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Laura ESA1 - To remember > To Remember > Flashcards

To Remember Flashcards

0
Q

What disease is linked with autoimmune destruction of ACh receptors?

A

Myasthenia Gravis

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1
Q

Where is appetite controlled?

A

In the arcuate nucleus (group of neurones) in the hypothalamus

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2
Q

Is what type of muscle would you find diads?

A

Cardiac

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3
Q

In what type of muscle would you find triads?

A

Skeletal muscle

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4
Q

What is there an absence of if someone suffers from duchenne’s disease?

A

Dystrophin

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5
Q

What is BMR and what is its role?

A

Basal metabolic rate. The minimal rate of energy expenditure.
Maintains the resting activities of the body by:
Maintenance of cells
Function of organs
Maintaining body temp

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6
Q

What are the three components of daily energy expenditure?

A

Energy to support our basal metabolism - BMR
Energy for voluntary physical exercise
Energy we require to process food we eat (thermogenesis)

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7
Q

How do work out BMI?

A

Weight (kg)/height squared (m)

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8
Q

Why is homeostasis?

A

The maintenance of a stable environment

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9
Q

What peptide hormone is released from the small intestine?

A

PYY

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10
Q

What is a good way of remembering the cause for duchenne’s disease?

A

It is also know as duchenne’s muscular DYSTROPHY. It is a disorder of DYSTROPHIN.

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11
Q

Good way of remembering the causes of atrophy? - what are they?

A

DAD. D - disuse A- age D- dinervation (doesn’t receive contractile signals required to maintain normal size.)

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12
Q

What are the 3 layers of the adrenal glands?

A

Zona glomerulosa, fasiculata and reticularis..as you get closer to the medulla

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13
Q

What is released from the zona glomerulosa? Give an example

A

Mineralcorticoids - SALT - aldosterone

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14
Q

What is released from the zona reticularis? Give an example

A

Glucocorticoids and androgens - SEX - testosterone

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15
Q

What is released from the zona fasiculata? Give an example

A

Glucocorticoids - SUGAR - cortisol (regulates carbohydrate metabolism.)

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16
Q

What effect does cortisol have on metabolism ? What does this lead to? When is this important?

A

Increases lipolysis, gluconeogenesis, glycogenolysis and proteolysis (not in liver)
Increase in FA, Glucose and AA
During the running of a marathon if glucose stores run out

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17
Q

What hormones are released from the hypothalamus?

A

Thryrotropin releasing hormone, corticotrophic releasing hormone, somatotropin releasing hormone, somatostatin

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18
Q

Where is ghrelin released from?

A

Wall of an empty stomach

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19
Q

Where is kept in released from? What affect does it have on appetite?

A

Adipocytes. Stimulates inhibitory neurone and inhibits stimulatory hormones.

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20
Q

Where is PYY released from? What is its role?

A

Walls of the small intestine. Opposite to ghrelin, suppresses appetite by inhibiting stimulatory hormone.

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21
Q

What is Cushing’s syndrome caused by?

A

High levels of glucocorticoids (excess cortisol.) Hyper function of the adrenal cortex.
Usually caused by long term treatment with glucocorticoids (steroids) - affect the kidney.
Can be due to a melanoma or carcinoma of the adrenal glands.

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22
Q

What is the internodal membrane and where is it found?

A

It is the membrane that wraps around the axon underneath a Schwann cell

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23
Q

What are the 5 types of glial cells you are expected to remember?

A

Astrocytes, Oligodendrocytes and ependymal cells

Microglia and Schwann cells

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24
Q

What is the role of microglia?

A

They are the macrophages of the nervous system. They have immune and inflammatory functions.

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25
Q

What is the role of astrocytes?

A

Maintain the blood brain barrier

Assist in transfer of nutrients and waste

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26
Q

What is the role of Oligodendrocytes?

A

Produce myelin sheath for the central nervous system

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27
Q

What is the role of ependymal cells?

A

Produce cerebral and spinal fluid

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28
Q

Where are myelinated neurones found?

A

On the nerves in the CNS of the autonomic NS

On all nerves of the somatic NS

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29
Q

The somatic and autonomic NS are both composed of what types of nerves?

A

Efferent

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30
Q

What is the role of reticular cells?

A

Synthesise reticular fibres and surround them with cytoplasm. Direct the T and B lymphocytes to specific regions within the lymphatic tissues.

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31
Q

What is proliferation?

A

When a stem cell divides into 2 and one replaces the original stem cell and the other goes on to differentiate.

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32
Q

Where is erythropoietin produced? What effect does it have?

A

Kidneys. Acts on e-progenitor cells in bone producing more RBCells which leads to high oxygen tissue.

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33
Q

What are the main Cells found for allergic reactions?

A

Mast cells and basophils. Both have heparin and histamine.

Eosinophils

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34
Q

What is the disease caused by hypothyroidism?

