TL Flashcards

1
Q

Factors that increase risk of STI

A

Inconsistent condom use, intercourse with multiple partners, and intercourse with partners belonging to a population with a high prevalence of STIs

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2
Q

Screening for STI

A

Chlamydia, gonorrhea, syphillis in non-pregnant patients, HIV, intimate partner violence

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3
Q

Exceptions to parent/guardian informed consent for sexual activity related care

A

Contraception
Emergency care (eg, ruptured ectopic pregnancy)
Pregnancy care
Sexually transmitted infection

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4
Q

Reportable infectious diseases: diseases affecting unvaccinated

A

Measles
Rubella
Varicella zoster (chickenpox)
Mumps
Poliovirus (poliomyelitis)
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Corynebacterium diphtheria (diphtheria)
Haemophilus influenzae type b (epiglottitis, meningitis)
Neisseria meningitis (meningitis)
Clostridium tetani (tetanus)
Bordetella pertussis (pertussis)

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5
Q

Reportable infectious diseases: foodborne/waterborne diseases

A

Vibrio cholera (cholera)
Salmonella enterica (typhoid, salmonellosis)
Shigella (shigellosis)
Shiga-toxin-producing Escherichia coli
Clostridium botulinum (botulism)
Listeria monocytogenes (listeriosis)
Legionella pneumophilia (legionellosis)
Giardia lamblia (giardiasis)
Trichinella species (trichnellosis)

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6
Q

Reportable infectious diseases: mosquito-borne diseases

A

West Nile virus

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7
Q

Reportable infectious diseases: potential biologic weapons

A

Bacillus anthracis (anthrax)
Yersinia pestis (plague)
Poxviridae (smallpox)

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8
Q

Reportable infectious diseases: sexually transmitted

A

Treponema pallidum (syphillis)
Neisseria gonorrhoeae (gonorrhea)
Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes D-K
Haemophilius ducreyi (chancroid)
Hepatitis C

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9
Q

Reportable infectious diseases: tick borne diseases

A

Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme disease)
Rickettsia rickettsii (Rocky Mountain spotted fever)
Ehrlichia species (ehrlichiosis)
Francisella tularensis (tularemia)

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10
Q

Reportable infectious diseases: zoonotic diseases

A

Brucella species (brucellosis)
Rhabdoviruses (rabies)
Chlamydophilia psittaci (psittacosis)

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11
Q

Reportable infectious diseases: other

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis (tuberculosis)
Mycobacterium leprae (leprosy)
Coccidiodes immitis (coccidiomycosis)
Cryptosporidium parvum (cryptosporidiosis)
Vancomycin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (VRSA infections)

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12
Q

Who do you contact for reportable infectious disease?

A

Local health department
They will then notify state and federal organizations as appropriate
When national agencies become involved in an infectious disease outbreak, the CDC plays a major role

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13
Q

Who do you contact for:
Assault wounds?
Child abuse?
Driving restriction?
Elder abuse?
Intent to harm?
Physician impairment?
Physician misconduct?
Reportable infectious diseases?

A

Assault wounds? Law enforcement
Child abuse? Child protective services
Driving restriction? may be required to report to the licensing authority (eg, department of motor vehicles)
Elder abuse? Adult protective services
Intent to harm? Law enforcement, person(s) at risk (if applicable)
Physician impairment? Physician health program
Physician misconduct? State medical board
Reportable infectious diseases? Local health department

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14
Q

Contraction alkalosis is a common cause of metabolic alkalosis that can be seen with vomiting and dehydration. What’s the most appropriate initial therapy?

A

0.9% normal saline bolus

Next:
-Antiemetic: odansetron (5-HT serotonin receptor antagonist), promethazine (primary dopamine receptor antagonist), or meclizine (histamine receptor antagonist)
-Potassium repletion: orally or IV depending on nausea level and severity of hypokalemia
-Other supportive therapy: if warranted based on patient condition, therapy to target hemodynamics, ventilation, oxygenation, etc

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15
Q

Primary nocturnal enuresis greatest risk factor

A

Family history of bed wetting
Most common in males aged 5-8

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16
Q

Primary nocturnal enuresis definition

A

Nighttime urinary incontinence in a child aged 5 years or older who has not previously had prolonged period of overnight dryness

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17
Q

Primary nocturnal enuresis etiology

A

Delayed maturation of bladder control
Decreased bladder capacity
Increased nocturnal urine output

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18
Q

Primary nocturnal enuresis evaluation and treatment

A

Urinalysis and culture to r/o UTI, DM, diabetes insipidus
Voiding diary

Treat any comorbid conditions (eg, constipation)
Restrict evening fluids
Enuresis alarm
Pharmacotherapy (eg, desmopressin)

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19
Q

24 yo F being evaluated in post-partum unit, oliguria for 8 hours. PMH of gestational DM. Had second degree perineal laceration. Unable to void since delivery but has persistent urinary dribbling while lying in bed. Also has mild lower abdominal tenderness. What is the cause?

A

Pudendal nerve injury

Perineal lacerations can lead to pudendal nerve injury and postpartum urinary retention. Patients will present with dribbling of urine (due to overflow incontinence), bladder dissension, and an elevated post-void residual volume.

PIC

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20
Q

Urethral injury presentation

A

Strong urge to void, dysuria, increased frequency, slow and/or interrupted stream when urinating

Perineal ecchymoses in a butterfly pattern, external genitalia ecchymoses, scrotal edema, high riding prostate (non palpable prostate), gross hematuria, or blood at the urethral meatus, especially in the setting of a pelvic fracture)

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21
Q

What has a similar MOA to finasteride?

A

Sawtooth palmetto (5-alpha reductase inhibitor)

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22
Q

PSGN treatment?

A

Supportive
-Antibiotics if streptococcal infection is still present
-The resolution of edema is usually rapid and serum creatinine returns to baseline in 3-4 weeks
hematuria typically resolves within 3-6 months
-Indications for referral include cases of refractory hypertension, elevated and rising serum creatinine and persistent fluid overload that does not respond to fluid restriction and diuretic therapy

PIC

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23
Q

6 yo M with swelling around his eyes, dark colored urine for past 2 days. He had a sore throat 1 week ago. NSIM?

A

Urinalysis

This is PSGN

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24
Q

26 yo F with 1 day of fever, back, and flank pain, 2-3 episodes of non bilious nonbloody emesis. Has 1 male partner and doesn’t use condoms. Has a fever of 101.3, right CVA tenderness. Elevated leukocyte count. NSIM?

A

Urinalysis and urine culture

PIC

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25
Q

59 yo M comes to ED with 1 day history of fever, chills and dysuria. PMH hypothyroidism, HTN, obesity. Vitals show 101.2, 146/79, HR 92, RR 18. PE shows exquisitely tender prostate on DRE. The most appropriate empiric treatment is?

A

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole or a fluoroquinolone (eg, ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin)

Patient has acute bacterial prostatitis. E. coli is the MC causative organism

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26
Q

Infectious dysuria in males

A

PIC

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27
Q

62 yo M presents to ED with severe abdominal pain. He developed sharp, severe, right flank pain this afternoon. The pain comes in waves and is so severe he cannot walk. He had nausea and 3 episodes of non bilious, non bloody emesis. PMH HTN, HLD, gout, BPH. He is in moderate distress and unable to get comfortable, moving around on the exam table frequently. Given most likely dx, wha is likely to be seen on workup?

A

Gross or microscopic hematuria on urinalysis

Patient has nephrolithiasis

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28
Q

Nephrolithiasis diagnosis and management

A

Abdominal ultrasound or non contrast spiral CT of the abdomen and pelvis

Hydration and pain control
Strain urine (evaluate composition)

-CCB and tamsulosin may help relax the ureter, resulting in less pain and improved passage of the stone
</= 5 mm: most pass spontaneously
< 10 mm: may pass with medical management alone
10-20 mm: lithotripsy or ureteroscopy
>20 mm: percutaneous nephrolithotomy

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29
Q

Nephrolithiasis characteristics

A

PIC

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30
Q

73 yo M comes to ED for lower abdominal pain. He has been taking diphenhydramine for nasal congestion for the last week. PMH HTN, BPH. PE shows suprapubic tenderness and tenderness without guarding or rigidity. NSIM?

A

Urinary catheterization

Patient has urinary retention due to recent diphenhydramine use

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31
Q

Risk factors for acute urine retention

A

Amitriptyline
atropine
Diphenhydramine
Epidural anesthesia
Opioid analgesics
Pelvic surgery (eg, bladder injury)

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32
Q

Teratogenic effect: Aminoglycosides (gentamicin, neomycin, amikacin, tobramycin, streptomycin)

A

Ototoxicity (CN VIII damage)
Renal agenesis

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33
Q

Teratogenic effect: ACE-i

A

Renal failure

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34
Q

Teratogenic effect: Anticonvulsant agents

A

Neural tube defects
Cardiac defects

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35
Q

Teratogenic effect: Alkylating agents

A

Cleft palate
Renal agenesis

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36
Q

Teratogenic effect: Folic acid antagonist (trimethoprim, triamterene)

A

Neural tube defects

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37
Q

Teratogenic effect: Isotretinoin

A

Cleft palate
Microphthalmia
Cardiac defects

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38
Q

Teratogenic effect: Fluconazole

A

Bone defects
Congenital heart disease

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39
Q

Teratogenic effect: Lithium

A

Ebstein anomaly

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40
Q

Teratogenic effect: Methimazole

A

Aplasia cutis congenita

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41
Q

Teratogenic effect: Tetracyclines

A

Bone/teeth defects

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42
Q

Teratogenic effect: Warfarin

A

Fetal hemorrhage
Bone defects

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43
Q

Painless, fixed testicular mass that does not transilluminate. MRI findings of a cystic, calcified, 3.5-cm testicular mass. What is the diagnosis?

A

Testicular cancer

-Germ cell: 95% of testicular cancers and classified as seminomatous or non-seminomatous

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44
Q

Testicular pathologies

A

PIC

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45
Q

Epididymitis treatment

A

Fluoroquinolone (eg, ciprofloxacin)

MC cause in patients over 35 yo = E. coli
MC cause in patients less than 35 yo = suspect gonorrhea or chlamydia and treat with ceftriaxone and doxycycline

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46
Q

78 yo F comes to ED in ambulance from her assisted living facility with bilateral flank pain. Started this morning, 9/10 pain, constant. PMH T2D, HTN, HLD, OA, obesity. Meds metformin, glyburide, lisinopril, simvistatin and ibuprofen. She’s been taking a lot of ibuprofen recently for joint pain. T 100, BP 140/90, HR 98, RR 18. PE shows CVA tenderness, 2-3+ pitting edema in UE and LE, abdomen distended. Urine dipstick shows protein 4+ and hemoglobin 1+. Which diagnostic test will likely provide the definitive diagnosis?

A

Renal biopsy

This patient has acute interstitial nephritis which occurs several days after initiating or increasing use of a new mediation (often an abx or NSAID). Symptoms include a maculopapular rash, fever, malaise, nausea, and polyarthralgia. Most definitive test for confirming dx is renal biopsy demonstrating mononuclear and eosinophilic inflammatory infiltration of the renal parenchyma with sparing of the glomeruli and blood vessels

PIC

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47
Q

Anterior and posterior chapman points for prostate

A

Anterior: Posterior IT band (outer femur)

Posterior: Lateral sacral base bilaterally

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48
Q

24 yo M comes to office with rash, fatigue, and decreased urination for the past 2 days. He was in the ED 1 week ago for a staph aureus skin infection and he was started on a 10 day course of antibiotics. T 102, BP 156/94, HR 101. PE reveals 1+ pitting edema in lower extremities bilaterally. Urine studies will most likely reveal?

A

Eosinophils on microscopy

Patient has acute interstitial nephritis

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49
Q

48 yo M with a 3-day history of intermittent left flank pain and generalized weakness. Reports decrease in urine volume with 1 episode of high urine output. He is a kidney donor. What is the dx?

A

Obstructive uropathy

PIC

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50
Q

64 yo M comes to the office with complaints of hematuria. He’s had increased urinary frequency for several weeks. PMH BPH treated with meds. Patient has a voiding cystourethrogram. The pathology underlying his dx involves which of the following?

PIC

A

Chronic outlet obstruction

The patient has urinary bladder diverticulum. BPH is a common cause of this

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51
Q

What should be avoided in neutropenic patients (eg, patients on chemotherapy)

A

DRE

A rectal exam should be avoided in neutropenic patients if the patient is thrombocytopenia because of increased bleeding risk

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52
Q

16 yo M comes in for monitoring of his kidney condition. He has had worsening hearing loss in both ears, swelling over his eyelids and high BP. FH is positive for a maternal grandfather with similar symptoms as a child. Urinalysis is most likely to reveal?

A

Red blood cell casts or dysmorphic red blood cells (glomerulonephritis) may be seen

Patient has Alport syndrome (X-linked dominant) caused by a defect in type IV collagen, involving the basement membranes of the kidney and also frequently affecting the cochleas and eyes.

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53
Q

Urinary casts and associated pathologies

A

PIC

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54
Q

23 yo M brought to ED after falling off a ladder. He reports pain in his pelvis and groin. PE shows stable pelvis, scrotal and perineal ecchymoses, and bladder fullness. Pelvic radiograph shows bilateral inferior pubic ramus fractures. NSIM?

A

Retrograde urethrogram (gold standard for diagnosing urethral injuries)

Avoid Foley catheter placement
Place a suprapubic catheter if the urethrogram is positive for a urethral injury

Anterior urethral injury: urgent repair (<24 hours)
Posterior urethral injury: suprapubic catheter; delayed repair

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55
Q

In order to prevent the spread of STIs, the following steps are recommended:

A

-Treat the diagnosed STI with appropriate antibiotics
-Provide counseling on safer sex practices
-Screen for HIV
-Provide hepatitis B vaccine if unvaccinated
-Encourage the patient to contact past sexual partners to be evaluated and, if needed, treated
-Notify the public health department of the disease, as required in all states

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56
Q

57 yo M with increased urinary frequency, especially at night during past few months. BMI is 35. PE reveals slight pitting edema of LE bilaterally and hyperpigmentation of the axilla. The most likely finding on urinalysis is?

