TN 2023 Flashcards

1
Q

The significance of delayed cord clamping is to:
A. Prevent hypothermia
B. Decrease the incidence of anemia
C. Remove the crawling reflex
D. To allow good bacteria from the mother to penetrate the newly born

A

B. Decrease the incidence of anemia

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2
Q

The rationale of this intervention in the Essential Newborn Care is to prevent neonatal hypothermia and to increase colonization with
protective family bacteria:
A. Immediate drying
B. Delayed cord clamping
C. Uninterrupted skin-to-skin contact
D. Breastfeeding

A

C. Uninterrupted skin-to-skin contact

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3
Q

After catching a newborn full-term male, and placing him in the incubator, you noticed that the air-conditioning system was set to full and that the radiant warmer was not working. You are worried that the baby might develop hypothermia which might lead to following except?
A. Acidosis
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Hypoxemia
D. Increased renal excretion of water and solutes
E. NOTA

A

D. Increased renal excretion of water and solutes

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4
Q

The target temperature for newborns is?
A. 36 - 37°C C. 36.5 - 37.5°C
B. 36 - 37.5°C D. 36.7 - 37°C

A

C. 36.5 - 37.5°C

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5
Q

The following are the most common mechanisms of heat loss in the immediate newborn period EXCEPT?
A. Convection
B. Conduction
C. Heat Radiation
D. Evaporation
E. NOTA

A

E. NOTA

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6
Q

All of the ff. is an effect of early skin to skin contact in newborn care except?
A. Bonding
B. Prevents hypothermia
C. Prevents anemia
D. Increases colonization with protective bacterial flora

A

C. Prevents anemia

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7
Q

All of the ff. are components of essential newborn care except?
A. Early skin to skin contact
B. Immediate thorough drying
C. Properly timed clamping and cutting of the cord
D. Timely vitamin k and eye prophylaxis

A

D. Timely vitamin k and eye prophylaxis

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8
Q

A child was delivered preterm via emergency CS to a 37-year-old primigravida because of fetal distress. Upon delivery, he was noted to be cyanotic on the extremities, HR 120/min, coughed when suctioned, with good tone and with regular respiration.
What is the APGAR score at 1 minute?

A

APGAR 9

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9
Q

The most important component of the APGAR score is the:
A. Heart rate
B. Activity
C. Respiration
D. Grimace

A

C. Respiration

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10
Q

The best description of the APGAR score is that it:
A. Accurately predicts who will develop cerebral palsy
B. Assesses neonates in need of resuscitation
C. Accurately predicts a low umbilical cord pH
D. Accurately predicts neonates who will die in the neonatal period

A

B. Assesses neonates in need of resuscitation

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11
Q

On what day of life is NBS done?

A

24-48 HOURS OF LIFE

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12
Q

The cheese-like material that covers the normal term infant in varying
amounts:
A. Lanugo
B. Vellus hair
C. Vernix caseosa
D. Milia

A

C. Vernix caseosa

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13
Q

The purplish reticulated pattern noted on the skin of a neonate when
exposed to cold:
A. Mongolian spots
B. Acrocyanosis
C. Cutis marmorata
D. Harlequin color change

A

C. Cutis marmorata

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14
Q

Cross the midline and suture lines

A

Caput succedaneum

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15
Q

Subperiosteal hemorrhage

A

Cephalohematoma

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16
Q

Limited to the surface of one cranial bone

A

Cephalohematoma

17
Q

No discoloration of overlying scalp

A

Cephalohematoma

18
Q

Edema, ecchymosis, and swelling apparent right after
birth

A

Caput succedaneum

19
Q

May cause jaundice

A

Cephalohematoma

20
Q

Early onset neonatal infection, according to Nelson’s occurs
A. 1st week of life
B. 7-30 days of life
C. >4 weeks of life
D. None of the above

A

A. 1st week of life

21
Q

12 hour-old newborn born NSD to a G1P1 28-year-old mother was noted to have frothing at the mouth of secretions. When he was given milk, he regurgitated it. PE: crying, CR 155/min, RR=68/min, harsh breath sounds, good cardiac tone, soft abdomen, cyanotic lips and nailbeds. What is your impression?
A. GER
B. GERD
C. EA with TEF
D. Diaphragmatic Hernia

A

C. EA with TEF

22
Q

A newborn infant develops tachypnea, grunting, and use of accessory muscles together with cyanosis at the 2nd hour of life. He also has a scaphoid abdomen, (+) decreased breath sounds bilaterally, the point of maximal impulse is shifted near the sternal side, what is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Bochdalek
B. Morgagni
C. Congenital cystic adenomatous malformation
D. Pulmonary Sequestration

A

A. Bochdalek

23
Q

A term infant with severe respiratory disease. Scaphoid abdomen on PE.