A

Hashimotos disease

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35
Q

What are the symptoms of hashimotos’ disease?

A 
SLOW
Reduced BMR, Cold
Bradycardia
Tired and lethargic 
Put on weight
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36
Q

What is the disease caused by hyperthyroidism?

A

Graves’ disease

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37
Q

What are the symptoms of graves disease ?

A

Increased BMR, heat intolerance
Tachycardia
Weight loss
Physical (&mental) hyperactivity

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38
Q

What is the role of alkylating agents? What are they an example of?

A

Remove a base. An example of an induced mutation

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39
Q

What are examples of induced mutations?

A

X-rays
Uv radiation
Alkylating Agents
Acridine agents

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40
Q

What is an acridine mutation?

A

One where a base is either added or removed.

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41
Q

What are spontaneous mutations due to?

A

Errors in DNA replication

DNA bases having slight chemical instability

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42
Q

What is the difference between a mutagen and a carcinogen?

A

A mutagen is a chemical which causes a mutation.

A carcinogen is a chemical that causes cancer.

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43
Q

What is the name given to the trait most common in a population?

A

Wild type

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44
Q

What is apparent when sickle cell disease undergoes southern blotting?

A

There are less DNA fragments because the restriction site for a certain enzymes is destroyed. This means that the DNA can’t be digested as much so there will be less fragments.

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45
Q

What are the different tests available for the detection of mutations in genes?

A

Southern blotting, microarray analysis, sequencing (but this is expensive)

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46
Q

What is inversion of a chromosome?

A

No loss of genetic information but a rearrangement of genetic material

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47
Q

Why would a ring chromosome form?

A

Due to the loss of telomeres or end of both arms

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48
Q

What is an isochromosome?

A

When 2 non identical chromosomes form.

One is the combination of 2 short arms and the other is the combination of 2 long arms.

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49
Q

What are the three names for the different types of chromosomes and what are they?

A

Metacentric - meta- meat sliced evenly - both the p and q arm are if the same length
Acrocentric - think A so first one - the p arm is very short, often not seen. Can undergo robertsonian translocation
Sub-metacentric- sub - lower bit is bigger. Q arm is bigger than the p arm.

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50
Q

What is translocation and what are the two types?

A

The breakage and reformation of chromosomes such that DNA is exchanged between the two chromosomes.
Reciprocal and Robertsonian

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51
Q

What is a robertsonian translocation?

A

When two acrocentric chromosome break near the centomere and one super chromosome forms. There is loss of the p arms.

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52
Q

What is reciprocal translocation?

A

When there is an exchange of material between two non homologous chromosomes.

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53
Q

What is the difference between calcitriol and vitamin D’s affects on serum calcium levels?

A

Short term regulation- PTH

Long term regulation - calcitriol

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54
Q

What are some of the symptoms related with metabolic syndrome?

A

Insulin resistance (t2 diabetes), glucose intolerance, hypertension, dyslipidaemia

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55
Q

What is dyslipidaemia?

A

Problems with lipids. In metabolic syndrome this is an increase in VLDLs and LDLs and a decrease in HDLs.

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56
Q

What is type 2 diabetes treated with? What does this prevent?

A

Metformin. Prevents gluconeogenesis (normally the low levels of insulin promote PEPCK and fructose -1,6-BP which stimulates gluconeogenesis).

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57
Q

What is a HbA1C test? What does it measure? What is it used for?

A

A test that tests for the amount of glycosylated haemoglobin (the amount of glucose that attaches to red blood cells). It is used in the diagnosis of diabetes as well as to monitor the disease.

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58
Q

Which tissues have an absolute requirement for glucose?

A

WBCells, RBCells, Kidney medulla, Lens of the eye

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59
Q

How is insulin given to a patient with diabetes? Why?

A

Intravenously. Because insulin is a peptide hormone and it would be digested in the stomach.

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60
Q

Describe the structure of glucagon

A

Single chain polypeptide hormone, lacking disulfide bridges so has a flexible 3D structure

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61
Q

What are the tissues that don’t require insulin to utilise glucose?

A

Peripheral nerves, the eye, the kidney

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62
Q

In hyperglycaemia what reaction takes place in the kidney ? What effect does the reaction have and what is it similar to?

A

Glucose is converted to sorbitol by the enzyme aldosterone reductase. NADPH a is required and NADP+ is produced.
This depletes the NADPH stores which leads to the formation of disulphide bonds.
The reaction is similar to the conversion of galactose to galactitol.

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63
Q

What are the macrovascular side affects of long term diabetes?

A

Myocardial infarction risk
Risk of stroke
Poor circulation to the periphery, particularly feet

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64
Q

What are the micro vascular complications that can arise from long term diabetes?

A

Diabetic eye disease
Diabetic kidney disease - nephropathy
Diabetic neuropathy
Diabetic foot

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65
Q

Why are diabetics more likely to get infections of the urinary tract?

A

Because high levels of glucose allow bacteria to thrive.

