Title Flashcards

1
Q

What is the percentage weight of Insurance Regulations in the UTAH TITLE EXAM?

A

10%

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2
Q

What are the qualifications required for licensing under 31A-23a-107?

A
  • Intent in good faith to engage in the business
  • Competent and trustworthy
  • Over 18 years old
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3
Q

What is the purpose of licensing according to 31A-23a-101?

A
  • Promoting professional competence
  • Providing maximum freedom of marketing methods
  • Preserving and encouraging competition
  • Regulating insurance marketing practices
  • Governing qualifications and procedures for licensing
  • Promoting uniform licensing requirements
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4
Q

What must a person do to be licensed under general requirements (31A-23a-105 – 108)?

A
  • File an application
  • Satisfy character requirements
  • Satisfy continuing education requirements
  • Satisfy examination requirements
  • Satisfy training period requirements
  • Maintain errors and omission coverage
  • Submit to a criminal background check
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5
Q

What are the additional requirements for Title Insurance Producers under 31A-23a-204?

A
  • Agency must be owned or managed by someone licensed for 3 to 5 years
  • Maintain financial protection of $50,000
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6
Q

What are the continuing education requirements for individuals with less than 20 years of experience?

A

12 credit hours with 3 hours of ethics every 2-year licensing period

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7
Q

True or False: A licensee must notify the commissioner within 30 days of a change of address.

A

True

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8
Q

What can happen to a licensee after a hearing for persistent violations of insurance law?

A
  • Revocation
  • Suspension
  • Probation
  • Limitation of license
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9
Q

What is the maximum fine for individual producers for violations of insurance statutes?

A

$2,500 for each violation

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10
Q

Fill in the blank: The commissioner may impose a fine of up to _______ for each day of non-compliance with an order.

A

$10,000

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11
Q

What is the role of the Title and Escrow Commission according to 31A-2-404?

A
  • Make rules for title insurance matters
  • Concur in issuance and renewal of licenses
  • Establish fees for title licensees
  • Advise on critical industry matters
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12
Q

Who appoints the members of the Title and Escrow Commission?

A

The governor with the consent of the Senate

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13
Q

What is required for title insurers regarding solvency according to 31A-4-105?

A

Maintain a deposit equivalent to the minimum required capital or surplus

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14
Q

What is the effective date for changes to escrow charges once filed?

A

30 days after the change is filed

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15
Q

Fill in the blank: A licensee may request reinstatement of a lapsed license no later than _______ after the license lapses.

A

one year

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16
Q

What is the maximum fine for a class B misdemeanor?

A

$10,000 for a corporation; $5,000 for an individual

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17
Q

What actions must a licensee report to the commissioner?

A
  • Administrative action taken against them
  • Criminal prosecution in any jurisdiction
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18
Q

What is the duration limit for a probation period imposed by the commissioner?

A

24 months

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19
Q

True or False: Title insurers must file rates and supplementary information with the commissioner.

A

True

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20
Q

What should a licensee maintain to receive communications from the DOI?

A

A valid business email address

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21
Q

What must an insurer or agency do when terminating the appointment of an individual or agency?

A

Electronically terminate the appointment no later than 30 days after the effective date of termination.

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22
Q

What constitutes ‘unfair claim settlement practices’?

A

Examples include:
* Knowingly misrepresenting material facts
* Altering a policy application without consent
* Failing to settle clear claims
* Delaying claims investigation
* Threatening to deny claims without clear reasons.

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23
Q

Within how many days must insurers complete their investigations after receiving a properly executed proof of loss?

A

30 days.

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24
Q

What is the definition of ‘rebate’ in the context of insurance?

A

A licensee paying, allowing, giving, or offering to pay, allow, or give, directly or indirectly, a refund of premium or portion of premium.

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25
Q

True or False: A title insurer may pay any rebate or reduction of any rate as an inducement to obtain title insurance business.

A

False.

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26
Q

What must a licensee maintain with the commissioner?

A
  • Address and telephone numbers of the principal place of business
  • Valid business email address
  • Individual’s residence address (individual licensees only).
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27
Q

What does ‘controlled business’ refer to in insurance regulations?

A

Referring title business that financially benefits the person who refers the business is prohibited unless records of transactions are maintained.

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28
Q

What actions are prohibited under false advertising regulations?

A

Making communications that contain false or misleading information, including promising nonobligatory payments of future dividends.

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29
Q

Fill in the blank: Insurers must pay a claim within ______ days after the insurer is furnished written proof of the fact of a covered loss.

A

30.

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30
Q

What is required of title insurers regarding documentation necessary to support policy insuring provisions?

A

They may not intentionally delay, neglect, or refuse to record or deliver documentation.

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31
Q

What is the penalty for failing to provide a written explanation of the basis for denial of a claim?

A

It constitutes an unfair claim settlement practice.

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32
Q

What must be included in the records of each transaction maintained by a licensee?

A
  • Insurance contract details
  • Names of others paid
  • Records of complaints.
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33
Q

What are the consequences for insurers that fail to pay claims within the required time frame?

A

They may be penalized for delaying payment of claims.

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34
Q

What constitutes a fraudulent insurance act?

A
  • Misrepresenting facts on an application
  • Withholding information with intent to deceive.
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35
Q

True or False: A title producer may provide gifts to clients in connection with social events like birthdays.

A

False.

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36
Q

What is the maximum expenditure allowed per guest for a title producer’s open house?

A

$15.

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37
Q

What is the required retention period for records maintained by a licensee?

A

Current calendar year plus 3 years.

