which test would help you investigate GH deficiency?

A

glucagon test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which condition is thumb squaring a feature of?

A

Osteoarthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How do platelet levels change in rheumatoid arthritis vs lupus?

A

Rheumatoid –> thrombocytosis

Lupus –> thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the difference between thrombocytosis and thrombocythaemia?

A

They are both terms for high platelet levels
Thrombocytosis - cause is known
Thrombocythaemia - cause is unknown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the classic triad of Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

Ataxia, nystagmus, confusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How do you treat Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

IV thiamine (B1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How does Korsakoff syndrome differ from Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

Korsakoff = Wernicke’s + memory impairment (dementia) and is irreversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the extra-articular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Episcleritis, subcutaneous nodules, peripheral sensory neuropathy and pericardial effusion

(SEEN - subcut nods, epis, effusion, neuropathy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the treatment for paracetamol overdose?

A

Depending on paracetamol levels (plot of graph)

N-acetyl cysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the treatment for subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

Extra-ventricular device to drain CSF and reduce ICP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the four main complications of a subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

Hydrocephalus, rebleeding, vasospasm, seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the ophthalmologic complication of anticholinergic drugs?

A

Glaucoma causing blurred vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How does Epstein-Barr virus present and what would you expect to see on a blood film?

A

Sore throat, myalgia, fever, tiredness, splenomegaly

Blood film = atypical lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What would you expect to see on a lumbar puncture in someone with MS?

A

Oligoclonal bands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What effect does MS have on visually evoked potentials?

A

reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the initial tx/tx for acute flare-ups of MS?

A

Methyprednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the longterm disease modifying treatment for MS?

A

Natalizumab or beta-interferon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What does neutrophilia indicate?

A

Bacterial infection, corticosteroid use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does neutrophilia in the context of MSK indicate?

A

Septic arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What does neutropenia and thrombocytopenia in the context of MSK indicate?

A

drug-induced bone marrow suppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What does lymphopenia indicate?

A

SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What does eosinophilia in the context of MSK indicate?

A

eosinophilic granulomatosus with polyangiitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What can a red, shiny, swollen joint be a sign of?

A

Septic arthritis or gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What type of drug is Allopurinol and what is it used to treat?

A

xanthine oxidase inhibitor
tx for gout
xanthine oxidase is responsible for purine metabolism which increases the production of uric acid which can form crystals and result in gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How does acute gout affect serum uric acid levels?

A

Can reduce it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What crystals are found in gout?

A

Monosodium urate - long, needle-shaped, negatively birefringent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What crystals are found in pseudogout?

A

calcium pyrophosphate - small, brick-shaped, weak positive birefringent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How does SLE present?

A

arthralgia (non-erosive, non-inflam), malar rash, photosensitivity, secondary fibromyalgia, mouth ulcers, Raynaud’s, lymphadenopathy

45
Q

What immunological markers are positive in SLE?

A

anti-dsDNA, ANA, low complement (C3 and C4), anti-phospholipid antibodies

46
Q

How does systemtic sclerosis present?

A

Raynaud’s, pulmonary artery hypertension, renal disease

47
Q

How does Sjogren’s syndrome present?

A

xerophthalmia xerostomia, parotitis

48
Q

Which osteophytic bone deformities would you find on the hands of someone with osteoarthritis?

A

Heberden’s nodes (DIPJ) and Bouchard’s nodes (PIPJ)

49
Q

What radiological features of osteoarthritis would you find on an x-ray?

A 
joint space narrowing
osteophyte formation
subchondral sclerosis
subchondral cysts
abnormalities of bone contour
50
Q

What MRI findings would you expect to find in mechanical lower back pain?

A

disc degenration and bulging discs

51
Q

What is Felty’s syndrome?

A

rheumtoid arthritis + splenomegaly + neutropenia

52
Q

What radiological findings would you expect to see in rheumatoid arthritis?

A 
soft tissue swelling
loss of joint space
periarticular osteopenia 
erosions
deformities
53
Q

Name 2 DMARDs.

A

Methotrexate

Sulfsalazine

54
Q

What is the triad of reactive arthritis?

A

arthritis + conjunctivitis / anterior uveitis + sterile urethritis

55
Q

Which immunological marker would help you differentiate between GCA and Wegner’s granulomatosis?

A

both are types of vasculitis
ANCA test
+ ve = WG
- ve = GCA

56
Q

What is the pathophysiology of pernicious anaemia?

A

autoimmune condition
atrophic gastritis + loss of ucosal parietal cells = reduced intrinsic factor production causing vit B12 malabsorption in the terminal ileum.

57
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for DVT?

A

contrast venography

58
Q

Presence of Auer rods are a sign of which condition?

A

Acute Myeloid Leukaemia

59
Q

Which condition is defined by the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome?

A

Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia

60
Q

Which drug is used to treat chronic myeloid leukaemia?

A

imatinib - tyrosine kinase inhibitor

61
Q

Which drug is used to treat chronic lymphocytic leukaemia?

A

rituximab - anti-CD20 on B cells as it targets the clonal expansion of mature B lymphocytes

62
Q

Which virus is associated with Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Epstein Barr Virus

63
Q

Which bacterium is associated with non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

H pylori

64
Q

What would you expect to see on the lyph node biopsy of someone with Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Reed-Sternberg cells w/ benign lymphocytes and histiocytes

65
Q

What would you expect to see on the blood film of someone with myeloma?

A

rouleaux formation (RBCs stick together)

66
Q

What might you see on a skull x-ray of someone with myeloma?