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66
Q

Gangrene is an example of a microvascular side affect of long term diabetes. Why are feet so susceptible to disease in diabetics?

A

Damage occurs to peripheral nerves causing loss of sensation.
Poor blood supply due to the high blood glucose which can lead to atheroschlerosis.
Increased chance of infection as high blood glucose provide ideal environment for bacteria to thrive.

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67
Q

What is a thalassemia?

A

A group of genetic disorders that leads to an imbalance between alpha and beta haemoglobin subunits.

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68
Q

Which form of thalassemia CAN’T form stable tetramer units? When do the symptoms appear?

A

Beta thalassemia. After birth.

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69
Q

What affect does a competitive inhibitor has on Vmax/Km?

A

Increase Km and ha no effect on Vmax

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70
Q

What affect does a non competitive inhibitor has on Vmax/Km?

A

No effect on Km, cause Vmax to decrease.

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71
Q

Outline the reasons for the referral of patients for karyotyping

A 
Prenatal screening
Birth defects
Lab normally sexual development
Infertility
Recurrent fetal loss
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72
Q

Where does Hydroxylation of vitamin D take place?

A

Liver and Kidneys

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73
Q

What is the hormone that increase the rate of transcription of genes in cells and how does it do this?

A

Thyroid hormones- specifically T3. It enters the cell then binds to receptors in the nucleus. In the nucleus the hormone receptor complex binds to the DNA increasing the rate of transcription.

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74
Q

What are the enzymes required in glycogenesis?

A

Hexokinase, phosphoglucosmutase, glycogen synthase/branching enzyme

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75
Q

What is a good way of remembering which enzyme is required for the conversion of glucose-1-P to glucose-6-P of the reverse?

A

Mutase- like mutation, just a change
Phospho-contains phosphate
Gluco- contains glucose
Phosphoglucosmutase is the enzyme

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76
Q

What enzymes are requires for glycogenolysis?

A

Glycogen phosphorylase/de branching enzyme, phosphoglucosmutase, glucose-6-phosphatase.

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77
Q

Where are the 2 places glycogen is stored?

A

Liver and muscle

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78
Q

What stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver?

A

Glucagon

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79
Q

What stimulates glycogenolysis in muscle?

A

Adrenaline

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80
Q

What metabolic effect does growth hormone have and when is this important?

A

Increases lipolysis, important on the running of a marathon

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81
Q

Why is exercise so good for diabetics?

A

It can increase muscle sensitivity to insulin.

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82
Q

What is infection?

A

The multiplication/colonisation of a pathogenic microbe on or in a susceptible host with associated dysfunction or damage.

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83
Q

What is a good way of remembering which type of bacteria stains which colour is a gram stain?

A

Red-bad-negative-less-less peptidoglycan wall

So opposite is Positive is Purple. And it has a thick Peptidoglycan wall.

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84
Q

What type of stain is used to detect the causes of TB and leprosy?

A

Acid fast stain

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85
Q

What type of stain is used to stain bacteria? Explain why

A

Gram stain because they stain poorly with H&E

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86
Q

In what type of prokaryote would you find a capsid?

A

Virus

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87
Q

What type of pathogen/non pathogen would you find an envelope?

A

A virus

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88
Q

What is the difference between a pathogen and a non pathogen?

A

Pathogen - a bacterium/virus/other microorganism than can cause disease
Non-pathogen - a bacterium that doesn’t cause disease.

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89
Q

What are the three things required for something to be named an infection?

A

Must be shown to be present in every case of the disease
The agent mustn’t be found in cases of another disease
Once isolated to agent must be capable of reproducing the disease in experimental animals.

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90
Q

State 2 facts about mitochondria.

A

Maternally inherited

A bacteria

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91
Q

What are the 3 viruses which are DNA enveloped? What are their disease associations?

A

Hepatitis B- inflamed liver
Herpes - oral or genital
Small pox - small pox

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92
Q

Which are the 3 viruses which are RNA enveloped? What are their disease associations?

A

Rubella - rash
Rotavirus - diarrhoea
HIV - AIDS

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93
Q

Which is the DNA viruse which isn’t enveloped? What is the disease association?

A

HPV causes warts and cervical cancer

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94
Q

What are the two non enveloped RNa viruses?

A

Polio - inflammation of spinal cord
Hep A - liver disease.
Think here you have inflammation and liver disease but with hep B you have inflammation of the liver.

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95
Q

What are the gram positive / negative cocci?

A

Positive - streptococcus, staphylococcus

Negative - Neisseria

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96
Q

What are the gram positive / negative bacilli?

A

Positive - clostridium

negative - Salmonella, helicobacter, pseudomas, legionella

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97
Q

What is the role of rifampicin?

A

It prevents bacterial transcription by binding to RNA polymerase.

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98
Q

How does penicillin prevent bacterial cell wall synthesis?

A

It inhibits the transpepsidase enzyme. This enzymes forms cross links in the cell wall. Without these cross links the cell bursts.

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99
Q

What is tetrahydrofolate essential for? Where have you come across it?

A

DNA synthesis.
Methotrexate competitively inhibits DHFR, preventing the synthesis of DNA a. This is important in cancer therapy.
It is an example of a folate

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100
Q

What is the role of tetracycline? How does it do this?

A

It prevents bacterial protein synthesis by binding to part of a ribosome, preventing tarns from binding.

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101
Q

Where does glycogenolysis take place? When?

A

Liver - stress or fasting

Muscle - exercise

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102
Q

What enzymes is required for the conversion between glucose 1 phosphate and glucose 6 phosphate?

A

Phosphoglucosmutase

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103
Q

For the conversion of glucose 6 phosphate to glucose what enzyme is required? What’s produced and when does this take place?

A

Glucose 6 phosphatase, inorganic phosphate is given off and this takes place during gluconeogenesis.

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104
Q

What are the 3 main enzymes you need to remember with reference to galactose metabolism?

A

Epimerise, galactokinase, galactose 1-P uridyl transferase.

105
Q

Accumulation of what leads to glaucoma?

A

Galactose/galactitol.

106
Q

What are lipids transported by?

A

Albumin

107
Q

What are fatty acids transported by?

A

Chylomicrons or VLDLs

108
Q

What is the enzyme that is deficient in people who suffer from Homocystinuria?

A

Cystathionine beta synthase

109
Q

What is the enzyme lacking in people who suffer from PKU?

A

Phenylalanine hydroxylase

110
Q

Which product causes people with Homocystinuria to suffer from similar side affects to marfan’s syndrome?

A

A build up of homocystIne

111
Q

What are the symptoms of someone with Homocystinuria?

A

Chest pain in early life and developmental delay.

112
Q

What type of hormone is adrenaline?

A

A soluble hormone

113
Q

What type of hormones are the thyroid hormones?

A

Lipophilic (bind to proteins)

114
Q

Which types of hormones are hydrophilic?

A

Polypeptide and glycoprotein (and adrenaline)

115
Q

What types of hormones and lipophilic?

A

Steroids (and thyroid hormones)

116
Q

Where to/from and what do chylomicrons transport?

A

From intestines to adipose tissue. Dietary TAGs.

117
Q

Where is lipoprotein lipase found? What is its role? What can increase its synthesis?

A

Attached to the inner surface of capillaries. It’s synthesis is increased by insulin and their expression increased by statins.

118
Q

What do people with familial hypercholesterolaemia lack or have a deficiency of?

A

LDLS receptors

119
Q

How can hyperlipoproteinaemia be treated?

A

Reduce TAG or cholestrol in diet

Statins to reduce cholestrol (inhibit HMG coA reductase)

120
Q

What are the three signs / symptoms people with familial hypercholesterolaemia may suffer from?

A

Xanthalasma (cholestrol deposition in eyelid)
Tendon xanthoma - lipid deposition in tendons
Corneal arcus - lipid deposition on cornea of eye.

121
Q

What is the role of LCAT?

A

Maintains the balance between core and surface lipids in lipoproteins.

122
Q

In which pathway in manolyl coA involved? What else does it do?

A

Fatty acid synthesis. It is an intermediate.. it is produced from citrate > acetyl coA > malonyl. It inhibits fatty acid breakdown/ beta oxidation

123
Q

What are the roles of PEPCK and PFK?

A

PEPCK is involves in gluoneogenesis and it by passes the 10th step in glycolysis to produce phosphoenolpyruvate.
PFK is involved in glycolysis step 3 - the conversion of fructose 6 phosphate to fructose 1,6 bis phosphate.

124
Q

In ketone synthesis what is the role of lyase and what is the role of synthase?

A

Synthase converts acetyl coA to HMG coA and lyase converts HMG coA to acetoacetate.

125
Q

What pneumonic should you remember for the variations in visible structure in skin?

A

THOLC- thickness, hair, oiliness, laxity, colour

126
Q

What are langerhans cells an example of? What do they do? Where are they found?

A

They are an example of dendritic cells. They are cells found in the prickle layer. They present antigens to T lymphocytes and can trigger immune responses.

127
Q

What are melanocytes an example of? What do they do? Where are they found?

A

An example of dendritic cells. Found in the basal layer. They produce melanin - the pigment that gives skin it’s colour.

128
Q

What is used for prognosis’ of melanoma?

A

The dermo-epidermal junction. It is the basal membrane just below the basal layer and just above the dermis. Above is a good prognosis, below bad.

129
Q

What are the 4 main types of loose connective tissue?

A

Mucous
Areolar
Reticular
Adipose

130
Q

What is the function and derivation of leukocytes in connective tissue?

A

Derived from blood cells, responsible for the production of immunocompetent cells.

131
Q

What effects does cortisol have on lipid metabolism?