A

Diagnosis: Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
Most common type: Bochdalek hernia

24
Q

A term infant is born with extrusion of the abdominal viscera
Diagnosis?

  • What is your immediate intervention?
  • Which one is associated with other congenital anomalies?
  • Gastroschisis is more common on left side or right side of umbilicus?
A

Omphalocele versus Gastroschisis

o Decompression and wrapping

o Omphalocele (OEIS complex)

o Right

25
Q

The following is TRUE regarding Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
A. The defect is more commonly located
at the right side of the umbilicus
B. There is a membranous sac covering
the defect
C. Other congenital anomalies are
commonly associated with this defect
D. Bowel and alimentation is normal

A

A. The defect is more commonly located
at the right side of the umbilicus

26
Q

A preterm baby won’t stop crying. He then developed abdominal distention with abdominal erythema. The baby cries more when touched. What is your diagnosis?

A

NEC

27
Q

Thickened bowel walls and air in the bowel wall:

A

o PNEUMATOSIS INTESTINALIS

28
Q
A
29
Q

All of the ff. are accepted interventions for Necrotizing enterocolitis
except?
A. Broad Spectrum Antibiotic Therapy
B. Umbilical Catheterization
C. IV Volume Replacement
D. Surgery

A

B. Umbilical Catheterization

30
Q

1-day old male neonate is being referred for vomiting. The vomitus is greenish yellowish in color according to the mother. PE revealed a non-distended, non-tender abdomen. What is the most likely finding on workup?
A. Double Bubble Sign
B. Increased pyloric thickness
C. Donut Ring Sign
D. Absence of parasympathetic postganglionic cell bodies

A

A. Double Bubble Sign

31
Q

A 1-week-old neonate presents with vomiting characterized as bilious, last passage of stool was 2 days ago. Ultrasound shows that the superior mesenteric vein is to the left of the artery, upper GI series shows absence of the cecum at the RLQ, what is the best next step in the
management of this patient?
A. Detorsion C. Watchful Waiting
B. Barium Enema D. PEG Insertion

A

A. Detorsion

32
Q

28-year-old primigravida went into labor at 33 weeks age of
gestation. The obstetrician was concerned regarding the fetal lung maturity and requested for amniotic fluid L/S ratio. Which should be?
A. >2 C. >4
B. >3 D. >5

A

A. >2

33
Q

A one-month-old male was brought to your clinic due to scrotal swelling. Mother noticed this to be present since birth. There were no other associated symptoms. No fever, no tenderness. Baby was well, with good suck and activity.

A

Hydrocele

34
Q

After catching a full-term baby boy, 2600g, AGA, on the 5th minute of life you decided to check the oxygen saturation of the patient. A maximum saturation of 90% was read. The baby has good APGAR score, is comfortable, and there are no other abnormal physical findings. What is the next step in managing this patient?
A. Provide O2 support C. Observe and monitor
B. Stimulate the patient D. Suction secretions

A

C. Observe and monitor

35
Q

A preterm 34-week neonate was referred by the nurse due to cessation of breathing lasting 10 seconds followed by rapid respiration of 50- 60bpm. Vital signs are stable, no cyanosis. If another episode occurs what will you advise the nurse?
A. Stimulate patient
B. Positive Pressure Ventilation
C. CPR
D. NOTA

A

D. NOTA

36
Q

A 23-year-old primigravid gave birth at 33-week AOG to male
newborn via SVD. Several minutes after birth, the newborn
developed tachypnea, prominent grunting, intercostal and
subcostal retractions, nasal flaring which progressed to cyanosis.
Upon auscultation, breath sounds were diminished with a harsh tubular quality and on deep inspiration, fine crackles were heard.
Which of the following is your initial diagnosis?
A. Respiratory distress syndrome
B. Transient tachypnea of the newborn
C. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
D. Persistent Pulmonary Hypertension

A

A. Respiratory distress syndrome

37
Q

What is the primary cause of the RDS?
A. Persistence of the fetal circulatory pattern of right-to-left
shunting through the PDA and foramen ovale after birth
B. Slow absorption of fetal lung fluid
C. Surfactant deficiency
D. AOTA

A

C. Surfactant deficiency

38
Q

What is the expected chest x-ray finding of RDS?
A. Fine reticular granularity of the parenchyma and air
bronchograms
B. Prominent pulmonary vascular markings, fluid in the
intralobar fissures, overaeration, flat diaphragms
C. Normal findings
D. Patchy infiltrates, coarse streaking of both lung fields,
increased anteroposterior diameter, and flattening of the
diaphragm
E. NOTA

A

A. Fine reticular granularity of the parenchyma and air
bronchograms

39
Q
A