A

Proteinuria

Patient likely has diabetic nephropathy (Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease). Treatment includes either hand ACE-I or ARB with aggressive lifestyle modification and glycemic control

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57
Q

73 yo M presents to office with difficulty urinating. He wakes up 4-5 times a night to urinate, occasionally experiences pelvic discomfort when bladder is full. DRE shows contender prostate without nodules or induration. There is an area of tenderness near his lumbosacral junction and a palpable tender nodule at the medial aspect of the sacral base. His PSA is 12 (reference range: < 4). NSIM?

A

Transrectal ultrasound guided biopsy

Rule out prostate cancer because of his high PSA
TRUS is negative, MRI-guided biopsy may be used for diagnosis where there is an ongoing concern for prostate cancer because of a further increase in PSA or abnormalities on examination

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58
Q

62 yo M comes to Ed with progressive back pain, fatigue , weight loss and intermittent nocturnal fevers onset 2 months ago. PMH: DM, complicated UTI 3 mo ago. Point tenderness over the right CVA and rubbery nodules superolateral to the umbilicus and around the L1 TP. Slight leukocytosis and elevated ESR. Urinalysis shows mild proteinuria without pyuria or casts. The most likely dx is?

A

Renal abscess

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59
Q

Bladder injury dx?

A

Suspected based on clinical findings of suprapubic pain and gross hematuria and confirmed intraoperatively or with CT cystogram

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60
Q

8 yo M with brown urine for past day, LE swelling. Two weeks ago was seen in the office for a sore throat and was given abx. He finished the abx and his sx went away. BP 152/92. PE reveals 2+ pitting edema at the level of the knee. The most appropriate management is?

A

Diuresis

Treatment for mild cases is supportive, including water and salt restriction and gentle diuresis

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61
Q

Doxycycline MOA

A

A tetracycline that inhibits the 30s ribosomal subunit

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62
Q

A surgeon is most likely to encounter which vessel whose origin is located just superior to the left renal vein before the left renal vein drains into the inferior vena cava?

A

Superior mesenteric artery

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63
Q

4 day old newborn with opening of urethra located on the ventral surface of his penis, proximal to the base of his scrotum. His penis is curved ventrally. This patients condition is called?

A

Chordee

This is a severe form of hypospadias where urethra opens at the base of the scrotum and the the chordee pulls penis down

Ventral opening of urethra = hypospadias
Urethral meatus found on the dorsal surface of the penis = epispadias

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64
Q

When to treat acute pyelonephritis inpatient

A

-Hemodynamic status (hypotension)
-Ability to reliably consume oral medications (nausea, vomiting, etc)
-Certain comorbidities (eg, renal disease, poorly controlled DM)
-Presence or absence of complicated disease (eg, sepsis, organ failure)

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65
Q

Acute pyelonephritis treatment

A

Outpatient: oral fluoroquinolone (eg, ciprofloxacin)

Inpatient: IV fluoroquinolones or ahminoglycosides +/- ampicillin

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66
Q

Indications for imaging for acute pyelonephritis

A

-Complicated pyelonephritis (eg, sepsis, renal failure)
-Persistent symptoms despite 48-72 hours of treatment
-History of nephrolithiasis
-Unusual urinary findings (eg, gross hematuria)

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67
Q

Name the testicular tumor:
-Small, slow growing
-White or yellow on gross pathology
-Cords and tubules along with cells with scant cytoplasm
-HcG and AFP are NOT elevated

A

Sertoli cell tumor (type of sex cord-stomal tumors)

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68
Q

Gram positive filamentous rod with recent IUD placement cause

A

Actinomyces israelii

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69
Q

Blunt trauma to kidney with mid-back pain, CVA tenderness, microscopic hematuria. NSIM?

A

CT abdomen and pelvis with contrast

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70
Q

Low serum calcitriol corresponds to

A

low serum calcium

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71
Q

Sarcoidosis hypercalcemia

A

Increased calcitriol and urinary calcium, decreased PTH

PTH is decreased because hypercalcemia in sarcoidosis occurs due to extrarenal calcitriol production in the lungs and lymph nodes and is independent of parathyroid hormone

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72
Q

TLS is marked by the release of intracellular tumor contents into the bloodstream, leading to:

A

Hyperuricemia: purine nucleic acids from lysed tumor cells are metabolized by xanthine oxidase to uric acid. Because uric acid is poorly soluble in urine, patients often develop obstructing uric acid stones in the renal tubules, which causes AKI.

Hyperphosphatemia: tumor cells frequently contain >3 times more intracellular phosphate than healthy cells. Phosphate (renally excreted) binds calcium in the renal tubules and forms obstructing calcium-phosphate stones; this can also cause AKI and leads to systemic hypocalcemia.

Hyperkalemia: intracellular potassium is released into the circulation, which can cause cardiac arrhythmias.

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73
Q

45 yo M comes to ED with fever, rash and generalized body aches. He recently started a new anti-HTN medication. Urinalysis is positive for eosinophils. What will his renal biopsy show?

A

Lymphocytic infiltration of the interstitium

Patient likely has allergic interstitial nephritis, most likely from a diuretic

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74
Q

Lupus nephritis

A

Anti ds-DNA
Decreased C3 and C4

Biopsy is gold standard
Urine sediment with WBC, RBC, or casts (granular, WBC, RBC)

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75
Q

Gold standard for initial diagnosis of bladder cancer

A

Cytoscopy

Obviously you would get urinalysis before that though and it would show >3 RBC

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76
Q

Risk factors for the development of bladder cancer

A

Cigarette smoking
Opium use
Occupational carcinogen exposure (including arsenic and trihalomethane compounds from chlorination of drinking water)

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77
Q

How to prevent nephrolithiasis

A

Increase fluid intake
Increased dietary calcium intake (calcium rich foods)
Increased dietary potassium intake
Decreased dietary sodium intake
Avoidance of high-dose vitamin C supplements
Thiazide diuretics
Allopurinol

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78
Q

If you suspect Alport syndrome in a patient (hematuria and hearing loss), what test would you order first

A

Genetic testing (COL4A3, COL4A4, COL4A5)

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79
Q

Treatment for UTI due to pseudomonas

A

Ciprofloxacin, ceftazidime, cefepime

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80
Q

What does choriocarcinoma secrete

A

B-hCG

Histology reveals abundant necrosis and hemorrhage and mixed cytotrophoblasts and syncytiotrophoblasts

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81
Q

Behcet syndrome

A

PIC

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82
Q

Treatment of hematuria in someone with sickle cell trait (HbS)

A

Observation
Increase oral fluid intake
Bed rest

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83
Q

Soft, mobile, flesh-colored, cystic masses act the 4 and 8 o’clock positions at the base of the labia major. Asymptomatic. NSIM?

A

Observation

Incision and drainage is indicated for painful lesions

Patient has a bartholin gland cyst

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84
Q

Indications for hemodialysis

A

A- Acidosis: severe metabolic acidosis

E- Electrolytes: severe hyperkalemia

I- Ingestion: toxic alcohol, lithium

O- Overload: refractory fluid overload (refractory to medication management)

U- Uremia: uremic pericarditis or encephalopathy

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85
Q

In cases of suspected toxic alcohol ingestion, hemodialysis should be performed in the setting of

A

Metabolic acidosis, regardless of drug level

Elevated levels of methanol or ethylene glycol (more than 50 mg/dL

Evidence of end organ damage (eg, visual changes, renal failure)

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86
Q

What diuretic to use when a patient has an allergy to sulfonamides

A

Ethacrynic acid

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87
Q

Alternative antibiotic to give to a patient with a sulfa allergy for upper UTI

A

Ciprofloxacin

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88
Q

What to order first in a patient you suspect ADPKD (hypertension, hematuria, bilateral flank pain) in with no known family history

A

Renal ultrasound

CT/MRI would be a better option in a patient that has a FH of ADPKD

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89
Q

If you suspect cauda equina in a patient, first thing to do is

A

MRI of lumbar spine
If imaging shows nerve root compression then emergency neurosurgical consult

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90
Q

Approach to painless hematuria

A

Urinalysis with microscopic analysis

THEN

Cystoscopy
CT urogram or MRI urogram
Urine cytology

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91
Q

Central venous catheters are placed using ultrasound guidance. They are most commonly put into the internal jugular or subclavian veins. After placement, it is important to obtain a

A

Portable chest x-ray to ensure correct position and evaluate for complications

Only exception to this rule is if a CVC is placed in a hemodynamically unstable or actively decompensating patient

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92
Q

What type of tumor secretes androgens that can cause feminization in adult males and precocious puberty in children?

A

Leydig cell tumors
Reinke crystals are eosinophilic cytoplasmic crystals characteristic of Legged cells and are present in up to 1/3 of Lydia cell tumors

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93
Q

Type 1 (distal) RTA

A

Impaired H+ secretion by alpha intercalated cells in the distal tubule

Hypokalemia

Urine pH > 5.5

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94
Q

Type 2 (proximal) RTA

A

Impaired HCO3- reabsorption in the proximal tubule

Hypokalemia

Urine pH is variable and often <5.5

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95
Q

Type 4 RTA

A

Reduced aldosterone activity

Hyperkalemia

Urine pH <5.5

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96
Q

53 yo M with occasional red urine for the last 3 months, turns red by end of voiding. He has noticed small clots in his urine. PMH chronic back pain. He smokes a pack of cigarettes daily. T 99.5, BP 140/90. Urinalysis only positive for blood. What is the most likely cause?

A

Bladder disease

Initial hematuria is characterized by blood at the beginning of the voiding cycle and often reflects a urethral source.

Total hematuria is characterized by blood during the entire voiding cycle and can reflect bleeding from anywhere in the urinary tract (eg, bladder, kidneys).

Terminal hematuria is characterized by blood at the end of voiding cycle and often suggests bleeding from the prostate, bladder neck or trigone, or posterior urethra.

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97
Q

BPH induced obstructive uropathy

A

This patient with lower urinary tract symptoms (eg, urinary frequency, nocturia, impaired flow) consistent with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) has a slowly rising creatinine level; urinalysis does not show evidence of albuminuria, hematuria, or pyuria, making intrinsic kidney disease less likely. This presentation raises suspicion for BPH-induced obstructive uropathy (eg, enlarged prostate, palpable bladder), which may result in permanent kidney damage due to blockage of free flow of urine.
With obstructive uropathy, a renal ultrasound examination (which should be performed in all patients being evaluated for creatinine elevation or chronic kidney disease) typically reveals hydronephrosis; it can also help assess the extent of kidney injury. If irreversible kidney damage (eg, cortical atrophy on sonogram due to increased pressure) has not yet occurred, management of BPH may improve creatinine levels.

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98
Q

Testicular pain, swelling, dysuria, frequency, urgency. Positive prehn sign, normal testicular lie, normal cremasteric reflex

A

Epididymitis

Normal prehn is relief of pain with testicular elevation
Localized tenderness to the posterior aspect of the testicle
Urinalysis may show pyuria
Dx based on H&P
Get a urinalysis & also get urine culture and testing for gonorrhea and chlamydia

Tx: >35 & low risk for STI = fluoroquinolone

<35 & high risk for STI = one time dose of ceftriaxone and a day 10 course of doxycycline to cover G&C. Don’t wait for cultures and results of STI to initiate treatment

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99
Q

Alport syndrome EM

A

Thinning and splitting of the glomerular basement membrane (“basket weave appearance”)

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100
Q

If you suspect ovarian torsion, NSIM?

A

Transvaginal doppler ultrasound

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101
Q

Hypertension, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis, low aldosterone, sometimes mild hypernatremia

A

Liddle syndrome

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102
Q

How would you manage a pediatric patient with symptomatic hypovolemic hypernatremia?

A

Isotonic fluid like 0.9% normal saline until patient is euvolemic

In asymptomatic patients give hypotonic solution

Once patients are euvolemic, hypotonic fluids (eg, 0.45% saline, 5% dextrose) can be given for ongoing hypernatremia

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103
Q

Most appropriate imaging to establish the diagnosis of nephrolithiasis?

A

CT abdomen and pelvis without contrast

For pregnant patients get US of the kidneys

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104
Q

How will metabolic acidosis superimposed on respiratory acidosis present?

A

Low pH and greater than compensated PCO2

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105
Q

Overdiuresis from excessive or chronic diuretic use is a common cause of

A

Metabolic alkalosis, producing a contraction alkalosis

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106
Q

Testicular torsion management

A

Manual detorsion then surgical intervention and orchipexy to prevent retorsion

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107
Q

Recent placement of IUD and patient is having pain with intercourse, intermittent vaginal spotting and feeling weak. Gram positive, non-acid fast bacteria. Treatment?

A

Penicillin G

Bacteria is Actinomyces israelii

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108
Q

Pheochromocytoma diagnosis

A

24 hour urinary fractionated metanephrine and catecholamine testing

Obtain a serum calcium level to assess for hypercalcemia

MEN2A: pheochromocytoma,primary hyperparathyroidism, medullary thyroid cancer

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109
Q

Red urine, had URI 2 weeks ago. What does light microscopy show

A

Mesangial proliferation

Patient has IgA nephropathy

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110
Q

Sexual assault protocol

A

Obtain thorough H&P
Obtain a sexual assault forensic exam (even if the patient already showered)

Management:
-Assess and treat and physical injuries
-Psychologic assessment and support
-Pregnancy prevention
-Treatment and prevention of STIs (NAA for G&C, trichomonas)
-Forensic evaluation

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111
Q

ADPKD frequently progresses to

A

End-stage kidney disease

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112
Q

How do surgeons assess ureteral injuries intraoperatively?