A

It increases lipolysis but when it is present at very high levels it increases the rate of lipogenesis.

132
Q

What are the 3 things POMC can be cleaved to produce?

A

ACTH, alpha MSH and beta endorphins

133
Q

What test is usually used to test for high levels of cortisol?

A

Dexamethasone test. It usually suppresses the release of ATCH.

134
Q

What are the non metabolic effects of cortisol?

A

Affects cardiac muscle, bone and the immune system.

135
Q

What are the three main types of cartilage?

A

Hyaline cartilage
Elastic cartilage
Fibrocartilage

136
Q

What type of collagen are hyaline and elastic cartilage made up of?

A

Type 2

137
Q

What type of collagen are Fibrocartilage, bone and the dermis made up of?

A

Type 1

138
Q

Where might elastic cartilage be found?

A

The pinna of the ear
Eustacian tube
Epiglottis

139
Q

What is the Perichondrium?

A

Perichondrium - a layer of dense irregular CT that surrounds both elastic and hyaline cartilage. It is most commonly known to surround the cartilage of developing bone. It has two layers - outer fibrous layer and inner cellular layer.

140
Q

What are the two types of growth of cartilage?

A

Appositional - fibroblast like cells in the Perichondrium differentiate into chondroblasts which secrete matrix.
Interstitial - Chondrocytes in the matrix of cartilage develop to form isogenous groups.

141
Q

What are lacunae?

A

Small spaces in between Lamellae. They contain either osteocytes or Chondrocytes.

142
Q

What are lamellae?

A

Plates within bone.

143
Q

What is the difference between PTH and calcitriol?

A

PTH has short term regulation where as calcitriol has long term regulation.

144
Q

What is osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

An autosomal dominant, heritable disease. Affects type 1 collagen development.

145
Q

What effects can too much or too little growth hormone have on the body?

A

Excess: in adults- acromegaly, in children - giantism

Not enough: pituitary dwarfism

146
Q

Where is the signal found on a protein…
Going to the ER
Going to the nucleus

And what is the signal?

A

ER- N terminal (think - a protein is synthesised N to C)

Nucleus - found down the length of the protein, on the surface. NLS signal.

147
Q

What type of collagen would you find in a lymphoid vessel?

A

Type 3 - reticular fibres

148
Q

Where is the signal found on a protein…
That’s going back to the ER
Going to the mitochondria

And what is the signal?

A

Back to the ER - C terminus - KDEL

Back to the mitochondria - N terminus (NH3+)

149
Q

In which types of protein targetting method is a phosphate removed from the signalling sequence? How?

A

When the protein is being directed to the lysosomes. Using the phosphatase enzyme.

150
Q

What is the pneumonic it is helpful to remember for embryology?

A 
FCMC HIBEUDS
Fertilisation
Cleavage
Morula
Compaction
Hatching
Implantation
Bilaminar disk
Extraembryonic mesoderm
Uteroplacental circulation
Definitive yolk sac
Suspension - via connecting Stalk
151
Q

What are the two types of blasts that are produced from the trophoblast? Where are the found?

A

Cytotrophoblast - found on the inner side closer to the cavity
Syncytiotrophoblast - invade maternal confusions so that uteroplacental circulation is continuous.

152
Q

What are the two types of blast which are produced from the embryoblast? What are their roles?

A

Epiblast - important for tissue development

Hypoblast - lines the primary yolk sac

153
Q

What is a morula?

A

16 cell stage zygote. It is totipotent.

154
Q

What is the chorionic cavity also known as and what is it?

A

Extraembryonic coelom. The large cavity of fluid surrounding the embryo.

155
Q

What is placenta praevia?

A

The condition that occurs when the embryo is implanted in the lower uterine segment. It can lead to a haemmorage during pregnancy or birth difficulties.

156
Q

Where is the ideal location for implantation?

A

The posterior uterine wall

157
Q

What are the roles of mesoderm? Give examples

A 
Supporting tissues:
Connective tissue (remember, it is of mesodermal origin)
Muscle
Cartilage
Bone
Vascular system
158
Q

What are the roles of ectoderm? Give examples

A 
Maintain contact with the outside world:
Nervous system (neural tube)
Epidermis (found on the outside after folding)
159
Q

What are the roles of endoderm? Give examples

A

Internal structures:
Lining of GI tract
Lining of resp tract
Parenchyma of organs

160
Q

What is gastrulation ?

A

When the primitive streak appears in the epiblast

161
Q

What is the notochord?

A

A tube of cells lying just below the primitive streak/epiblast. They are given a specific set of instructions and act as a signalling molecule to the surrounding ecto, meso and endoderm.

162
Q

What is the role of the notochord in neurulation?

A

It signals to the overlying ectoderm to thicken forming neuroectoderm.

163
Q

What are the three different type of mesoderm that the mesoderm differentiates into? What are their roles?