A

Pepper pot skull

67
Q

Which drugs should be avoided in patients wit G6PD deficiency due to risk of haemolysis?

A

primaquine
ciprofloxacin
nitrofurantoin
co-trimoxazole

68
Q

Which clotting factors are dependent on vitamin K?

A 
1972
prothrombin (II)
VII
IX
X
69
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for malaria?

A

thick and thin blood smears with Giemsa stain

70
Q

What would you expect to see on a malarial blood film?

A

trophozoite

71
Q

What is Samter’s triad?

A

asthma + resp symptoms worsened by NSAID/aspirin + nasal polyps

72
Q

If a patient has a reduced FEV1, what can the FEV1:FVC ratio tell you?

A

reduced FEV1/:FVC = obstructive picture

normal FEV1:FVC = restrictive picture

73
Q

How does the appearance of a primary lung tumour differ from lung metastases on CXR?

A

primary tumour = stellate appearance

mets = canonball, round

74
Q

What are the side effects of inhaled corticosteroids?

A

loss of bone density
adrenal suppression
glaucoma (worsened by anticholinergics if taking it for asthma)
cataracts

75
Q

Which immunological marker would you check for in Graves disease?

A

IgG-type thyroid stimulating immunoglobulin

76
Q

Which immunological markers would you check for in Hashimoto’s thyroiditis?

A

anti-TPO
anti-thyroglobulin
anti-TSH-R

77
Q

What would you expect to see on an ECF in atrial fibrillation?

A

irregularly irregular, absent P waves

78
Q

What would you expect to see on an ECG in atrial flutter?

A

saw-tooth appearance

regular and identical flutter F waves

79
Q

What would you expect to see on an ECG in STEMI?

A

ST elevation
hyperacute T waves
pathological Q waves (days later)

80
Q

What would you expect to see on an ECG in NSTEMI and unstable angina?

A

ST depression

T wave inversion

81
Q

What would you expect to see on an ECG in hypercalcaemia?

A

shortened QT interval

broad QRS complex

82
Q

What would you expect to see on an ECG in hypocalcaemia?

A

prolonged QT interval

narrow QRS complex

83
Q

What would you expect to see on an ECG in hyperkalaemia?

A

tall, tented T waves

84
Q

What would you expect to see on an ECG in hypokalaemia?

A

flattened T waves

U waves

85
Q

What is an accurate marker for cardic failure?

A

brain natriuretic peptide

86
Q

What are the 6 Ps of acute limb ischaemia?

A 
pain
pallor
pulselessness
paraesthesia 
perishingly cold
paralysis
87
Q

What signs would you expect to find on a CXR in someone with cardiac failure?

A 
Alveolar oedema
Kerley B lines
Cardiomegaly
Dilated prominent upper lobe 
Effusion (pleural)
88
Q

What signs would you expect to see in infective endocarditis?

A

splinter haemorrhage
Janeway lesions
Osler nodes
Roth spots on retina

89
Q

Which 4 defects make up the tetralogy of Fallot?

A

ventricular septal defect
right ventricular hypertrophy
pulmonary artery stenosis
overriding aorta

90
Q

Name 2 signs of pericardial effusion.

A

pulsus parodoxus - an exaggerated fall in a patient’s blood pressure during inspiration by greater than 10 mm Hg.
Kussmaul sign - paradoxical increase in JVP that occurs during inspiration.
this is because in pericardial effusion, fluid collects outside th eheart in the pericardial sac which does not allow the right ventricle to fill and contract properly

91
Q

What would you expect to see on an ECG in someone with pericarditis?

A

diffuse ST elevation
concave ST segment
PR depression
saddle shaped

92
Q

What shape does an extradural haemorrhage have on a CT scan?

A

convex shape

93
Q

What shape does a subdural haemorrhage have on a CT scan?

A

Concave shape

94
Q

What shape does a subarachnoid haemorrhage have on a CT scan?

A

5-star or stellate appearance

95
Q

What causes jaundice + unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia?

A

haemolysis

96
Q

What causes hepatocellular jaundice +/- cholestasis?

A

viruses

paracetamol overdose

97
Q

What causes jaundice + conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia?

A

CBD gall stones

pancreatic cancer

98
Q

How does conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia present?

A

pale faeces
dark urine
pruritus

99
Q

What would histology of acute hepatic failure reveal?

A

multiacinar necrosis

100
Q

How would you treat raised intracranial pressure?

A

IV infusion of mannitol

101
Q

Which liver conditions would have Mallory bodies on histology?

A

alcoholic hepatitis
Wilson’s disease
primary biliary cholangitis

102
Q

Where does copper deposit in Wilson’s disease?

A

liver
basal ganglia
cornea

103
Q

How does acute cholangitis present?

A

Charcot’s triad

fever + jaundice + RUQ pain

104
Q

What is the tx for acute cholangitis?

A

ERCP

105
Q

What is the triad of clinical features in hereditary haemochromatosis?

A

bronze skin pigmentation + hepatomegaly + diabetes mellitus

106
Q

How do you tx hereditary haemochromatosis?

A

venesection + screen relatives (transferrin saturation + serum ferritin)

107
Q

What is haemosiderosis?

A

secondary iron deposition in reticuloendothelial cells with pancreatic-sparing

108
Q

Which antibiotics are commonly used to treat UTIs?

A

nitrofurantoin, trimethoprim, amoxicillin

NV Finals Revision (27 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions