TO DO ENT Flashcards

1
Q

ACOUSTIC NEUROMA
what are the risk factors?

A

neurofibromatosis type 2 - typically bilateral + earlier onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

ACOUSTIC NEUROMA
what are the symptoms?

A
  • unilateral sensorineural hearing loss
  • tinnitus
  • unsteadiness
  • facial numbness
  • facial weakness
  • dry eyes/mouth
  • dysarthria/dysphagia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ACOUSTIC NEUROMA
what are the clinical signs?

A
  • cerebellar signs - nystagmus, ataxia
  • papilloedema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

ACOUSTIC NEUROMA
what are the investigations?

A
  • audiological testing (unilateral sensorineural hearing loss)
  • Gadolinium-enhanced MRI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

ACOUSTIC NEUROMA
what is the management?

A
  • watch and wait (monitored annually with MRIs)
  • stereotactic radiosurgery/therapy
  • surgical removal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ACOUSTIC NEUROMA
what are the complications?

A

mass effect
- trigeminal + facial neuropathies
- brainstem compression
- hydrocephalus

following surgery
- hearing loss
- facial weakness
- CSF leak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

BPPV
what are the risk factors?

A
  • increasing age
  • female
  • head trauma
  • inflammation (labyrinthitis + vestibular neuritis)
  • migraines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

BPPV
what are the symptoms?

A

VERTIGO
- spinning
- episodic
- sudden, severe and <30 seconds
- occurs on head movement

NAUSEA + VOMITING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

BPPV
what are the clinical signs?

A
  • positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre
  • positive supine lateral head turn
  • normal neuro exam
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

BPPV
what is the diagnostic criteria?

A

ONE of the following:
- positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre
- positive supine lateral head turn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

BPPV
what is the management?

A

1st line
- conservative management
- Epley manoeuvre (contraindicated in neck injury + carotid stenosis)

2nd line
- vestibular suppressant medications (prochlorperazine/betahistine)
- vestibular rehab

refer to ENT
surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

EPISTAXIS
where does the majority of bleeds originate?

A

95% originate from the Kiesselbach plexus in Littles area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

EPISTAXIS
how can you distinguish whether the nose-bleed is anterior or posterior?

A

ANTERIOR
- visible source of bleed
- minor bleed
- initially unilateral bleed
- history of picking
- first aid controls bleed

POSTERIOR
- no visible source
- bleeding down back of mouth + throat
- bleeding initially bilateral
- visible blood in posterior pharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

EPISTAXIS
what is the management of anterior epistaxis?

A

1st line = first aid measures

2nd line = nasal cautery

3rd line = anterior nasal packing for 24-48 hours + admit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

EPISTAXIS
what is the management of posterior epistaxis?

A

1st line = first aid measures

2nd line = posterior nasal packing by ENT specialist

3rd line = surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

EPISTAXIS
what is the discharge advice?

A
  • do not lie flat for 24 hrs
  • avoid nose blowing for 1 week
  • avoid alcohol, spicy food + hot drinks for 2 days
  • avoid strenuous exercise + straining for 1 week
  • avoid dislodging scabs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

OTITIS EXTERNA
what microorganisms most commonly cause it?

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa
s.aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

OTITIS EXTERNA
what are the risk factors?

A
  • swimming
  • humid air
  • young age
  • diabetes
  • trauma
  • narrow external auditory meatus
  • obstructed external auditory meatus
  • eczema, psoriasis
  • radiotherapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

OTITIS EXTERNA
which dermatological conditions can cause it?

A

seborrhoeic dermatitis
contact dermatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

OTITIS EXTERNA
what is the management?

A
  • analgesia (paracetamol, ibuprofen)
  • topical therapy (acetic acid or ciprofloxacin with dexamethasone)
  • ENT referral
  • micro suction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

OTITIS EXTERNA
what are the complications?

A
  • pinna cellulitis
  • chronic otitis externa
  • myringitis
  • necrotising otitis externa
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

OTITIS MEDIA
what are the most common causative pathogens?

A

BACTERIA
- s.pneumoniae
- H.influenzae

VIRUSES
- RSV
- rhinovirus
- adenovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

OTITIS MEDIA
when should you consider antibiotics?

A

absolute indications
- systemically unwell
- signs and symptoms of more serious illness
- high risk of complications

  • otorrhoea in child/young person
  • age <2 with bilateral AOM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

OTITIS MEDIA
which antibiotics may be prescribed?

A

5-7 day course

1st line = amoxicillin
2nd line = co-amoxiclav

penicillin allergy = clarithromycin/erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

OTITIS MEDIA
what are the complications?

A
  • glue ear
  • tympanic membrane perforation
  • mastoiditis
  • meningitis
  • facial nerve palsy
  • chronic or recurrent infection
  • hearing loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

TONSILLITIS
what are the causes?

A
  • viral - rhinovirus
  • bacterial - strep pyogenes
  • recurrent - s.aureus
  • non-infectious - GORD, smoking, hayfever
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

TONSILLITIS
what is the CENTOR criteria?

A
  • presence of tonsillar exudate
  • tender anterior cervical lymph nodes
  • history of fever
  • absence of cough

1 point each

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

TONSILLITIS
what does the CENTOR score mean?

A

0-2 = 3-17% strep infection
3-4 = 32-56%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

TONSILLITIS
what is the feverPAIN criteria?

A
  • fever (during last 24 hrs)
  • pus on tonsils
  • attend rapidly (within 3 days of symptom onset)
  • inflamed tonsils (severe)
  • no cough or coryza

1 point each

30
Q

TONSILLITIS
what do the scores for feverPAIN criteria mean?

A

likelihood of strep infection
0-1 = 13-18%
2-3 = 34-40%
4-5 = 62-65%

31
Q

TONSILLITIS
what is the management?

A

ALL PATIENTS
- paracetamol + ibuprofen
- fluid intake

low feverPAIN (0-1) or centor (0-2) = no antibiotics

high feverPAIN (4-5) or centor (3-4) = antibiotics
- phenoxymethylpenicillin for 5-10 days
- clarithromycin for 5 days if penicillin allergic

32
Q

QUINSY
what is it?

A

peritonsillar abscess, is a collection of pus in the peritonsillar space

33
Q

QUINSY
what is the clinical presentation?

A
  • sore throat
  • fever
  • trismus
  • dysphagia
  • altered voice
  • peritonsillar swelling
  • exudate
  • drooling
    displacement of uvula
34
Q

MENIERES DISEASE
what is the pathophysiology?

A

it is characterised by endolymphatic hydrops - distention + distortion of membranous endolymph system due to abnormal fluctuations in endolymph

35
Q

MENIERES DISEASE
what are the risk factors?

A
  • caucasian
  • family history
  • migraines
  • autoimmune diseases e.g. SLE, rheumatoid arthritis
  • head trauma
  • viral infection
36
Q

MENIERES DISEASE
what are the clinical features?

A
  • vertigo (spinning/rocking)
  • tinnitus
  • fluctuating hearing loss
  • aural fullness
  • unsteadiness on feet
  • nystagmus (unidirectional, horizontal-torsional)
  • positive rombergs sign
37
Q

MENIERES DISEASE
what are the investigations?

A

clinical diagnosis - must be made by ENT specialist
must have:
- >2 episodes of vertigo lasting >20 mins
- hearing loss confirmed by audiometry on >1 occasion
- no better alternative diagnosis

other investigations
- bloods - FBC, U&Es, TFTs, lipid profile, syphilis screen
- audiometry
- MRI

38
Q

ACUTE RHINOSINUSITIS
what features support a bacterial diagnosis?