A

Paraxial mesoderm - somites
Intermediate mesoderm - gonads and kidneys
Lateral mesoderm - somatic and splanchic

164
Q

What does the paraxial mesoderm go on to form?

A

Axial skeleton (vertebral column and discs), dermis, muscles of A/L body wall, some limb muscles.

165
Q

What arepa the further types that the paraxial mesoderm can differentiate into? What do they produce?

A

Myotome- muscle
Dermatome-skin
Sclerotome-bone

166
Q

Which implantation defect can lead to a haemmorage?

A

Placenta praevia

167
Q

What does intermediate mesoderm go on the form?

A

Urogenital tract e.g the gonads and kidneys.

168
Q

What is the difference between the extra embryonic and the intra embryonic coelom?

A

The extra embryonic coelom is basically the chorionic cavity..the sac of fluid that surrounds the embryo. The intra embryonic coelom is formed when folding takes place and arises from the space inbetween the the somatic and splanchnic derivatives of the lateral mesoderm.

169
Q

What do people with cystic fibrosis lack? What effect does this have?

A

CFTR protein. They cannot transport chloride out of the cell so sodium doesn’t follow. This means that lots of water remains in the cell because of the osmotic difference and their mucus is thick.

170
Q

What organs does cystic fibrosis mainly effect?

A

To answer

171
Q

Where is the parotid gland found?

A

Near to your ear

172
Q

What are serous membranes?

A

Membranes that line certain body cavities. They are thin 2 part membranes. Parietal serosa and visceral serosa.

173
Q

What is the difference between parietal and visceral serosa?

A

Parietal lines cavities and visceral lines organs.

174
Q

Where are serous membranes found?

A 
Peritoneum (abdominal organs)
Pleural sac (lungs)
Pericardial sac (heart)
175
Q

What are the 4 layers that the GI tissues are made up of? Way to remember?

A 
Millie's subway makes Emily vom
Mucosa 
Submucosa
Muscularis externae
Variable layer
176
Q

What can the variable layer in the GI tract be? Where are these found?

A

Serosa- gut
Adventitia - oesophagus
Plicae circulares - jejunum

177
Q

How is myasthenia gravis treated?

A

With acetylcholine esterase inhibitors, put ice on drooping eyelids (decreases acetylcholine esterase activity).

178
Q

What are the symptoms of myasthenia gravis?

A

Fatigability
Sudden falling
Double vision

179
Q

What is scurvy a deficiency of? What are the symptoms?

A

Deficiency of vitamin C- think Abie with her oranges on Ethiopia.
Results in inadequate formation of hydroxyproline residues in collagen - loss of teeth, pale scion and sunken eyes

180
Q

With what condition are you likely to see blue sclerae? Why?

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta. Abnormal collagen synthesis due a mutation in the gene.

181
Q

In what condition are you likely to see yellow sclerae?

A

Jaundice. Build up of bilirubin.

182
Q

What is the role of aldose reductase? When would this occur?

A

It converts galactose to galactitol (when the kinase or 1-P transferase enzymes are lacking)
It converts glucose to sorbitol (when there are very high glucose levels)

183
Q

What substances can increase the permeability of the inner mitochondrial membrane to protons and what is this called?

A

Dinitrophenol
Dinitrocresol
Uncoupling

184
Q

What do uncoupling proteins do?

A

They transport electrons back into the mitochondria to that their energy is dissipated as heat.

185
Q

What are noradrenaline’s effects on metabolism?

A

Activates UCP1 so higher levels of pmf are dissipated as heat
Stimulates lipolysis.

186
Q

What types of hydroxymethyl glutaric acids are found in the body and what are their roles?

A

Ketone bodies - soluble fuel molecules
Cholesterol - membranes and steroid hormone synthesis
Cholestrol esters - cholestrol storage
Bile acids and salts

187
Q

How is cholestrol stored?

A

As cholestrol esters

188
Q

What is alpha keto glutarate converted to in all deamination reactions?

A

Glutamate

189
Q

What is oxaloacetate converted to in all deamination reactions?

A

Aspartate

190
Q

What are the three enzymes that carry out deamination?

A 
Glutaminase (converts glutamine to glutamate and nh4+)
Glutamate dehydrogenase (converts glutamate to alpha ketoglutarate)
L and D amino acid oxidases (convert D amino acids - which can't be made into proteins to non reactive keto acids)
191
Q

People who suffer from Homocystinuria lack what enzyme? What does this lead to?

A

Cystathionine beta synthase. Build of of homocysteine. This can lead to disorders of connective tissue, muscle, CNS and CV system.

192
Q

What enzyme is lacking in people who suffer from PKU? What does this lead to?

A

Phenylalanine hydroxylase

193
Q

What symptoms do people with Homocystinuria suffer from?

A

In children, similar symptoms to marfan’s (lack of expression of fibrillin) but they also have chest pain early in life and developmental delay.

194
Q

What symptoms do people with PKU suffer from?

A

Inhibited brain development.