A

-Intravenous dye that colors the urine such as sodium fluorescein, indigo carmine, methylene blue

-Intravesical contrast (methylene blue)

-Intravesical fluid distension (mannitol)

-Preoperative oral phenazopyridine

-Cytoscopy

-Retrograde pyelography

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113
Q

Uric acid stone formation can be prevented by

A

Alkalinizing the urine with potassium citrate. Uric acid becomes soluble at an alkaline pH

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114
Q

Painless HSM, pancytopenia, diffuse infiltrative pulmonary disease

A

Gaucher

Deficiency of the enzyme glucocerebrosidase

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115
Q

Maternal polyhydramnios, premature delivery, polyuria, failure to thrive, severe hypokalemia, hypochloremia, metabolic alkalosis, normal BP

A

Bartter syndrome

Defective Na and Cl reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of the LoH

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116
Q

When to image for pyelo?

A

Persistent symptoms despite 48-72 hours of treatment.
The imaging (CT abdomen pelvis) will evaluate for potential complications such as renal abscess, perinephric abscess, and emphysematous pyelonephritis

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117
Q

How to treat type 4 RTA

A

Loop or thiazide diuretics

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118
Q

Osmotic demyelination syndrome may develop as a result of the rapid overcorrection of serum sodium. Serum sodium should be corrected no more than 6-8 mEq/L in any 24 hour period. Rapid correction of hyponatremia can be prevented by?

A

Administering desmopressin with initial treatment

If overcorrection is found, coadministration of desmopressin can help lower the serum sodium to reach the target threshold

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119
Q

A patient presenting with acute respiratory acidosis from hypoventilation leading to hypercarbic respiratory failure should be first managed with

A

Endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation to protect the airway and provide ventilatory assistance

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120
Q

Standard confirmatory test for diagnosing nephrotic syndrome is

A

24 hour urine protein measurement

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121
Q

If a patient had a granulosa cell tumor, which tumor marker would you use to monitor for disease recurrence?

A

Inhibin

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122
Q

Renal artery stenosis first diagnostic imaging

A

Renal artery doppler ultrasound

Renal artery angiogram is the gold standard however it is performed only if the initial imaging is inconclusive due to its invasive nature and potential risks, which include contrast-induced nephropathy, bleeding, infection and atheroembolic phenomena

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123
Q

Treatment of a chancroid from Haemophilus ducreyi

A

Single dose of oral azithromycin

Alternative treatment regimens: -Ceftriaxone single IM dose
-Erythromycin 3 times a day for 7 days
-Ciprofloxacin twice a day for 3 days

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124
Q

Treatment of Type 1 RTA

A

Sodium bicarbonate

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125
Q

Treatment of symptomatic primary hyperparathyroidism

A

Parathyroidectomy

In asymptomatic patients any one of the following are indications for parathyroidectomy:
1) renal function- impaired GFR < 60 mL/mi
2) osteoporosis- bone density consistent with osteoporosis (T-score < -2.5) or vertebral compression fracture
3) age- primary hyperparathyroidism in those age < 50 yo
4) calcium level- serum concentration of calcium > 1 mg/dL above the upper limit of normal

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126
Q

Papillary thyroid cancer diagnosis

A

TSH: normal or high

Ultrasound: hypo echoic thyroid mass, microcalcifications, extracapsular extension

Fine needle aspiration

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127
Q

Primary hyperparathyroidism ddx
Graves
Toxic multi nodular goiter
Subacute thyroiditis
Subclinical hyperthyroidism
Thyrotoxicosis

A

Graves: orbitopathy, hyperthyroidism, diffuse thyroid enlargement

Toxic multi nodular goiter: discrete thyroid nodules, hyperthyroidism

Subacute thyroiditis: painful thyroid, hyperthyroidism (signs and sx of hyperthyroidism and a very tender thyroid gland, typically occurs after a viral infection, radioactive iodine scan will show reduced uptake)

Subclinical hyperthyroidism: asymptomatic

Thyrotoxicosis: hyperthyroidism, usually normal thyroid examination

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128
Q

What is myxedema coma (or crisis) and how will you treat it?

A

Severe hypothyroidism leading to decreased mental status and hypothermia.
It also produces other abnormalities like macroglossia, hypothermia, hypotension, bradycardia, hypoventilation, hyponatremia and hypoglycemia.
Will have high TSH, low free T3 and T4

Initial treatment consists of thyroid hormone (levothyroxine and liothyronine) replacement. Glucocorticoids are often administered as well because of the possibility of concomitant adrenal insufficiency

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129
Q

Chronic deficiency of vitamin B1 (thiamine) can lead to

A

Wet beriberi characterized by dilated high-output cardiomyopathy

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130
Q

Which insulin is long-acting?

A

Glargine insulin
Onset of 1-4 hours
Duration of approx 24 hours

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131
Q

How to diagnose diabetes

A

-HbA1c > 6.5%*
-Fasting plasma glucose > 126 mg/dL*
-Two-hour plasma glucose >200 mg/dl following a 75-gram oral glucose tolerance test*
-Random plasma glucose > 200 mg/dL in a patient with classic symptoms of hyperglycemia or hyperglycemic crisis

  • = need two tests with values in the diabetic range to dx diabetes

-Use insulin as first-line in patients with A1c > 10%

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132
Q

What is autonomic neuropathy

A

Common finding in individuals with long-standing and poorly controlled diabetes, resulting in impaired sympathetic nervous system reflexes and orthostatic hypotension resulting in syncope

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133
Q

Which diabetes drugs cause weight gain

A

Sufonylureas (eg, glyburide) which increase insulin release from pancreatic beta cells by closing potassium channels in the plasma membrane of these cells

Meglitinides (eg, repaglinide) which block ATP-dependent potassium channels promoting insulin release from pancreatic beta cells

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134
Q

C peptide levels with exogenous insulin

A

Proinsulin and c-peptide levels are low
Plasma insulin will be high

C-peptide levels will be elevated with sulfonylureas

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135
Q

Factitious hypoglycemia can be caused by the surreptitious use of

A

exogenous insulin or secretagogues (most commonly sulfonylureas)

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136
Q

Exogenous secretion of insulin (eg, insulinoma) labs

A

Increased plasma insulin, plasma c-peptide and plasma proinsulin

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137
Q

Exogenous administration of insulin labs

A

Increased plasma insulin
Decreased plasma c-peptide and plasma proinsulin

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138
Q

Exogenous ingestion of oral hypoglycemic agent (insulin secretagogues) labs

A

Increased plasma insulin, plasma c-peptide, plasma pro-insulin and insulin secretagogue

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139
Q

Patient has painless jaundice, palpable, contender gallbladder. what is the strong risk factor for the most likely diagnosis

A

Cigarette smoking

Patient most likely has pancreatic cancer

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140
Q

Young patients with newly-diagnosed T1D should monitor their blood glucose at least

A

3 times daily

Glucose should be monitored before each insulin dose, usually at least 4 times daily (once before each of 3 meals and once before the administration of long-acting insulin0

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141
Q

What is euthyroid hyperthyroxinemia

A

Condition in which the serum total thyroxine is abnormal without evidence of thyroid disease (normal TSH)
Will have increased TBG and free T4. Normal TSH and total T3

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142
Q

DKA treatment

A

If potassium level is:
> 5.2 –> IV insulin + isotonic fluids

> 3.3 and < 5.2 –> IV insulin + IV fluids with added K+

< 3.3 –> IV fluids + K+, hold insulin until K+ > 3.3 to prevent fatal cardiac arrhythmia from total body hypokalemia

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143
Q

MEN 1

A

MEN 1 mutation
Pituitary adenoma
Parathyroid hyperplasia
Pancreatic islet cell tumors (gastrinoma)
Prolactinoma

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144
Q

MEN 2A

A

RET oncogene
Parathyroid hyperplasia
Pheochromocytoma
Medullary thyroid carcinoma

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145
Q

MEN 2B

A

RET oncogene
Pheochromocytoma
Medullary thyroid carcinoma
Marfanoid body habitus
Mucosal neuromas

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146
Q

Medullary thyroid carcinoma

A

The malignancy is characterized by extracellular amyloid composed of calcitonin from thyroid parafollicular cells

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147
Q

55 yo female with a 1 month history of impaired temporal vision bilaterally, increase in headaches, trouble sleeping and awakening at night gasping for air. BP 140/90. PE shows widened gaps between her teeth without evidence of gingivitis. The most appropriate test to order is

A

Insulin-like growth factor one (IGF-1) to screen for acromegaly

The patient likely has acromegaly with a mass effect from a pituitary tumor

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148
Q

If hypercortisolism is found on labs then order

A

ACTH to differentiate ACTH-dependent vs independent causes of Cushing syndrome

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149
Q

Abdominal pain, hypotension, hypokalemia

A

Adrenal crisis

Suspect adrenal crisis due to steroid withdrawal in post-op patients who suddenly develop hypotension, shock and hyperkalemia. Immediate treatment with corticosteroids should be instituted if adrenal crisis is suspected, even if it has not been confirmed

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150
Q

In pregnant patients with thyroid storm, which medication will you give

A

Propylthiouracil in the first trimester due to potential teratogenicity of methimazole (aplasia cutis)

Methimazole in the second and third trimesters and in non-pregnant patients due to risk of hepatotoxicity with PTU

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151
Q

15 yo with high BP on 2 separate visits, taking topic acne medication, tanner stage 1 female, minimal body hair. What’s the treatment given the most likely diagnosis

A

Start spironolactone

Patient has 17-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency which can present with hypertension and delayed puberty (primary amenorrhea, minimal body hair, absence of secondary sexual characteristics) in females

Labs: low cortisol and androgens, elevated ACTH and 11-deoxycortisone

Management involves spironolactone to block the effects of excessive aldosterone production and a glucocorticoid to treat inadequate cortisol production

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152
Q

Insulin adjustments

A

Basal insulin is adjusted for preprandial glucose levels

Bolus insulin is adjusted for postprandial levels

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153
Q

How to prevent diabetic foot ulcers

A

Control blood glucose levels

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154
Q

Physicians who believe a colleague has committed negligence should report the event through the

A

appropriate hospital protocols

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155
Q

Tumor markers:

Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
Cancer antigen (CA19-9)
Cancer antigen (CA125)
Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
Calcitonin

A

Prostate-specific antigen (PSA): prostate

Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): colon

Cancer antigen (CA19-9): pancreatic

Cancer antigen (CA125): ovarian

Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP): hepatocellular or germ cell

Calcitonin: medullary thyroid

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156
Q

What is autoimmune adrenalitis

A

Primary adrenal insuffiiciency is MC caused by autoimmune adrenalitis and can present with symptoms of fatigue, anorexia, and decreased libido that may mimic psychiatric diagnoses such as MDD or adjustment disorder. Other findings that strongly suggest PAI over psychiatric diagnoses is hypotension, hyperpigmentation, hypoglycemia, and/or electrolyte abnormalities

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157
Q

If parents refuse essential medical treatment for their child despite careful explanation, the physician should

A

seek a court order to allow for treatment of a child

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158
Q

Fever, tachycardia, hypotension, warm moist skin and history of 12 kg weight loss (right before surgery) after her cholecystectomy

A

Thyroid storm
An acute event such as surgery can precipitate thyroid storm in patients with untreated or poorly controlled hyperthyroidism. Immediate treatment for patients with thyroid storm includes thionamides (PTU or methimazole), beta-blockers (propranolol) and glucocorticoids (hydrocortisone)
Iodine should be given >1 hour after the first dose of thionamide is taken
This reduces the risk of iodine producing new thyroid hormone instead of preventing the release of thyroid hormone

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159
Q

In patients undergoing thyroid surgery, particularly patients with decreased bone density or conditions predisposing to decreased bone density, such ass a prior history of gastric bypass surgery, it is important to

A

take extra care to identify and preserve the parathyroid tissue during thyroid surgery
Serum calcium levels, as well as symptoms of hypocalcemia should be closely monitored after thyroidectomy

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160
Q

Treatment of lithium induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

A

Amiloride which blocks epithelial sodium channels in principal cells and thereby prevents lithium from entering these cells

Lithium can cause nephrogenic DI by entering principal cells of the collecting ducts to interfere with aquaporin-2 water channels

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161
Q

Menopausal patient who wants to start estrogen but has a history of hypothyroidism and is taking levothyroxine

A

Increase levothyroxine dose

This patient has common symptoms of menopause, including insomnia, vasomotor symptoms (eg, hot flashes), and mood swings. In the absence of contraindications (eg, history of breast cancer, tobacco use), first-line treatment for severe menopausal vasomotor symptoms is oral estrogen-based hormone therapy.
However, estrogen has notable effects on thyroid metabolism. More than 99% of circulating thyroid hormone is bound to plasma proteins, primarily thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG). Estrogen upregulates the production of TBG in the liver; an increase in estrogen activity (eg, pregnancy, oral contraceptive use, menopausal hormone therapy) raises circulating TBG levels, causing a corresponding reduction in free T4 and T3 levels (Choice C).
In patients with a normal hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis, lower free thyroid hormone levels trigger a transient increase in TSH release, leading to increased thyroid hormone production until the additional TBG becomes saturated with thyroid hormone and free hormone levels are restored. However, patients with hypothyroidism are dependent on exogenous thyroid hormone and are unable to increase production to compensate for the increased TBG. Therefore, patients on thyroid replacement therapy who are prescribed oral estrogens require a compensatory adjustment in levothyroxine dose.

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162
Q

Labs for PAI

A

High renin, low aldosterone

Hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia, lower DHEA-s, non-gap metabolic acidosis

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163
Q

Hypocalcemia EKG

A

Prolongation of the QT interval

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164
Q

Panhypopituitarism will lead to decreased

A

ACTH, TSH, LH, FSH, prolactin, GH

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165
Q

HHS will have normal

A

serum beta hydroxybutyrate

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166
Q

Clitoromegaly, partially fused labia, hyponatremia, hypoglycemia, normal uterus and ovaries

A

21-hydroxylase deficiency deficiency

Tx: correction of electrolyte abnormalities, supplement with glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids to prevent adrenal crisis

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167
Q

In subacute thyroiditis (de Quervain) some patients become

A

hypothyroid before they recover

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168
Q

Give _ with isoniazid to prevent

A

pyridoxine (B6)

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169
Q

Nausea, vomiting, epigastric abdominal pain, early satiety, bloating, weight loss, labile glucose (DM), epigastric dissension & succession splash dx and tx?

A

Gastroparesis

Causes:
-DM (autonomic neuropathy)
-Medications (eg, opioids, anticholinergic drugs)
-Traumatic/postsurgical injury (ie, vagus nerve injury)
-Neurologic (eg, multiple sclerosis, spinal cord injury)
-Idiopathic/postviral

Diagnosis:
-Exclude obstruction with upper endoscopy +/- CT/MR enterography
-Upper endoscopy may reveal food in the stomach despite an overnight fast
-Assess motility with nuclear gastric-emptying study

Treatment
-Frequent small meals (low fat, soluble fiber only)
-Promotility drugs (eg, metoclopramide, erythromycin)
-Gastric electrical stimulation and/or jejunal feeding tube (refractory symptoms)

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170
Q

How will central precocious puberty present and why does it occur

A

Results from early activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal (HPG) axis. Pulsatile GnRH secretion stimulates elevated FSH and LH levels
Patients with true precocious puberty will have increased estrogen/testosterone levels that accelerate skeletal maturation, resulting in advanced bone age and increased growth velocity

Patient will have onset of secondary sexual characteristics in girls age <8 and boys age <9

Require MRI brain to evaluate for a hypothalamic or pituitary tumor activating the HPG axis
If negative, the cause is most likely idiopathic precocious puberty and GnRH therapy can be initiated- it desensitizes the pituitary and suppresses FSH and LH secretion to slow pubertal progression and maximize height potential

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171
Q

How will peripheral precocious puberty present and what causes it

A

Caused by gonadal or adrenal release of excess sex hormones
Basal levels of FSH and LH are typically low due to negative feedback and remain low following GnRH agonist stimulation

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172
Q

Secondary adrenal insufficiency labs

A

Low cortisol and ACTH
Normal aldosterone

Mechanism: disruption of HP axis

Etiologies: chronic glucocorticoid therapy, infiltrative disease, ischemia of the anterior pituitary

Will present with less severe symptoms, euvolemia, minimal electrolyte disturbance, no hyperpigmentation. Potassium is normal

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173
Q

Primary adrenal insufficiency

A

Low cortisol and aldosterone
High ACTH

Mechanism: destruction of bilateral adrenal cortex

Etiologies: autoimmune adrenalitis, infection, malignancy

Etiologies: more severe symptoms, hypovolemia, hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, hyperpigmentation

Treat with glucocorticoids (eg, hydrocortisone, prednisone) and mineralocorticoids (eg, fludrocortisone)

Adrenal crisis give hydrocortisone or dexamethasone and rapid IV volume repletion

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174
Q

Patients with chronic kidney disease are at an increased risk of hypoglycemia due t

A

delayed clearance of insulin by the kidneys

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175
Q

Labs in celiac

A

Low calcium and phosphate
High PTH

Because of vitamin D deficiency and secondary hyperparathyroidism

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176
Q

Causes of male secondary hypogonadism

A

Pituitary tumors, hyperprolactinemia, medications like opioids, glucocorticoids, exogenous androgens (withdrawal phase), infiltrative disease (eg, hemochromatosis), chronic/severe illness, eating disorders, severe weight loss

Clinical feature care fatigue, decreased libido, testicular atrophy, will have low testosterone and low/normal LH

Primary will have gynecomastia

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177
Q

Glucagonoma

A

Weight loss, necrolytic migratory erythema (erythematous papule that coalesce to form large, indurated plaques with central clearing), DM/hyperglycemia, GI symptoms like diarrhea, anorexia, abdominal pain

Diagnosis: markedly elevated glucagon level, abdominal imaging (MRI or CT scan)

178
Q

Cardiovascular effects of thyrotoxicosis

A

Sinus tachycardia, premature atrial and ventricular complexes, atrial fibrillation/flutter, systolic hypertension and increased pulse pressure, increased contractility and cardiac output, decreased systemic vascular resistance, increased myocardial oxygen demand, high output heart failure, exacerbation of preexisting low-output failure, coronary vasospasm, preexisting coronary atherosclerosis

179
Q

Vitamin D deficiency in children

A

Labs:
Low 25-hydroxyvitamin D, urine calcium, phosphorus
Elevated alkaline phosphatase, PTH Low/normal calcium

Clinical manifestations
Decreased muscle tone & delayed development
Delayed fontanelle closure, frontal bossing
Widening of epiphyses
Hypertrophy of costochondral joints
Short stature, femoral & tibial bowing

180
Q

Thyroid storm

A

Occurs in patients with undiagnosed or inadequately treated hyperthyroidism

Caused by rapid increase in serum thyroid hormone levels or increased sensitivity to thyroid hormone

-Thyroid or nonthyroidal surgery
-Acute illness (eg, trauma, infection), childbirth
-Acute iodine load (eg, iodine contrast)

-Fever as high as 40-41.1 C (104-106 F)
-Tachycardia, hypertension, congestive heart failure, cardiac arrhythmias (eg, atrial fibrillation)
-Agitation, delirium, seizure, coma
-Goiter, lid lag, tremor, warm & moist skin
-Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, jaundice

-β blocker (eg, propranolol) to ↓ adrenergic manifestations
-PTU followed by iodine solution (SSKI) to ↓ hormone synthesis & release (give iodine at least 1 hour after PTU to prevent excess iodine incorporation into thyroid hormone)
-Glucocorticoids (eg, hydrocortisone) to ↓ peripheral T4 to T3 conversion & improve vasomotor stability
-Identify trigger & treat, supportive care

181
Q

Long term side effect of methimazole

A

Severe neutropenia

182
Q

VIPoma

A

Watery diarrhea
Hypo- or achlorhydria due to decreased gastric acid secretion
Associated flushing, lethargy, nausea, vomiting, muscle weakness/cramps

Labs: hypokalemia, hypercalcemia, hyperglycemia, stool studies show secretory diarrhea with increased sodium and osmolal gap <50

CT or MRI scan of the abdomen to localize the tumor in pancreas (usually in pancreatic tail)

183
Q

Laboratory evaluation for hypertension

A

-Serum electrolytes
-Serum creatinine
-Urinalysis
-Urine albumin/creatinine ratio (optional)
-Fasting glucose or hemoglobin A1c
-Lipid profile
-TSH
-ECG
-Echo (optional)
-CBC
-Uric acid (optional)

184
Q

Reason for treating 7mm hyperprolactinemia

A

to prevent bone loss

Prolactin suppresses GnRH in the hypothalamus leading to decreased FSH and LH so decreased estrogen.. you need estrogen to build bone

185
Q

To assess diabetic patients risk for foot ulcers use

A

monofilament testing

186
Q

Euthyroid sick syndrome T3, T4 and TSH levels

A

Early/mild
T3- decreased
T4- normal
TSH- normal

Prolonged/severe
T3- decreased
T4- decreased
TSH- decreased

187
Q

how do you know treatment is working in someone with DKA?

A

serum anion gap

188
Q

Cardiovascular features in acromegaly

A

Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy, cardiomyopathy, heart failure

189
Q

Osteomalacia labs

A

Increased alkaline phosphatase, PTh
Decreased serum calcium and phosphorus, urinary calcium, 25(OH)D levels

190
Q

Conditions that increase thyroid binding globulin

A

Estrogens (eg, pregnancy, OCs, HRT) & estrogenic medications (eg, tamoxifen), acute hepatitis

191
Q

Rapid eye movement (REM) behavior disorder (RBD) is a risk factor for

A

Parkinson disease

192
Q

PCOS treatment to regulate cycles

A

OCPs
Letrozole for ovulation induction

193
Q

Effect of intensive glycemic control in T2D

A

Microvascular complications (eg, nephropathy, retinopathy)- improves

Macrovascular complications (eg, acute MI, stroke)- no change (short-term)

Mortality- no change or increased

194
Q

Which thyroid nodules do you biopsy with FNA

A

Hypofunctioning (“cold”) nodules

195
Q

X-linked (Bruton) agammaglobulinemia

A

Defect in Btk (Bruton agammaglobulinemia tyrosine kinase) which results in impaired B lymphocyte maturation and decreased levels of immunoglobulins of all classes. Patients present after age 6 months with recurrent sinopulmonary and gastrointestinal infections

196
Q

Laryngotracheobronchitis

A

Croup (parainfluenza MC, RSV, influenza, adenovirus)
Inspiratory stridor, barking cough
Children 6 months-3 years
Low grade fever
Steeple sign
Mild cases treat with cool mist therapy and rest and moderate to severe cases are treated with immediate nebulizer racemic epinephrine to open the airway and oral/intramuscular/intravenous dexamethasone to reduce swelling
Hospitalization may be required for serial racemic epinephrine treatments and supplemental oxygen
*moderate to severe is defined as presence of stridor at rest

197
Q

Epiglottitis

A

Toxic looking, drooling
High fever
Thumbprint sign

198
Q

Retropharyngeal abscess

A

Soft tissue swelling posterior to the pharynx
Toxic, drooling
Hot potato voice
High fever

199
Q

Bacterial tracheitis

A

Expiratory stridor
Prolonged prodromal phase, followed by acute decompensation over a period of hours
3 months-2 years
Subglottic narrowing

200
Q

Active TB treatment

A

4 months of RIPE (rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol)
2 months of isoniazid and rifampin

201
Q

Latent TB treatment

A

4 months of rifampin

202
Q

TB drugs SE

A

RIPE
ONGO

Rifampin- orange urine
Isoniazid-
Pyrazinamide

203
Q

Respiratory isolation

A

TB
Measles
Chickenpox
COVID-19
Disseminated herpes zoster

204
Q

Patient had blunt force chest trauma and had multiple bruises on chest and crepitus. Decreased breath sounds on the left. A tube was placed which produced loud expulsion of air and stabilization of vitals. Over next few hours patients oxygen sat decreases. Repeat exam shows decreased breath sounds on the left and repeat radiograph shows subcutaneous emphysema, reaccumulation of air in the right pleural space and pneumomediastum. What is the diagnosis

A

Tracheobronchial injury (eg, bronchial rupture)

suspect when a patient has a persistent pneumothorax and/or pneumomediastinum despite tube thoracostomy (chest tube)

Diagnose with bronchoscopy

Manage with surgical repair

205
Q

Dyspnea ddx

A

Palpitations + tachycardia = arrhythmia

Chest pain + hypotension = myocardial infarction

Productive cough + fever = pneumonia

Chest pain + tachycardia = pulmonary embolism

206
Q

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

A

Usually occurs in the setting of sepsis or another serious acute medical condition. Characterized by diffuse activation of the coagulation system leading to consumptive coagulopathy and subsequent spontaneous bleeding

Labs are low platelet and fibrinogen level, elevated PT, aPTT and D-dimer and evidence of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (low hemoglobin/hematocrit, schistocytes, helmet cells on blood smears)

PIC

207
Q

Vasovagal syncope

A

aka neurocardiogenic syncope
MC cause of syncope among adults, especially in those without apparent cardiovascular or neurologic disease.
Pathophysiology is thought to be related to a temporary and self-limited symptomatic hypotension mediated by decreased sympathetic tone resulting in bradycardia or peripheral vasodilation. Occurs while sitting or standing since supine position maintains cerebral perfusion. Younger patients are more likely to have the classic triggers such as emotional or orthostatic stress, painful stimulus, prolonged standing or physical exertion

208
Q

Rule out these life-threatening causes of syncope prior to diagnosis of vasovagal episode

A

Arrhythmia: v tach, long QT syndrome, Brugada syndrome, sinus arrhythmias

Ischemia: acute coronary syndrome, myocardial infarction

Structural abnormalities: valvular disease, cardiomyopathy, atrial myxoma, tamponade, dissection

Hemorrhage: trauma, GI bleeding or other source of bleeding

Pulmonary embolism

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

209
Q

Treatment for ST elevation myocardial infarction with acute right ventricular infarction includes

A

Isotonic IV fluids (to increase preload and cardiac output)

Aspirin therapy

Emergent cardiac catheterization (to decrease mortality and allow for revascularization)

No preload reducers like furosemide or nitrates because they can further reduce CO

Hypotension and JVD that worsen with inhalation (Kussmaul sign) are signs of RV infarction

210
Q

Sinus bradycardia (resting HR < 60/min) is common in patients treated with the medications that affect the SA or AV nodes. These include

A

ABCD

Adenosine

Beta blockers (B1)

Calcium channel blocks (non-DHP- verapamil and diltiazem)

Digoxin

211
Q

Anemia (dyspnea on exertion, fatigue, orthostasis), conjunctival pallor, lymphocytosis, splenomegaly, lymphadenopathy and mild tachycardia

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

MC in older men, often found incidentally.
Immunophenotypic analysis with flow cytometryis the key diagnostic component. Will see smudge cells on peripheral smear

212
Q

Mitral valve stenosis is a risk factor for atrial fibrillation which can result in complications such as

A

Cardioembolic disease (eg, stroke, acute mesenteric ischemia) and acute decompensated heart failure

213
Q

CHADVASc

214
Q

Amyloidosis

A

Multisystem disease that often presents with cardiac, GI, hematologic and renal manifestations. It is a form of restrictive cardiomyopathy that primarily presents with signs of right heart failure. Echo will reveal concentric LVH, left atrial enlargement and preserved ejection fraction

215
Q

Aortic stenosis

A

Syncope, exertion angina, exertional dyspnea

Pulsus parvus et tardus - low volume and slow rising pulse

216
Q

Risk factors for vasospastic angina (Prinzmetal angina)

A

Cocaine use, sumatriptan, and smoking

Presents as intermittent chest pain with ST segment elevation when symptomatic and normal ECG when asymptomatic

First line tx is with diltiazem or amlodipine

217
Q

Hemorrhagic shock

A

Decreased cardiac index and central venous pressure
Increased systemic vascular resistance
Normal to low pulmonary artery and pulmonary capillary wedge pressures

Examination may reveal hypotension, tachycardia, narrow pulse pressure and extremities that are cool and pale

218
Q

Initial treatment of toxic shock syndrome

A

IV fluids when hemodynamic compromise is present

PIC

219
Q

Metoprolol side effects

A

Metabolic side effects including weight gain, dyslipidemia and impaired glucose tolerance (leading to type 2 diabetes mellitus)

220
Q

In patients who have undergone percutaneous coronary intervention with new or chronic atrial fibrillation, the most recent guidelines recommend

A

double therapy with a P2Y12 inhibitor (eg, clopidogrel) to prevent stent thrombosis and a direct oral anticoagulant (eg, rivaroxaban) for embolic stroke prophylaxis

221
Q

Sideroblastic anemia

A

Microcytic anemia, elevated serum iron, ferritin and transferrin saturation and a low TIBC

Isoniazid can interfere with pyridoxine (vitamin B6) metabolism, leading to a functional pyridoxine deficiency. This can result in impaired heme synthesis, presenting as sideroblastic, microcytic anemia

222
Q

What to do if patient has signs of hypertensive disease despite a normal BP examination in the office

A

Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring

223
Q

Medications tha cause Htn

A

Venlafaxine
Fluoxetine
TCAss
Caffeine
Decongestants like pseudoephedrine and phenylephrine
Herbal supplements like licorice and St. John’s wort
Hormonal birth control OCPs
NSAIDs
Stimulants

224
Q

What med to add on to someone on one HTN medication and still needs BP lower

A

DHP-CCB like amlodipine

225
Q

Tx for resistant hypertension secondary to renal artery stenosis

A

RAS is most commonly caused by atherosclerosis
Once BP is controlled in RAS, preventative measures 9eg, an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor, smoking cessation, low-dose aspirin) should be initiated to prevent further cardiovascular disease

226
Q

For hemodynamically unstable patients with SVT

A

Urgent cardioversion

For patients with SVT that is not associated with sevre symptoms or hemodynamic collapse:
1. Vagal maneuvers
2. IV adenosine
3. IV non-DHP CCB or IV BB
4. Cardioversion in selected persistent cases or if the patient is unstable

227
Q

What to do with a patient with STEMI or new LBBB in the setting of chest pain at a hospital with no PCI capabilities

A

Patients should be transferred to a nearby hospital for definitive management, as long as their initial evaluation-to-balloon time is within 90 minutes

228
Q

Patients with infectious mononucleosis are at risk for

A

Splenic rupture secondary to splenomegaly caused by leukocyte infiltration

Patients should avoid contact sports for at least 4 weeks and avoid vigorous exercise for 21 days from the onset of symptoms

229
Q

First line therapy for HTN in patients with evidence of proteinuria or CKD

A

ACE-I (regardless of ethnicity)

230
Q

What to do when a pulmonary nodule is incidentally seen on chest radiograph

A
  1. make a comparison with prior radiographs (if available)
  2. If prior radiographs are not available or if the nodule is new, a CT of the chest should be obtained
231
Q

Test for mitral regurgitation

A

TTE is typically initial test of choice

TEE provides better diagnostic accuracy and can be performed initially in certain clinical situations and in patients with prosthetic heart valves

232
Q

CML

A

BCR-ABL
philadelphia chromosome abnormal chromosome 22
t(9;22)
Tx with tyrosine kinase inhibitors like imatinib

233
Q

Transfusion

A

One unit of packed RBC increases the hemoglobin level by 1 g/dl and the hematocrit by 3%. The recommended transfusion hemoglobin threshold is <7 g/dL

So if a patients hgb is 4 then give them 3 units of packed RBC

234
Q

What to give patient with BB overdose

A

glucagon or atropine

235
Q

Medication contraindicated in vasospastic angina

A

Nonselective beta-blockers like propranolol because they can worsen vasoconstriction through unopposed alpha-1 activity. Vasospastic angina should be treated with CCB and nitrates

236
Q

Autoimmune metaplastic atrophic gastritis (AMAG) causes

A

vitamin B12 deficiency

237
Q

WPW

A

Short PR interval
Delta wave
Prolonged QRS

Patients who have uncertain diagnosis based on ECG and other noninvasive testing need to undergo electrophysiology study

238
Q

Succinylcholine

A

Paralytic
AE include hyperkalemia, hypercalcemia and malignant hyperthermia

239
Q

The most common sequela of heparin induced thrombocytopenia

A

Venous thrombosis (not arterial)

240
Q

Treatment choice for renal artery stenosis secondary to fibromuscular dysplasia

A

Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty

241
Q

Most harvested arteries for coronary artery bypass graft surgery are the

A

internal mammary arteries and these arteries arise from the anterior surface of the subclavian arteries

242
Q

Persistent tachycardia and new arrhythmia (eg, premature ventricular contractions) after blunt chest trauma are concerning for blunt cardiac injury. Patients with these findings are admitted for

A

Continuous cardiac monitoring and echo

Patients with ECG abnormalities and/or elevated troponin –> admit for continuous cardiac monitoring

243
Q

V tach

A

Cardioversion used if pulse is palpable
Defibrillation is used if a pulse is not palpable

244
Q

Superior vena cava syndrome

A

First step after securing the airway is end-vascular treatment with or without stent placement

Presents ass SOB, cough, facial plethora, headache, respiratory distress with stridor, Pembertons sign (face becoming erythematous when bringing arms up to face)

Non small cell carcinoma followed by small cell carcinoma along with non-hodgkin’s lymphoma is the most common malignancies causing SVC compression

245
Q

Patient with 4mm painful mass under his axilla. He has experienced lumps like this before but not as large as this one. The lumps would leak pus and go away on their own. What is the most appropriate management?

A

Incision and drainage along with antibiotics

Patient has a cutaneous abscess- presents as a painful, fluctuant nodule with surrounding erythema

246
Q

Necrotizing enterocolitis

A

Abdominal distension and tenderness, rectal bleeding and/or diarrhea, vomiting and lethargy. It produces the pathognomonic sign of bowel wall gas (pneumatosis intestinalis) on abdominal x-ray

247
Q

Weakness of external rotation of the arm against resistance is most likely caused by teres minor or infraspinatus muscle dysfunction. These nerves supply these muscles a

A

Infraspinatus- suprascapular nerve

Teres minor- axillary nerve

These muscles are commonly torn in pitchers

248
Q

Severe eyelid swelling, profuse purulent discharge and chemosis (conjunctival edema) in a newborn first 2-5 days of life

A

Gonococcal conjunctivitis

Diagnosis is with positive culture on Thayer-Martin agar (gold standard)

Treatment is with a single intramuscular dose of a 3rd generation cephalosporin such as cefotaxime

This condition can be prevented with appropriate maternal screening (and treatment of any maternal infection) plus topical erythromycin prophylaxis for all infants

249
Q

Local anesthetic toxicity presentation

A

Tinnitus, metallic taste, perioral numbness, tachycardia and hypertension. Many patients can develop seizures and/or life threatening cardiovascular collapse

Management consists of immediate drug cessation, lipid emulsion rescue therapy, supportive care and treatment with benzodiazepines for seizure control

250
Q

Drugs that cause hyperkalemia

A

TMP-SMX, ACE-I, NSAID

251
Q

Neutrophilic inflammation is associated with

Lymphocytic inflammation is associated with

A

Bacterial infections

Viral and fungal infections

252
Q

Gold standard for the diagnosis of nephrolithiasis is

A

CT abdomen without contrast (won’t be able to see the stone with contrast)

Renal ultrasound in pregnant patients

253
Q

Loss of balance, loss of vibratory sensation, decreased proprioception, scoliosis, high plantar arches

A

Fredreich ataxia

Progressive degenerative disease affecting the dorsal columns and sspinocerebellar tract

Repeats of GAA lead to disruption of the frataxin gene on chromosome 9; frataxin regulates iron chaperoning and detoxicfation

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a common complication and the most common cause of death in these patients

254
Q

Airborne isolation precautions

A

-COVID-19
-Measles
-Tuberculosis
-Varicella

255
Q

Contact isolation precautions

A

-Colonization with multidrug-resistant organisms (eg, methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus)
-Enteric infections (eg, E. coli O157:H7, C. diff)
-Parasitic infections
-Viral respiratory infections (eg, respiratory syncytial virus, COVID-19, influenza)

256
Q

Droplet isolation precautions

A

-Adenovirus
-Bacterial meningitis
-Influenza
-Mycoplasma pneumoniae

257
Q

Neutropenic isolation precautions

A

Immunosuppressed patients

258
Q

Transudative ascites with SAAG > 1.1 g/dL

A

-Cirrhosis
-Alcoholic hepatitis
-Heart failure
-Budd-Chiari syndrome
-Portal vein thrombosis
-Tamponade

259
Q

Exudative ascites with SAAG < 1.1 g/dL

A

-Pancreatitis
-Serositis
-Nephrotic syndrome
-Peritoneal tuberculosis
-Peritoneal carcinomatosis

260
Q

Indications for initiating antibiotics in patients with ascites

A

-Temperature > 37.8 or 100F
-Abdominal pain and/or tenderness
-Altered mental status
-Polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs) count > 250 cells/mm3

Treat with 3rd gen cephalosporin like cefotaxime

261
Q

When should spontaneous bacterial peritonitis be suspected

A

Patients with ascites, fever, abdominal pain, altered mental status and/or polymorphonuclear leukocytes >250 cells/mm3

Treat with 3rd gen cephalosporin

262
Q

Posterior cerebral artery infarct

A

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia (inability to see half of the visual field on the opposite side of the lesion)
Cortical blindness (occipital lobe) and/or memory deficits and behavior changes (temp

PCA supplies the occipital and medial temporal lobe

263
Q

Lacunar stroke

A

Pure motor symptoms but also be purely sensory or cause ataxic hemiparesis

264
Q

Middle cerebral artery occlusion

A

Face and arms
Contralateral hemiparesis, paresthesia and hemianopia (blindness in half of the visual field) and preference of gaze toward the side of the lesion
Agnosia (inability to name objects) may also be seen

265
Q

Lateral medullary (Wallenburg) syndrome

A

Occlusion of PICA
Hoarseness, dysphagia, vertigo, ipsilateral ataxia, dysmetria, horner syndrome, loss of pain and temperature sensation on the ipsilateral face and contralateral body

MC cause of PICA infarct is a vertebral artery dissection

266
Q

Malignant hyperthermia crises are life-threatening conditions caused by uncontrolled release of

A

calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle cells this leads to excessive accumulation of calcium ions within the intracellular space of these cells, resulting in sustained muscle contraction and hyper metabolism

Tx with dantrolene

267
Q

Distal biceps tendon rupture

A

Confirmed with ultrasound or MRI but MRI allows for optimal detailed visualization of soft tissue structures and can determine partial vs. complete tears as well as the degree of retraction, which is useful information for surgical repair

268
Q

Upper GI bleed management

A

NPO
IV fluid administration
IV PPIs

PIC

269
Q

Treating endometrial hyperplasia without atypic

A

Progestin therapy or hysterectomy

with atypia or endometrial cancer then hysterectomy

270
Q

Plantar fasciitis initial therapy

A

Rest, ice and strengthening and stretching exercises

If symptoms persist, professional orthotics or OtC arch support soles can be recommended

Glucocorticoid injections may be used for refractory pain and surgery may be considered be pts who do not respond to conservative therapy

271
Q

HOCM

A

Increased left ventricular wall thickness and asymmetric septal hypertrophy

TTE

272
Q

Timeline for brief psychotic disorder, schizophreniform disorder and schizophrenia

A

Brief psychotic disorder: >1 day and < 1 month (no negative symptoms part of diagnostic criteria)

Schizophreniform disorder: > 1 month and < 6 months

Schizophrenia: > 6 months

272
Q

Schizoaffective vs mood disorder with psychotic features

A

Schizoaffective = major mood episode (depressive episode or manic) + criterion A symptoms of schizophrenia

Mood disorder with psychotic features =

273
Q

Opioid overdose

A

reduces central respiratory drive causing hypoventilation and acute respiratory acid

274
Q

Insomnia caused by MDD treatment

A

SSRIs

like citalopram

Mirtazpine

275
Q

Treatment for benzodiazepines withdrawal

A

Lorazepam

Antipsychotics lower the seizure threshold and should not be used to treat psychosis that occurs secondary to benzodiazepine withdrawal

276
Q

Cluster A personality disorders

A

Paranoid: holding grudges, suspicions of others true motives, resistance in confiding in others, and fidelity or loyalty. Quick to interpret benign remarks as demeaning

Schizoid: detached from relationships, restricted range of emotional expression

Schizotypal: magical thinking, odd or eccentric appearance, social and interpersonal deficits

277
Q

Cluster B personality disorders

A

Antisocial: belief of inadequacy that interferes with interpersonal relationships and prevents engaging in a new relationship, social situation or activity, disregard and violation of the rights of others, lack of remorse and empathy

Borderline: mood changes are abrupt (within hours), usually triggered by a stressor. Fear of abandonment and nonsuicidal self-harming injuries

Histrionic: excessive emotionality, attention seeking behavior

Narcissistic: sense of grandiosity, need for admiration, jealousy of others

278
Q

Cluster C personality disorders

A

Avoidant: feelings of inadequacy, social inhibition, believing they are inferior to others, this belief prevents them from engaging in social activities or new relationships

Dependent: excessive need to be taken care of by others, leads to submissive behavior, difficulty expressing disagreement, feeling lost when alone and the inability to make simple everyday decisions independently or assume responsibilities

Obsessive-compulsive personality: preoccupation with organization, perfectionism that interferes with task completion, excessive time spent on work, difficulty delegating tasks to others, inability to discard objects with no monetary value and being strict with money and morals

279
Q

TCA overdose presentation and treatment

A

Wide complex tachycardia, hyperthermia, hypotension, flushed skin and hypoventilation

Cardiotoxicity related to TCAs is treated with sodium bicarbonate

280
Q

Ethylene glycol treatment

A

Fomepizole (competitive inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase)

281
Q

Lamotrigine and carbamazepine are mood stabilizers that can be used ass adjuvant treatment for severe affecting dysregulation in personality disorders. Both medications can lead to potentially life-threatening