A
  • persistent clinical features with no improvement >10 days
  • double worsening
  • persistent severe symptoms for 3-4 consecutive days
39
Q

ACUTE RHINOSINUSITIS
what is the management?

A

SUPPORTIVE
- paracetamol (anti-pyretic + analgesic)
- saline irrigation
- steam inhalation

ANTIBIOTICS
- 1st line = phenoxymethylpenicillin
- co-amoxiclav if systemically unwell
- doxycycline/clarithromycin if penicillin allergic

OTHERS
- intranasal glucocorticoids (mometasone)
- oral decongestants (phenylephrine)
- nasal decongestants (oxymetazoline)
- antihistamines

40
Q

SINUSITIS
what are the risk factors?

A

Allergies
Smoking
Asthma
Nasal polyps
Immunodeficiency

41
Q

SINUSITIS
what is the management?

A

1st line
- analgesia (paracetamol/ibuprofen)
- nasal decongestants (pseudoephedrine/phenylephrine)
- intranasal corticosteroids (mometasone/fluticasone)
- saline nasal irrigation

2nd line
- antibiotics if symptoms persist for >10 days (amoxicillin/doxycycline)

42
Q

LABYRINTHITIS
what are the clinical features?

A
  • vertigo
  • N+V
  • hearing loss
  • tinnitus
  • imbalance
  • nystagmus
  • positive rombergs sign
43
Q

LABYRINTHITIS
what are the investigations?

A

clinical diagnosis

other investigations to consider
- audiometry
- MRI brain

44
Q

LABYRINTHITIS
what is the management?

A
  • prochloperazine
  • rest and rehydration
  • antibiotics if bacterial
  • corticosteroids if vasculitis-induced
45
Q

VESTIBULAR NEURITIS
what are the causes?

A

viral infection

46
Q

VESTIBULAR NEURITIS
what are the clinical features?

A
  • vertigo
  • N+V
  • imbalance
  • nystagmus
  • unsteady gait
  • positive rombergs sign
  • normal otoscopic exam
47
Q

VESTIBULAR NEURITIS
what is the management?

A
  • vestibular rehabilitation therapy (VRT)
  • prochlorperazine
48
Q

GLANDULAR FEVER (INFECTIOUS MONONUCLEOSIS)
what are the clinical features?

A

SYMPTOMS
- sore throat
- abdominal tenderness
- prodromal features (malaise, fever, fatigue, myalgia, anorexia, retro-orbital headache)
- widespread non-blanching maculopapular rash (if amoxicillin or ampicillin is administered)

SIGNS
- tonsillar enlargement (may have white exudate + palatal petechiae)
- bilateral posterior lymphadenopathy
- splenomegaly and hepatomegaly

49
Q

GLANDULAR FEVER (INFECTIOUS MONONUCLEOSIS)
what are the investigations?

A
  • FBC = lymphocytosis
  • monospot test (in 2nd week) = confirm dx

to consider
- EBV serology (if monospot is negative or rapid diagnosis required)
- LFTs = often abnormal
- CMV/toxoplasmosis (if pt is pregnant or immunocompromised)
- HIV status

50
Q

GLANDULAR FEVER (INFECTIOUS MONONUCLEOSIS)
what are the complications?

A
  • splenic rupture
  • glomerulonephritis
  • haemolytic anaemia
  • thrombocytopaenia
  • chronic fatigue
  • Burkitt’s lymphoma
51
Q

OBSTRUCTIVE SLEEP APNOEA
what are the risk factors?

A
  • increasing age
  • male
  • obesity
  • family history of OSA
  • nasopharyngeal obstruction
  • craniofacial abnormalities
  • macroglossia
  • neuromuscular disorders
  • smoking
52
Q

OBSTRUCTIVE SLEEP APNOEA
what are the clinical signs?

A
  • jaw abnormalities
  • mouth breathing or nasal speech
  • raised BMI + large neck circumference
  • HTN
53
Q

OBSTRUCTIVE SLEEP APNOEA
what are the complications?