195
Q

What pneumonic should you remember for the GI tract?

A

MSMEV mollies subway makes Emily vom
Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externae, variable
OSJC only subways jammed with cheese
Oesophagus, stomach, jejunum and colon

196
Q

What pneumonic should you remember for the respiratory tract?

A

Elinor sings chunes galloping around
Epithelium, Smooth muscle, Cartilage, Glands, Adventitia
Take big breaths always
Trachea, bronchus, bronchiole, alveoli

197
Q

What is the pneumonic you should remember for the urinary tract?

A 
ELP ME-A
Epithelium 
Lamina propria
Muscularis externae
Adventitia (urethra)
198
Q

How many layers of muscularis externae has the urethra got?

A

2

199
Q

How many layers of muscularis externae has the ureter got?

A

1

200
Q

How many layers of muscularis externae has the bladder got?

A

3

201
Q

What things other that the number of layers in their muscularis externae do the ureter, bladder and urethra have different?

A

Ureter has fibroelastic fibres in it’s lamina propria, the bladder has smooth muscle in its lamina propria and the urethra has adventitia.

202
Q

What pneumonic should you remember for the difference between protein synthesis in pro and eukaryotes?

A 
TIMCORPS
Transcriptional and translational factors are different
Initiation mechanism is different
Modification doesn't take place transcriptionally and there is no splicing
Coupled transcription and translation
One type of RNA polymerase only
Ribosomes are simple
Promoters have different sequences
Short lived mRNA
203
Q

What pneumonic should you remember for collagen synthesis?

A 
CHADPOGRL
Cleavage 
Hydroxylation
Addition on N linked sugars
Disulfide bonds
O linked glycosylation
Golgi (where it is exocytosis to first)
Removal of N/C terminal propeptides
Lateral aggregation to form fibrils
204
Q

What pneumonic should you remember for the different layers to think about in the respiratory tract?

A 
Elinor Sings Chunes Galloping Around
Epithelium
Smooth muscle / fibroelastic membrane
Cartilage
Glands
Adventitia
205
Q

How is clot breakdown regulated? What is the pneumonic to remember?

A 
CADZ
C Protein C degrades factors
Antithrombin inhibits thrombin
Digestion by proteases
Zymogen concentration affected
206
Q

What is the difference between a nucleotide and a nucleoside?

A

A nucleoside is made up of the base (nucleo) and sugar (s)

A nucleotide is made up of the base (nucleo) and 2 (t) other things… A base and a phosphate.

207
Q

What are some facts about the alpha helix?

A

3.6AA per turn. 0.54nm pitch. Ala and leu are strong helix formers.

208
Q

What is anaemia?

A

A decrease in the amount of haemoglobin

209
Q

Where is haemoglobin normally broken down? Into what?

A

In the spleen. Into bilirubin

210
Q

Which is more condensed- eu or heterochromatin?

A

Heterochromatin is more condensed.

211
Q

What are the 3 methods of post transcriptional modification of mRNA?

A

Capping, polyadenation (tailing) and splicing

212
Q

What is rRNA? What two sites does it have and what are both of their roles?

A

Ribosomal RNA. Has a P and an A site.
P site holds the peptide chain
A site accepts the tRNA

213
Q

What is the enzyme called that bind two adjacent amino acids in the elongation stage of translation?

A

Peptidyl transferase.

214
Q

What different organs can be affected in cystic fibrosis? Expand on each

A

Pancreas- blocks ducts so digestive enzymes aren’t released, e.g lipase
Respiratory system - thick mucus causes there to be a lack of oxygen
Cervix - can reduce fertility and can make the menstrual cycle irregular in women
Ears, nose and throat - can block sinus’

215
Q

What are the two main ways of diagnosing cystic fibrosis?

A

Sweat test or blood prick in babies

216
Q

Give an example of an antibiotic that can be used to treat cystic fibrosis

A

Amoxicillin

217
Q

What are the 3 types of short term enzyme regulation?

A

Allosteric regulation
Covalent modification
Proteolytic cleavage

218
Q

What is mismatch repair?

A

Repair where the bases don’t match up. It is detected and fixed by enzymes.

219
Q

What is excision repair?

A

Repair where the DNA has been damaged. Detected and fixed by DNA polymerase.

220
Q

What is Prader-Willi syndrome caused by?

A

UPD

221
Q

What enzyme system is used in drug metabolism and what cofactor is required in phase 1?

A

Cytochrome P450

NADPH

222
Q

What happens if a toxic dose of paracetamol is taken?

A

The glucoronodation and sulphation pathways become saturated so paracetamol undergoes phase 1 metabolism, producing NAPQI - a toxic metabolite.

223
Q

What happens to NAPQI- the toxic metabolite produced from a toxic dose of paracetamol?

A

It undergoes phase 2 drug metabolism and conjugates with glutathione.

224
Q

What is glutathione an example of?