282
Q

Frontotemporal dementia history

A

Pick bodies consisting of hyperphosphorylated tau proteins

283
Q

MOA of first line therapy for hepatic encephalopathy

A

Lactulose MOA is reducing intraluminal pH which promotes the conversion of ammonia to ammonium ion. Ammonium ions cannot be absorbed in the gut and are thus excreted in the stool, resulting in reduced serum ammonia levels

284
Q

Stages of alcohol withdrawal

A

6-12 hours = tremor, tachycardia, hypertension

12-48 hours = seziures

2-7 days = delirium tremens

285
Q

SSRIs can cause which electrolyte abnormality

A

hyponatremia

286
Q

Treatment for bacterial meningitis in neonates < 1month, children to adults < 50 years of age, adults >50, immunocompromised host (regardless of age)

A

Neonates <1month: ampicillin + cefotaxime (same for empiric)

Children to adults < 50 years of age: ceftriaxone + vancomycin + dexamethasone

Adults >50: ceftriaxone + vancomycin + ampicillin + dexamethasone (same for empiric)

Immunocompromised: vancomycin + ampicillin + cefepime or meropenem + dexamethasone

Empiric: vanc + 3rd gen cephalosporin like ceftriaxone or cefotaxime + post exposure prophylaxis for close contacts with rifampin

287
Q

Indications for electroconvulsive therapy

A

Used for treatment of severe depression, treatment-refractory depression or both. It is safe for use in pregnancy

288
Q

Risk factors that mandate long-term or lifelong antidepressant therapy include

A

> 3 episodes of depression

Strong family history of depression

> 1 severe episode (an episode with several symptoms in excess of the required 5)

Comorbid, nonaffective psychiatric diagnosis or chronic medical disorder

289
Q

First line for mild to moderate dementia or those newly diagnosed with dementia

A

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as donepezil, galantamine and rivastigmine

Memantine is used in moderate to severe cases, it blocks over excited N-methyl-D-aspartate glutamate receptors

290
Q

Acute mania in pregnancy treatment

A

Haloperidol

291
Q

Primary vs secondary acute angle closure glaucoma

A

Sudden onset eye pain, blurry vision, redness with an elevated IOCP, unilateral headache, non-reactive pupil, can be triggered by anti-cholinergic medications

Shallow anterior chamber, inadequate drainage of aqueous humor

Gonioscopy is gold standard

Ocular emergency and must be treated promptly to prevent blindness (oral acetazolamide, topical timolol, apraclonidine, pilocarpine)

Primary = patients are automatically predisposed with no identifiable cause

Secondary = primary process (eg, fibrovascular membrane, mass, hemorrhage) is responsible for narrowing or closure of the anterior chamber angle

292
Q

Open-angle glaucoma

A

Elevated IOCP, asymptomatic, found incidentally

293
Q

Optic nerve injury presentation

A

Can be caused by either direct, penetrating trauma or indirectly following head/orbit trauma

Present with acute, ipsilateral vision loss and a relative afferent pupillary defect on PE (Marcus gunn pupil which is when light shined in affected eye, both pupils dilate and when light shined in unaffected eye both pupils constrict)

Diagnosis is confirmed via CT imaging of the orbit

Optho consult +/- surgical decompression

294
Q

Management of malignant hyperthermia during surgery

A

Medical emergency triggered by inhalational anesthetics (sevoflurane) or succinylcholine

Presents with autonomic instability (hyperthermia, hypertension, tachypnea), hypercarbia (difficult ventilation, increased end tidal carbon dioxide), generalized muscle rigidity, cardiac arrhythmias, rhabdomyolysis and delirium

Treatment is immediate removal of the offending agent followed by administration of IV dantrolene

295
Q

Periorbital cellulitis vs. orbitial cellulitis

A

Periorbital cellulitis is an infection of the soft tissues of the orbit that is differentiated from orbital cellulitis by a lack of vision changes and pain with eye movement

Periorbital = eyelid swelling +/- erythema, +/- eye pain/tenderness, +/- fever or leukocytosis

Orbital = eyelid swelling +/- erythema, eye pain/tenderness, painful eye movement, proptosis likely present, vision impairment likely present, chemosis (edema of conjunctiva) may be present, fever or leukocytosis

So PAIN with eye movement = orbital

296
Q

Which class of drugs to avoid in dementia with Ley bodies

A

Antipsychotics as they can precipitate Parkinsonism or acutely worsen pre-existing Parkinsonism

297
Q

Wernicke encephalopathy

A

Alcohol use disorder, nystagmus, confusion

Caused by thiamine deficiency which is also linked with wet and dry beriberi

Wet beriberi is characterized by dilated high-output cardiomyopathy and heart failure

Dry beriberi is characterized by distal peripheral polyneuropathy

298
Q

Rett syndrome

A

X-linked mutation in the MECP2 gene

Stereotypic hand-wringing movements, intellectual and verbal disability like loss of spoken language, decelerated head growth, epilepsy, growth failure, gait and motor abnormalities, breathing abnormalities

299
Q

Benzo MOA

A

Enhance the activity of GABA-A receptors

300
Q

Clostridium botulinum moa

A

bacterial toxin blocks the release of presynaptic neurotransmitters, leading to weakness, hypotonia and possibly respiratory failure

301
Q

What test to do if a patient has a suspected corneal abrasion

A

Slit lamp test

Fluorescein can be a useful adjunct to simple slit lamp examination when the diagnosis is unclear

302
Q

Rare side effect of sildenafil

A

Cyanopsia (blue-tinted vision0 via inhibition of PDE-6 in the retina

303
Q

Valproic acid SE

A

First line tx for juvenile mycoclonic epilepsy

AE: acute pancreatitis, hepatotoxicity, tremor and eight gain

Can also cause neural tube defects and should not be used during pregnancy

304
Q

Which drugs cause drug-induced pancreatitis

A

Azathioprine
Corticosteroids
Didanosine
Diuretics (loop and thiazide)
Valproic acid

305
Q

First line tx for ALS

A

Glutamate antagonist (eg, riluzole) to aid with increased life expectancy secondary to reducing glutamate receptor excitotoxicity

306
Q

Drug induced Parkinsonism

A

tremor is often bilateral vs parkinson disease starts unilateral

307
Q

CAG
CGG
CTG
GAA
GCC

A

CAG = huntingtons
CGG = fragile x
CTG = myotonic dystrophy
GAA = Friedrich ataxia
GCC = FRAAXE mental retardation

308
Q

Management in febrile seizures in kids

A

Reassurance, supportive care, including antipyretics

Abortive therapy (eg, diazepam) if seizure lasts > 5 minutes

309
Q

Lithium SE

A

hyperparathyroidism –> hypercalcemia

Thyroid dysfunction (hypothyroidism)

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

Chronic kidney disease

Teratogenic (Ebstein anomaly)

310
Q

Sacral dysfunction in post partum patient

A

Bilateral sacral flexion

Negative standing and seated flexion tests
Deep sacral sulci
Shallow ILAs

Anterior sacral rotation about a middle transverse axis

311
Q

innominate rotation occurs at which motion

A

inferior transverse axis

312
Q

Hamstrings

A

Semitendinosus
Semimembranosus
Biceps femoris

They all do knee flexion and hip extension

Semitendinosus & semimembranosus = hip internal rotation

Biceps femoris = hip external rotation

313
Q

Sacral axis

Superior transverse:

Middle transverse:

Inferior transverse:

Oblique:

A

Motion

Superior transverse: craniosacral

Middle transverse: anatomic

Inferior transverse: innominate

Oblique: torsion

314
Q

Specific test for ACL

315
Q

First line tx for migraines during pregnancy

A

Acetaminophen
Then aspirin and NSAIDs

316
Q

MC of sepsis in those under 7 days of age

A

Consider sepsis in any neonate presenting with temperature instability and lethargy. The most common cause of sepsis in those under 7 days of age is group B strep which is a gram positive cocci

317
Q

Treatment for patients with a postdural puncture headache

A

Mild (can tolerate upright position and care for their baby) –> increased hydration, bed rest as needed, oral pain meds, antiemetics

If the headache continues to be debilitating then can give –> epidural blood patch (performed 24 hours following placement of epidural catheter). Second line includes transnasal sphenopalatine block using topical intranasal anesthetic to provide temporary relief or greater occipital nerve block to interrupt pain transmission

318
Q

Felty syndrome

A

RA + splenomegaly + neutropenia

319
Q

Caplan syndrome

A

RA + pneumoconiosis

320
Q

Treatment for guillain barre syndrome

A

Plasmapheresis

GBS is an immune mediated polyneuropathy

321
Q

Drugs that cause aplastic anemia

A

Carbamazepine
Phenytoin
Chloramphenicol
Sulfonamides
Methimazole
Propylthiouracil
Indomethacin

322
Q

Treatment of choice for patients with a cerebellar hemorrhagic stroke who are deteriorating neurologically

A

Immediate surgical decompression

323
Q

Lewy body dementia

A

Visual hallucinations, parkinsonism, fluctuating mental status
Classic eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusion bodies within the substantia nigra and locus coeruleus

Tx with cholinesterase inhibitors

324
Q

Osmotic demyelination syndrome is diagnosed by MRI of brain however it may take up to 4 weeks after onset of symptoms for MRI scans to become abnormal. Thus when the syndrome is suspected clinically,

A

brain MRI should be repeated at a later time if initial imaging is normal

325
Q

Most common bacterial etiology of an infection of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt placed to manage hydrocephalus is

A

Staph epidermis which is a gram positive coagulase negative bacteria

326
Q

Blurry vision, conjunctival erythema after suffering ocular trauma is consistent with sympathetic ophthalmia, which is an

A

Autoimmune condition that is caused by T cell sensitization to self-antigens
Type IV hypersensitivity
Can affect injured and uninjured eye
Prevent via enucleation of the injured eye
Manage via glucocorticoids and biologic agents

327
Q

GBS CSF

A

Normal WBC, RBC, negative gram stain or culture

Elevated protein

328
Q

Definitive treatment for third degree heart block

A

Permanent pacemaker because they have an increased risk of sudden cardiac death

329
Q

Before giving tPA in someone that has acute ischemic stroke and their blood pressure is uncontrolled,

A

Blood pressure first has to be reduced to the target range typically SBP < 185 mmHg and diastolic pressure < 110 mmHg

IV labetalol and nicardipine are common anti HTN agents used for BP reduction prior to tPA

330
Q

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

CT head without
Once hemorrhage is identified by CT then cerebral angiography or CT angiography is preferred
If the angiography is negative then an MRI of the head is indicated

331
Q

All patients with suspected stroke should have what immediately

A

Oxygen saturation
Finger stick glucose level check
Noncon brain CT

If there is no evidence of hemorrhage on CT and the patient is within the therapeutic window, tPA should be administered
Window ranges from < 3 hours up to 4.5 hours

332
Q

Optic neuritis management

A

IV methylprednisolone

333
Q

What to do first in suspected salicylate toxicity

A

Arterial blood gas
A mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis would support the diagnosis

334
Q

Salicylate = aspirin

Acetaminophen = Tylenol

335
Q

Acute angle-closure glaucoma

336
Q

Chronic fatigue syndrome

A

Fatigue, post-exertional malaise, unrefreshing sleep, cognitive impairment, orthostatic related symptoms persisting for > 6 months. May begin suddenly after an infection or may develop gradually

337
Q

In a patient with suspected pseudotumor cerebri, evaluation begins with

A

Urgent head MRI done before lumbar puncture to rule out other potential causes of increased ICP

338
Q

psuedotumor cerebri

A

This patient’s pulsating, unilateral headache with nausea and vomiting is very typical of acute migraine headache, which can sometimes vary in intensity and response to treatment. Many migraines are adequately treated with simple analgesics (eg, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, acetaminophen). For refractory cases, triptans (eg, sumatriptan) can be used as first-line abortive therapy. However, triptans (as well as ergots) are 5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT1B/D) agonists that can cause vasoconstriction; therefore, they should be avoided in patients with cardiovascular or atherosclerotic disease due to the potential risk for triggering a serious vasoocclusivecomplication (eg, myocardial infarction, stroke) (Choice E).
In patients with significant cardiovascular history, metoclopramide is often used. It blocks dopamine (D2) receptors and does not have significant vasoconstrictive adverse effects. It is particularly effective in the treatment of migraines with significant associated nausea/vomiting, so it is also sometimes used for patients without a cardiovascular history if nausea and vomiting are prominent symptoms of the acute migraine. Diphenhydramine is usually coadministered to prevent the occurrence of extrapyramidal effects (eg, akathisia, dystonia).