A
  • MI
  • stroke
  • HTN
54
Q

VERTIGO
what are the causes of peripheral vertgio?

A
  • BPPV
  • menieres disease
  • vestibular neuritis
  • labyrinthitis
55
Q

VERTIGO
what are the causes of central vertigo?

A
  • posterior circulation infarction (stroke)
  • tumour
  • MS
  • vestibular migraine
56
Q

VERTIGO
what is the difference in presentation of peripheral vs central vertigo?

A

PERIPHERAL
- sudden onset
- short (seconds/minutes)
- hearing loss/tinnitus present
- coordination intact
more severe nausea

CENTRAL
- gradual onset (except stroke)
- persistent
- no hearing loss/tinnitus
- coordination impaired
- only mild nausea

57
Q

VERTIGO
what are the investigations?

A
  • ear examination (look for infection/other pathology)
  • neurological exam
  • cardiovascular exam
  • cerebellar exam

Special tests
- Rombergs test (screen for proprioception issues)
- Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre

58
Q

VERTIGO
what investigations can be done to distinguish between peripheral and central vertigo?

A

HINTS examinations
- HI = Head Impulse test (helps to diagnose peripheral vertigo, will be normal if central)
- N = nystagmus (unilateral horizontal = peripheral, bilateral/vertical = central)
- T = test of skew (indicates central cause)

59
Q

VERTIGO
what is the management?

A

CENTRAL
- referral for further investigation (CT or MRI head)

PERIPHERAL
- prochlorperazine
- antihistamines (cyclizine, cinnarizine and promethazine)
- if menieres disease = betahistine
if BPPV = epley manoeuvre
- vestibular migraine = triptans for acute, propranolol, topiramate or amitriptyline for prevention

60
Q

PRESBYCUSIS
what is it?

A

type of sensorineural hearing loss that affects elderly
typically effects high frequency hearing bilaterally

61
Q

PRESBYCUSIS
what are the risk factors?

A
  • arteriosclerosis
  • diabetes
  • accumulated exposure to noise
  • drug exposure (salicylates, chemotherapy)
  • stress
  • genetics
62
Q

PRESBYCUSIS
what is the clinical presentation?

A
  • speech becoming difficult to understand
  • need for increased volume on the TV
  • difficulty using telephone
  • loss of directionality of sound
  • worsening symptoms in noisy environments
  • hyperacusis (heightened sensitivity to certain sound frequencies)

SIGNS
- possible Weber’s test bone conduction to one side if not completely bilateral

63
Q

PRESBYCUSIS
what are the investigations?

A
  • otoscopy = normal
  • tympanometry = normal middle ear function with hearing loss
  • audiometry = bilateral sensorineural hearing loss
  • blood tests = normal
64
Q

OTOSCLEROSIS
what is it?

A

replacement of normal bone by vascular spongy bone.
causes progressive conductive deafness due to fixation of the stapes at the oval window

65
Q

OTOSCLEROSIS
what is the cause?

A

autosomal dominant inherited condition

66
Q

OTOSCLEROSIS
what is the epidemiology?

A
  • onset usually at 20-40 years old
  • positive family history
67
Q

OTOSCLEROSIS
what is the pathophysiology?

A

normal bone is replaced with spongy vascular bone
causes progressive conductive deafness due to fixation of the stapes at the oval window

68
Q

OTOSCLEROSIS
what is the inheritance pattern?

A

autosomal dominant

69
Q

OTOSCLEROSIS
what type of hearing loss does it cause?

A

progressive conductive deafness

70
Q

OTOSCLEROSIS
what is the clinical presentation?

A
  • conductive deafness
  • tinnitus
  • normal tympanic membrane (10% have flamingo tinge)
  • positive family history
71
Q

OTOSCLEROSIS
what is the management?

A
  • hearing aid
  • stapedectomy