A

An antioxidant

225
Q

What are the 2 things that can be used to make H2O2 a less harmful reactive species? How do they behave?

A

Glutathione - converts OH- to H2O

Catalase - converts H2O2 to H2O

226
Q

What two phase 2 reactions does paracetamol undergo when a normal dose is taken?

A

Glucoronodation and sulphation

227
Q

What is used to treat a toxic dose of paracetamol? Why?

A

N- acetyl cysteine (NAC)

It acts as an antioxidant (so replaces glutathione)

228
Q

What are ROS?

A

Reactive oxygen species are free radicals which are highly reactive and have an unpaired electron. They can cause damage to cells by damaging DNA, proteins and membranes.

229
Q

What are some examples of ROS?

A

Superoxide radicals

230
Q

How are ROS produced?

A

Electrons and leaked (naturally) from the electron transport chain. These then react with other molecules to form ROS.

231
Q

What are some examples of ROS?

A

Superoxide radicals
Hydrogen peroxide
Nitric oxide
Hydroxyl (OH)

232
Q

What are 4 diseases that can be caused by ROS?

A

Cancer - DNA damaged by ROS
Pancreatitis- pancreas damaged by ROS
Diabetes mellitus - type 1 beta cells damage by ROS
Alzheimer’s disease - protein damage and misfolding by ROS

233
Q

What is the role of reticular cells?

A

They synthesise reticular fibres and surround them with cytoplasm. They also direct T and B lymphocytes to specific regions within the lymphatic tissues.

234
Q

What is another name for antibodies?

A

Immunoglobulins

235
Q

What do eosinophils do?

A

They release cytotoxic particles to damage larger particles.

236
Q

What enzyme is inhibited by penicillin?

A

Transpeptidase enzyme.

237
Q

Which antibiotic prevents bacterial cell wall synthesis?

A

Penicillin

238
Q

Which antibiotic inhibits bacterial transcription? How?

A

Rifampicin. Binds to RNA polymerase preventing the the genetic information from being transcribed.

239
Q

What is the way to remember the role of leptin and where it is found?

A

A fat leprechaun who is on a diet.

Leptin is found in adipose cells and stimulates inhibitory neurones and suppresses stimulatory neurones.

240
Q

What is the way to remember what hormones are release from the pancreas that affect appetite? What are they and what are their roles?

A

AMY is IN the pancreas.
Insulin - a storage hormone so promotes inhibitory neurones and suppresses stimulatory neurones.
Amylin - also stimulates inhibitory neurones.

241
Q

What does the pneumonic small pea of the year because it wasn’t stimulated very much help you so remember?

A

Small intestine releases PYY. Inhibits the stimulatory neurone.

242
Q

What antibiotic is used to inhibit bacterial protein synthesis? How to remember this?

A

A tetrahedral cycling to the town to stop the protein.

It inhibits bacterial protein synthesis

243
Q

What is a lexis diagram?

A

A diagram used in cohort studies spanning longer than 10 years to make SMR more accurate

244
Q

What is an examples of a drug used in chemotherapy? What does it do?

A

Methotrexate. Prevents the synthesis of tetrahydrofolate.

245
Q

What is the drug that is essential for DNA synthesis who’s synthesis is prevented in chemotherapy? Way to remember?

A

5 spinach leaves in a pool of water.

Tetrahydrofolate

246
Q

What are the 2 examples you know of positive cocci bacteria?

A

Staphylococcus and streptococcus

247
Q

What is the example of a gram positive bacilli you know?

A

Clostridium

248
Q

What is HIV an example of?

A

An RNA enveloped virus

249
Q

What is hep B and example of?

A

A DNA enveloped virus

250
Q

What is hep A and example of?

A

A non enveloped RNA virus

251
Q

What is HPV a an example of?

A

A non enveloped DNA virus

252
Q

What is the role of crystal violet in a gram stain?

A

It binds to negatively charged structures and is stained purple by iodine.

253
Q

Where are osteocytes found?

A

In lacunae cavities

254
Q

What is the difference between canaliculi and volkmanns canals?

A

Canaliculi connect adjacent osteocytes where as volkmanns canals connect Haversian canals.

255
Q

Hyaline and elastic cartilage both have what?

A

Perichondrium

256
Q

How is duchenne’s muscular dystrophy tested for?

A

Creative phosphokinase is tested for - it is released into the serum.

257
Q

What are the symptoms of duchenne’s ?

A

Muscle fibres torn apart when contracting, fat and connective tissue replace muscle fibres.
Pseudohypertrophy
Gower’s sign
Difficulty standing

258
Q

What is the endometrium?

A

The lining of the womb

259
Q

What pneumonic should you try to remember for what studies in a systematic review should be?

A 
RETR
Reproducible
Explicit
Transparent
Relevant
260
Q

What two things lead to the cleavage of POMC?

A

Inhibitory neurones and ACTH

Laura ESA1 - To remember (1 decks)

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