339
Q

Meniere

A

Vertigo, tinnitus, sensorineural hearing loss (eg, weber lateralizes to the left)

Low frequency hearing loss

Caused from reduced resorption of endolymph

340
Q

Acute multiple sclerosis exacerbation first line management

A

IV methylprednisolone (+ PPI (as with any patient receiving glucocorticoids to prevent gastritis))

Patients who do not respond to methylprednisolone should be treated with plasmapheresis

341
Q

Patient has right and left cerebellopontine angle tumors, what is this patient at greatest risk for

A

Patient has bilateral acoustic neuromas which is consistent with NF2

NF2 can also cause meningiomas, schwannomas of other cranial nerves and ependymomas

Other NF2 findings are bilateral cataracts, seizures, skin nodules, cafe au lait spots

Acoustic neuromas are caused by compression of vestibulocochlear nerveas a result of the tumor extending into the internal acoustic meatus

342
Q

Once myasthenia gravis is diagnosed with acetylcholine receptor assay, the next step is to

A

CT scan the chest to check for a thymoma

PYRIDOstigmine (cholinesterase inhibitor) is the treatment

343
Q

Patient has right sided facial drooping and complete paralysis of right upper and lower extremities. Circumduction gait, sometimes dysarthria. Which vessel is the case

A

Contralateral lenticulostriate artery

A pure motor stroke is caused by infarction in the posterior limb of the internal capsule which contains the corticospinal and corticobulbar fibers that innervate the motor nuclei on the contralateral side

344
Q

Epidural hematoma

A

Middle meningeal artery
Initial LOC followed by a lucid interval

345
Q

Middle cerebral artery embolism manifests as

A

focal neurologic deficits (hemiparesis), altered mental staatus, vomiting

346
Q

Does herpes simplex encephalitis require prophylactic therapy

347
Q

Central vs peripheral vertigo

A

Central: brainstem stroke, cerebellar stroke/tumor, nystagmus is immediate and in any direction (vertical, horizontal, rotary), no auditory findings, often has neurological findings, head position doesn’t change

Peripheral: semicircular canal debris, BPPV, meniere disease, nystagmus is horizontal and unidirectional, occasionally will have auditory findings, no neurological findings, and head position is worsened by changing

With central look for rotary or vertical nystagmus

348
Q

ALS diagnosis and treatment

A

Involves UMN and LMN signs in at least 3 body segments (muscle wasting and weakness, atrophy, spasticity, abnormally active reflexes, pathological reflexes)
UMN: spasticity (including spastic dysarthria), hyperreflexia and/or sustained clonus, hoffman sign, extensor planar response, pseudobulbar effect
LMN: flaccid muscle tone, muscle atrophy and wasting, muscle cramping, bulbar signs (dysphagia, dysarthria, respiratory weakness), fasciculations

Diagnosis: EMG to confirm diagnosis and to exclude mimics- will show fibrillations and loss of innervation in multiple muscle groups

Treatment is Riluzole

349
Q

Amaurosis fugax

A

schemia in the territory of the central retinal artery

Presenting sign of carotid stenosis

350
Q

Treatment for Wilsons

A

Penicillamine

351
Q

Rifampin MOA and SE

A

MOA: bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase and therefore inhibits bacterial protein production

SE: discoloration of body fluids, hepatotoxicity

352
Q

Posterior communicating artery aneurysms

A

Can compress the oculomotor nerve causing oculomotor nerve palsy

353
Q

Anterior communicating artery aneurysms

A

Can compress the optic chiasm causing bitemporal heteronymous hemianopsia

354
Q

Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

A

Wallenberg syndrome
Decreased pain and/or temperature of the ipsilateral face and contralateral body
Patients may also have dysphagia, slurred speech, vertigo, and nystagmus

355
Q

Treatment for solitary brain metastasis when patients have no evidence of extracranial disease and a good performance status

A

Surgical resection

Whole-brain radiation is recommended for patients with multiple brain metastases, poor performance status and/or extracranial metastasis

356
Q

Which are associated with higher and lower risk of Alzheimers

A

Lower = apoE2

Higher = apoE4, amyloid precursor protein gene mutations, presinilin 1 and 2, trisomy 21

357
Q

Cryptococcal meningitis

A

Immunocompromised such as those with HIV infection and a CD4+ count < 100 cells/mcl
Latest agglutination test of CSF will be positive
The combination of amphotericin B and flucytosine is used for induction therapy for the first 2 weeks, followed by fluxonazole for at least 8 weeks and then low dose fluconazole for at least 1 year

358
Q

Migraines pathophys

A

Result of primary neuronal dysfunction with the main pathophysiologic mechanism being activation of the trigeminovascular system. This activation leads to the release of vasoactive neuropeptides (substance P, calcitonin gene related peptide, neurokinin A) that trigger neuroinflammation and pain

359
Q

Succinylcholine MOA

A

Depolarizing neuromuscular blocker that acts as an acetylcholine receptor agonist
It has a rapid onset and short duration of action
Due to the cellular potassium efflux, transient fasciculations may be seen

360
Q

Bilateral conductive hearing loss, positive family history of hearing issues
Tuning fork placed on mastoid, the patient can sense vibration longer than when hearing the tuning fork when it is placed near the ear

A

Otosclerosis
Loss of stapedial reflex is a common finding

361
Q

Von hippel Lindau diseaase

A

Retinal and cerebellar hemangioblastoma
Renal cell carcinoma
Pheochromocytoma
Surveillance with MRI of brain and spine, MRI of abdomen regular eye examinations, measurement of serum and/or metanephrines

362
Q

MC neurologic deficit of untreated bacterial meningitis

A

Hearing loss
High dose corticosteroids administered prior to antibiotics have been shown to reduce this risk

363
Q

Maroon-colored stools (hematochezia), bright red blood per rectum, clots in stool is suggestive of

Black tarry stools (melena) is suggestive of

A

Lower GI bleed

Upper GI bleed

364
Q

Internal hemorrhoid

A

Presents as anal pruritus, prolapse and occasionally painless rectal bleeding
Seen proximal to the dentate line and arise from the superior hemorrhoid veins
Painless
ENDOderm

Treatment is fiber, fluids and possibly laxatives to improve bowel habits
Note that when the prolapse is out of the anal canal with defecation or straining WITHOUT reduce spontaneously then manual reduction is required

365
Q

External hemorrhoid

A

Located distal to the dentate line and arise from the inferior hemorrhoid veins
Painful
Arises from ECTOderm

Treatment for symptomatic thrombosed (dark blue purple color) external hemorrhoids is surgical excision
Conservative management like sitz baths, topical treatment and antidiarrheal agents are reserved for less symptomatic cases or for patients who present > 72 hours after onset of symptoms

366
Q

ZES

A

Functional gastrin-secreting tumor that occurs most commonly in the pancreas and/or duodenum

Severe GERD, frequent recurrent gastric and duodenal ulcers, recurrent bleeding ulcers, chronic abdominal pain, diarrhea, weight loss

Multiple ulcers, ulcers distal to the duodenal bulb, negative testing for H pylori

Dx with casting serum gastrin level or positive secretin stimulation test

Secretin decreases gastrin secretion from normal G cells but increases gastrin secretion from gastrinoma cells

First line drug treatment its PPIs (a somatostatin analog like octreotide can be used if the patient doesnt respond to PPI therapy)
Definitive treatment is surgery

367
Q

Girl with bulimia has painful swallowing and vomiting. Earlier that evening she forced herself to vomit after eating which she noticed blood in the vomit and a severe sharp pain in her chest. PE shows enlarged parotid glands bilaterally and crepitus on palpation of upper chest. What’s the most appropriate diagnostic test

A

Gastrograffin swallow which is esophagography with a water soluble contrast agent

Barium swallow is avoided when possible as leakage of barium through a perforation can cause severe inflammation of the mediastinum or pleural cavities

Patient likely has a ruptured esophagus (Boerhaave syndrome), crepitus is indicative of subcutaneous emphysema which is a common finding of a transmural tear (ie, rupture) of the esophagus

368
Q

Perianal abscess

A

Etiology: infection of an occluded anal crypt gland

Risk factors: anoreceptive intercourse, constipation

Pain with defecation, anal pruritis, progression can lead to contrast pain and systemic signs of infection such a s low grade fever

PE: indurated, erythematous, painful mass near the anal orifice

Treatment: incision and drainage should be performed in order to prevent fistula formation

369
Q

C diff pathogenesis

A

Pathogenesis: Disruption of normal colonic flora, allowing for proliferation of toxin producing strains of C diff

MC occurs with a hx of antibiotic use but can occur in patients with IBD without history of antibiotic use

Enzyme immunoassay for glutamate dehydrogenase (GDH) antigen is sensitive but not specific. EIA for GDH should be followed by a more specific test such as EIA for c diff toxins A and B (stool sample). If one of thosr is positive and the other is negative then do a NAAT testing

Treatment: oral vancomycin or oral fidaxomycin (RNA polymerase inhibitor that is bactericidal)

370
Q

Food protein induced allergic proctocolitis (FPIAP)

A

Suspected when a child aged younger than 6 months presents with blood-streaked stools and no evidence of anal fissure on exam

For breastfed infants –> elimination of dairy from mothers diet

Formula-fed infants –>< switched to a hydrolyzed formula

Eosinophilic inflammation of the rectosigmoid colon, non-IgE mediated, triggers include cows milk and soy proteins, risk factors include eczema and FH of food allergies

371
Q

AE of first line medication given for hepatic encephalopathy

A

Ammonia is directly related to encephalopathy and is MC treated with lactulose

Lactulose may cause a non-anion gap metabolic acidosis as side effect in the setting of diarrhea from large volume losses of bicarbonate

Other SE include dehydration, hypernatremia, hypokalemia, abdominal cramps, distension, excessive diarrhea, flatulence, nausea/vomiting

372
Q

Acute cholecystitis management

A

Ultrasound then HIDA (hepatobiliary iminodiacetic acid scan)

373
Q

Secondary lactase deficiency

A

Result of intestinal epithelial cell damage following viral gastroenteritis
Symptoms due to carbohydrate malabsorption
Abdominal pain, bloating and flatulence, watery diarrhea

Tx with temporary dietary modification with restriction of dairy products, typically resolve within weeks to months

374
Q

Vascular ring

A

Congenital malformations of the aortic arch system. Symptoms are caused by tracheal and/or esophageal compression

Tracheal compression by a vascular ring will present with biphasic stridor that worsens when crying and feeding and improves with neck extension. Esophageal compression can cause vomiting and dysphagia

Diagnosis: CT scan, evaluate for other abnormalities (eg, echo, laryngoscopy)

Treatment: surgical division of the ring

375
Q

Autoimmune hepatitis

A

Adolescent or middle-aged females with elevated liver enzymes and antinuclear antibodies, esp those with another autoimmune disorder
Anti-smooth muscle antibiodies aare he most specific blood tesst and diagnosis caan be confirmed with aa liver biopsy

376
Q

High-volume, watery diarrhea and electrolyte derangements following travel to an endemic area (eg, Latin America, Southern Asia)

A

Caused by the bacterial organism Vibrio cholera and symptoms are the result of a bacterial exotoxin (enterotoxin) that causes impaired intestinal electrolyte absorption

Stool microscopy shows no leukocytes or erythrocytes

Treatment: aggressive fluid resuscitation and electrolyte replacement +/- antimicrobial therapy

377
Q

Zenker diverticulum

A

Pathophysiology: impaired relaxation of cricopharyngeal muscle –> increase intraluminal pressure –> herniation of mucosa and submucosa –> pseudodiverticulum (false diverticulum)

Located between the 2 parts of the inferior pharyngeal constrictor muscle: thyropharyngeus and cricopharyngeus muscles (Killian triangle)

Presentation: progressive dysphagia, halitosis, regurgitation of undigested food, neck mass, aspiration (pneumonia, lung abscess)

Initial diagnostic test is barium esophagram

Treatment is surgery (diverticulectomy +/- cricopharyngeal myotomy)

378
Q

H pylori treatment

A

Two options:

PPI + clarithromycin + amoxicillin (metronidazole in patients allergic to penicillins)

PPI + bismuth subsalicyclate + tetracycline + metronidazole 9used in patients with increased likelihood of clarithromycin-resistant disease such as those previously treated with macrolides or living in a region with high clarithromycin resistance rate (>15%))

379
Q

Hirschsprung disease (congenital aganglionic megacolon)

A

Congenital absence of both the myenteric and submucosal plexuses in the colon
Rectal biopsy (distal to the dilated segment of bowel) is the definitive diagnostic test

380
Q

In GERD the epithelium of the distal esophagus changes from

A

stratified squamous cells to simple columnar cells

381
Q

Peptic ulcer disease

A

Gastric ulcer- abdominal pain occurs shortly after eating as food stimulates the release of gastric acid

Duodenal ulcers- pain improves with eating because of bicarbonate release into the duodenum and the buffering effects of food

382
Q

Most common origin of carcinoid tumors

A

Small intestine (appendix and terminal ileum)

Carcinoid syndrome arises from neuroendocrine tumors that have metastasized to the liver. After spreading to the liver carcinoid tumors can metastasize to the lung, bones, skin and other organs. Can also cause valvular abnormalities including tricuspid regurgitation and right sided heart failure

383
Q

What is colonic pseudo-obstruction aka Ogilive syndrome

A

Acute pseudo-obstruction and dilation of the colon in the absence of mechanical obstruction in severely ill patients

384
Q

Budd-chiari

A

Obstruction of hepatic venous outflow
MC associated with hypercoagulable states as can occur with OCP use, pregnancy, malignancies and thrombophilias
Diagnosis is usually confirmed by Doppler ultrasound of the RUQ

384
Q

Serology for patients who have recovered from hepatitis B

A

Positive HBsAb and HBcAb

385
Q

AIDS defining illness

386
Q

Infantile GERD

A

Arching the back while feeding, spitting up, normal height and weight, may also present with emesis following meals, irritability and occasionally a cough

Diagnosis is through H&P
Although rarely needed to confirm the diagnosis, the gold standard for diagnosing infantile GERD if esophageal pH monitoring
Esophageal manometry if motility disorder is suspected
EGD used for biopsy if the diagnosis is still unclear

Treatment: smaller and more frequent meals, thickening the feeding formula with rice cereal, keep infant upright after feeding, H2 receptor antagonists

387
Q

Acute cholecystitis-

Ascending cholangitis-

Choledocholithiasis-

Gallstone ileus-

A

Acute cholecystitis- RUQ pain, tenderness on RUQ palpation, radiates to right shoulder, worse after meals, Murphy sign (tenderness to the RUQ that worsens on inspiration)and gallstones in cystic duct. No jaundice (or mild)

Ascending cholangitis- bacterial infection of the biliary tree usually occurs from obstruction of common bile duct, ill-appearing, Charcot triad of RUQ pain, jaundice and fever. Reynold pentad is Charcot triad + septic shock and altered mental status)

Choledocholithiasis- gallstones in common bile duct. Elevated alk phos and total bilirubin

Gallstone ileus- small bowel obstruction resulting from the passage of aa large gallstone into the bowel through a cholecystoduodenal fistula, usually occurs at the ileocecal valve, signs and symptoms of SBO and have pneumobilia or on abdominal radiographs

388
Q

Candida esophagitis treatment

A

Oral fluconazole (can do IV if patient cannot tolerate swallowing)

389
Q

Ulcerative colitis first line medication

A

Meslamine (5-aminosalicylate) is first line for induction of remission as well as maintenance of remission
If remission is not acheived with meslamine alone, prednisone is typically added

390
Q

First line treatment to slow the rate of accumulation of ascites in patients with hepatic cirrhosis

A

Dietary sodium restriction

Diuretic therapy with furosemide + spironolactone is also required in many patients

Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) is an option for some patients with refractory ascites due to hepatic cirrhosis

Portal hypertension is the first step in the development of ascites secondary to hepatic cirrhosis. Patients with cirrhosis and a normal portal venous pressure do not develop ascites. Portal HTN leads to splanchnic vasodilation resulting in decreased splanchnic blood flow and systemic vasodilation resulting in low arterial blood pressure
To maintain perfusion pressures, the RAAS system is activated, ADH secretion increases and sympathetic NS activity increases. The result is avid sodium and water retention by the kidneys, causing hypervolemic hyponatremia, accumulation of ascites fluid and peripheral edema

391
Q

A patient with crohns presents to ED with similar presentation to acute appendicitis, what’s the next step

A

CT abdomen and pelvis since crohn flare and acute appendicitis presents similarly

392
Q

Initial testing for carpal tunnel

A

Electromyogram and nerve conduction studies

Treatment for mild disease = PT, glucocorticoid injections, cock-up wrist splint
Severe = surgical decompression

393
Q

Two scenarios and nerves leading to wining of scapula

A
  1. damage to long thoracic nerve (C5-C7) during mastectomy causes medial winging of the scapula via serratus anterior
  2. damage to the spinal accessory nerve (CN 11) during radical neck dissection of lymph node metastasis, causing lateral winging of the scapula via trapezius
394
Q

Osteosarcoma treatment

A

Chemotherapy and limb-salvage therapy

395
Q

If there is any question of scaphoid fracture union prior to return to high-impact activities, what do you order

A

CT scan is the best study to verify osseous union

396
Q

Right anterior innominate muscle energy set up

A

Flexing and ADDucting the hip on the affected side to the restrictive barrier with the patient attempting to extend the hip against the physician’s equal and opposite counterforce. Performed 3 to 5 times with each contraction lasting 3 to 5 seconds. The hip is flexed to the new barrier after relaxation of each isometric contraction

397
Q

Lead poisoning treatment

A

Chelation with dimercaptosuccinic acid or EDTA

398
Q

Muscle energy

A

Direct
Patient contracts toward position of ease

399
Q

Metatarsal adductus

A

Medial deviation of the metatarsals with the metatarsals pointing toward the midline relative to the hind foot

399
Q

Congenital clubfoot deformity

A

CAVE
Cavus: exaggerated arch of the midfoot
Adductus: forefoot in adduction
Varus: hindfoot rotated inward
Equinus: ankle/foot fixed in plantar flexion

400
Q

Sjogren syndrome is associated with an increased risk of developing

A

non-Hodgkin lymphoma

401
Q

Developmental dysplasia of hip

A

Presents as a clunk sound upon elevation and abduction as well as depression and adduction of the newborn hip joint

Risk factors include the 5 F’s: femaale, footling (breach), firstborn, flexible (hyperlaxity), family history

Diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasound performed from approximately 6 weeks to 4 months of age (<6 weeks then defer imaging until >6 weeks of age)
Plain radiographs are used for diagnosis after 4 months of age when the femoral heads and acetabula ossify

402
Q

Treatment for De Quervain tenosynovitis if conservative measures are inadequate

A

Surgical release of the abductor pollicis longus tendon

403
Q

DEXA screening

A

Woman at age 65 or at an earlier age in postmenopausal women with risk factors for osteoporosis

404
Q

Whipple’s disease

A

History of chronic malabsorptive diarrhea (steatorrhea, flatulence, abdominal distension), protein-losing enteropathy, weight loss, migratory non-deforming arthritis, lymphadenopathy and a low-grade fever
PAAS + macrophages in the lamina propria containing non-acid-fast gram-positive bacilli (T. whipped)

405
Q

Initial management of osteoarthritis

A

Weight loss, regular moderate activity, topical or oral NSAIDs
Exercises to strengthen the quadriceps muscles can reduce abnormal loading on the joint and protect the articular cartilage from further stress

406
Q

Strongest risk factor for rheumatoid arthritis

A

HLA-DR4
Others are smoking and female gender

Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies = most specific diagnostic markers

for RA Rheumatoid factor = most sensitive marker

407
Q

Polymyalgia rheumatica treatment

A

Low-dose prednisone

408
Q

Dantrolene MOA

A

Binds to the RYR1 receptor to inhibit calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle

409
Q

Labs for:
Pagets

Osteoporosis

Osteomalacia

Osteitis fibrosa cystica

A

Pagets: increased alk phos, normal calcium, vitamin D, parathyroid, phosphate

Osteoporosis

Osteomalacia

Osteitis fibrosa cystica

410
Q

Femoral neck fracture

A

Elderly patients that fall laterally onto hip
Unable to ambulate, shortened and externally rotated lower extremity on the affected side

411
Q

Anterior vs posterior hip dislocations

A

Anterior is much less common, affected limb is usually externally rotated and appears longer than the unaffected limb

Posterior hip dislocations are usually caused by major traumas such as MVAs, the affected limb is shortened and internally rotated. Sciatic nerve is the only major nerve located posterior to he hip joint- injury in a posterior hip dislocation would result in weakness of knee flexion, ankle plantarflexion, ankle dorsiflexion, toe flexion and toe extension

412
Q

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

A

Proximal femoral epiphysis at the growth plate, resulting in displacement of the femoral hed posteriorly and medially regarding the femoral neck
PE: patient will hold affected hip in passive external rotaton thaat is exaggerated with hip flex. Internal rotation at the hip is limited and often painful

413
Q

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

A

AKA avascular necrosis of the femoral head
Characterized by atraumatic limp in young children with impaired internal rotation and abduction of the affected hip
Typically occurs in younger children with peak incidence at approx 5-6yo
Plain radiographs are the best diagnostic tool and will show evidence of femoral head necrosis

414
Q

Avascular necrosis of the lunate (Kienbock disease) presentation

A

Caused by repetitive microtrauma to the carpal bones
presents with dorsal wrist pain, decreased grip strength and reduced range of motion

415
Q

Priority listing of the use of language interpreters

A

-Physician (if fluent in the patient’s preferred language)
-Qualified (ie, trained formal interpreters): in-person, teleconferencing, video
-Unqualified ad hoc (eg, bilingual family and staff members)
-Written

416
Q

Which standard DMARD for RA? What should you monitor throughout therapy?

A

Methotrexate
Monitor CBC, can cause myelosuppression

417
Q

Osteoarthritis

A

Older ages, chronic joint pain, morning stiffness of < 30 minutes duration, swelling at t he end of the day
Radiographic findings include joint space narrowing, subchondral sclerosis and osteophytes

Firist like pharmacological traetment is NSAIDs (unless CI like in HTN, peptic ulcer disease, chronic kidney disease) or do not help alleviate pain,
ORal duloxetine or intra-articular corticosteroid injection should be considered

418
Q

Calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease (aka pseudogout

A

Rhomboid shaped crystals with positive birefringence

Color when parallel to light = blue
Color when perpendicular to light = yellow

Predispositions to develop CPPD: hemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, hypomagnesemia, hypophosphatasia, familial chondrocalcinosis, familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia

419
Q

Bisphosphonates

A

Decreases osteoclast activity

Take on an empty stomach and don’t lie down for 30 to 60 minutes after taking to prevent esophageal irritation

420
Q

Pes anserine bursitis

A

Anteromedial knee pain that occurs during lateral movements which are commonly observed in agility sports like soccer, basketball and field hockey

421
Q

Initial management of polymyalgia rheumatica

A

Oral glucocorticoids

422
Q

Common peroneal (fibular) nerve entrapment

A

Injury causes foot drop and an inverted and plantarflexed foot at rest with lack of eversion and dorsiflexion

PED = peroneal everts and dorsiflexes

423
Q

Most specific antibody for: Dermatomyositis
Polymyositis
Multiple sclerosis
Rheumatoid arthritis
Type 1 diabetes
CREST syndrome
Crohn disease

A

Dermatomyositis: Anti-Mi-2

Polymyositis: Anti-Jo-1

Multiple sclerosis: Anti-myelin

Rheumatoid arthritis: Anti-CCP

Type 1 diabetes: Anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase

CREST syndrome: Anti-centromere

Crohn disease: Anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae

424
Q

Posterior fibular head dysfunction

A

Talus = internally rotated
Foot = inverted, plantarflexed and adducted (supinated)

425
Q

Gold standard for diagnosing carpal tunnel

A

Electrodiagnostic testing (electromyography and nerve conduction studies)

426
Q

Gout joint fluid aspirate

A

Cloudy, negatively birefringent, needle-shaped crystals with a WBC between 2,000 to 20,000 cells/mm3

427
Q

Approach for subacromial joint injection

A

Insert the needle inferior to the lateral edge of the acromion and direct the needle medially and parallel to the acromion

428
Q

Pseudomonas treatment

A

Penicillin
If allergic then aztreonam

429
Q

ALL confirmatory test

A

Bone marrow biopsy
+myeloperoxidase
+TdT

430
Q

ITP

A

For children with ITP and no or only mild bleeding, such as this patient with self-limited epistaxis and scattered petechiae, the American Society of Hematology 2019 guidelines recommend observation, irrespective of platelet count. Spontaneous resolution occurs in the majority of pediatric patients with ITP, often within six months, and severe bleeding is rare, even in patients with severe thrombocytopenia (i.e., < 30,000/mm3), because the function of circulating platelets is not impaired in patients with ITP.

ITP is a diagnosis of exclusion that is made in patients with isolated thrombocytopenia (i.e., no concurrent anemia or leukocytosis) after other potential causes have been ruled out. It is most commonly diagnosed in children and women of childbearing age. Unlike in children, in whom the indication for pharmacological intervention is based exclusively on clinical presentation, treatment initiation is generally recommended in adults with ITP with a platelet count < 30,000/mm3.

431
Q

Acute hemolytic reaction

A

ABO incompatibility usually due to clerical error
Intravascular hemolysis
Onset within minutes-24 hr of transfusion
Fever, chills, hypotension
+ direct coombs test
Hemolysis (increased LDH and indirect bilirubin)

432
Q

Splenectomy

A

Strep pneumo, H flu, Neisseria meningitides
polysaccharide exterior that conceals antigenic epitopes and resists innate phagocytosis. Therefore, these pathogens are largely eliminated via the humoral immune response with antibody-mediatedphagocytosis(opsonization) and antibody-mediated complement activation. Much of this is dependent on splenic macrophages and the generation of splenic opsonizing antibodies. As such, patients with asplenia are at high risk for fulminant infection with encapsulated organisms. These patients should be immunized with pneumococcal, meningococcal, and H influenzae type B vaccines and take oral antibiotics early in the course of any febrile illness.

433
Q

Treatment for thalassemia minor

A

Do not require specific treatment

434
Q

47 yo M comes in with occasional daytime headaches, dizziness and nausea, works in a underground parking garage, smoked 2 packs of cigarettes a day for 25 years, hematocrit 60%

A

This patient, who is exposed to automobile exhaust in an enclosed space, has intermittent headaches, dizziness, nausea, and polycythemia (elevated hematocrit), most likely due to chronic carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning.
CO is a byproduct of combusting organic matter (eg, oil, gas, wood). Exposure to toxic levels is more likely in enclosed or poorly ventilated areas. CO tightly binds hemoglobin - forming carboxyhemoglobin - with an affinity much greater than that of oxygen. Nonsmokers have low levels (<3%) of carboxyhemoglobin (due to normal enzymatic reactions). Cigarette smokers may have carboxyhemoglobin levels as high as 10%. Even though patients at this level are generally asymptomatic, small additional amounts of CO exposure may cause toxicity manifesting as headache, malaise, and nausea.
Carboxyhemoglobin shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the left, impairing the ability of heme to unload oxygen at the tissue level. This results in tissue hypoxia. The kidney responds to tissue hypoxia by producing more erythropoietin (EPO). EPO stimulates the bone marrow to differentiate more red blood cells. Chronic CO toxicity is a cause of secondary polycythemia.
Pulse oximetry does not differentiate between carboxyhemoglobin and oxyhemoglobin; it cannot be used in the diagnosis of CO poisoning. Diagnosis is made by arterial blood gas with cooximetry.
Treat with high-flow 100% oxygen and in severe cases intubation/hyperbaric oxyge

435
Q

Elderly patient with severe lymphocytosis combined with hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy and bicytopenia (anemia, thrombocytopenia) strongly suggests

A

CLL

Diagnosed by flow cytometry (showing a clonality of mature B cells)

436
Q

Superior vena cava syndrome work up

A

Chest x-ray
If abnormal then chest CT and histology to determine tumor type and guide therapy
MC cause of obstruction is malignancy like lung cancer or non-hodgkin lymphoma

SVC syndrome is obstruction of the SVC impedes venous return from the head, neck and arms to the heart
Signs and symptoms include dyspnea, venous congestion aand swelling of the head, neck and arms

437
Q

Male with a persistent palpable firm neck mass, referred otalgia, smoking history and no preceding infection most common cause

A

Malignancy is extremely likely in a patient with a persistent (>2 weeks), palpable (>1.5 cm), firm neck mass; a smoking history; and no preceding infection. By far the most common malignancy in an upper cervical node is mucosal head and neck squamous cell carcinoma (SCC). Indeed, the first (and only) apparent manifestation may be a palpable cervical lymph node, representing regional nodal metastasis. Referred otalgia is another common presenting symptom, facilitated by either the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) (innervates both the base of tongue and the external auditory canal [EAC]) or the vagus nerve (CN X; innervates parts of the larynx/hypopharynx and the EAC).
Identification of the primary source of head and neck SCC is essential to direct treatment. Thorough examination includes endoscopic visualization using laryngopharyngoscopy as well as neck imaging (CT with contrast) to evaluate the primary site and characterize the cervical nodal disease. Fine-needle aspiration of the lymph node is advised over open biopsy to avoid tumor seeding.