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38
Q

What is prohibited regarding the payment of commissions in connection with controlled business?

A

Sharing commissions if it results in unlawful rebates or compensation.

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39
Q

What must a title producer do before issuing a title insurance commitment?

A

Have sufficient evidence of a bona fide real estate transaction or request from a proposed insured.

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40
Q

Fill in the blank: A title insurer may not use other entities to ______ these rules.

A

avoid.

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41
Q

What practices are considered unfair inducements in obtaining title insurance business?

A

Furnishing services not related to title insurance, waiving established fees, and providing gifts of value.

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42
Q

What must a title producer do if it has a financial interest in an insurer?

A

Maintain records of transactions.

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43
Q

What does the term ‘defamation of insurer’ refer to?

A

Making false statements that harm the reputation of an insurer.

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44
Q

What is required of a title producer regarding advertising?

A

Advertisements must be purely self-promotional and not misleading.

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45
Q

What is the maximum expenditure per guest for a title producer’s open house?

A

$15 per guest

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46
Q

What type of items can a title producer distribute as self-promotional items?

A

Novelty items which are non-edible and may not be personalized or bear the name of the donee

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47
Q

Under what conditions can a title producer conduct continuing education programs?

A
  • Must address title insurance or related topics
  • At least one hour in duration
  • $15 or less per person for each hour
  • No more than one program per client office per quarter
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48
Q

What is the maximum value for flowers or gifts a title producer can provide for personal events?

A

$75

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49
Q

What information may a title producer include in a property profile?

A
  • Last vesting deed of public record
  • Plat map reproduction and/or locator map
  • Tax and property characteristics information
  • Covenants, Conditions and Restrictions
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50
Q

True or False: A title producer can provide information about specific properties only to clients or prospective clients.

A

False

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51
Q

What are the three types of authority a producer can have?

A
  • Express
  • Implied
  • Apparent
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52
Q

What is required for a contract to be legally binding?

A
  • Offer
  • Acceptance
  • Consideration
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53
Q

What is the definition of ‘consideration’ in contract law?

A

A bargained-for exchange between the parties that is of legal value

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54
Q

What is a ‘Warranty Deed’?

A

A deed in which the Grantor gives warranty of title and encumbrances through the entire title chain

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55
Q

Fill in the blank: Title to personal property may be conveyed by a _______.

A

Bill of Sale

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56
Q

What is the difference between real property and personal property?

A

Real property is land and everything permanently attached to it, while personal property is movable and not recognized as real property.

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57
Q

What is a ‘Quitclaim Deed’?

A

A deed in which the Grantor transfers title or any interest in title without warranty

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58
Q

What does ‘capacity’ refer to in contract law?

A

The legal ability to enter into a contract

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59
Q

What are the elements of promissory estoppel?

A
  • Promise
  • Reasonable, detrimental reliance
  • Enforcement necessary to avoid injustice
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60
Q

What is the Statute of Frauds?

A

A legal principle that requires certain contracts to be in writing to be enforceable

61
Q

True or False: An insurance contract is a contract of adhesion.

62
Q

What is ‘utmost good faith’ in insurance contracts?

A

Honest intentions free from intention to defraud

63
Q

What is the effect of a mutual mistake in contract law?

A

The contract may be voidable by the adversely affected party

64
Q

What is the definition of ‘real property’?

A

A parcel of land and everything that is permanently attached to the land

65
Q

What is an example of personal property?

A

Car, kitchen table, lawn mower, clothing, pets

66
Q

What is a ‘Deed in Lieu of Foreclosure’?

A

A deed where the Grantor conveys title to a lender in exchange for the release of personal obligation to the debt

67
Q

What constitutes a counteroffer in contract negotiations?

A

A response to an offer that terminates the original offer and becomes a new offer

68
Q

What does ‘conveyance’ mean in real estate?

A

The act of transferring title to real property

69
Q

What is the effect of a unilateral mistake in contract law?

A

Generally will not prevent formation of a contract unless the nonmistaken party knew of the mistake

70
Q

What is the definition of ‘fraud’ in contract law?

A

Material misrepresentation with intention to deceive and reliance by the injured party

71
Q

What is the Grantor’s personal obligation to the debt?

A

The Grantor is personally obligated to the debt associated with the property.

72
Q

What is a Boundary Line Agreement?

A

Conveyances in which two parties agree to a new boundary line and convey any interest on each side of the boundary line without warranty.

73
Q

Define involuntary conveyances.

A

The transfer of real property without the owner’s consent, typically done by a court or a party with a legal right to take title from the owner.

74
Q

What is a Trustee’s Deed?

A

Deed issued in the foreclosure of real property by a Deed of Trust secured on the property by the Trustee on the Deed of Trust to the party that acquired the property at a foreclosure auction.

75
Q

What is a Tax Deed/Auditor’s Deed?

A

Deed in which the county tax department takes the property five years of delinquent real property taxes and conveys title to the party that acquired the property at a tax sale auction.

76
Q

What is a Sheriff’s Deed?

A

Deed in which a court issues a Writ of Execution to instruct the county sheriff’s office to sell property to satisfy the debt of a lien or judgment to convey title to the party that acquired the property at a sheriff’s sale auction.

77
Q

What is a Quit Title Order?

A

An order issued by a Utah district court that will strip an owner of a right in a property and may convey that ownership right to another party.

78
Q

What is a Condemnation Order?

A

An order issued by a Utah district court for the right of the government to take private property for public use, with payment of compensation to an owner.

79
Q

What is Adverse Possession?

A

A legal doctrine supplemented by portions of Utah law in which a person in possession of land owned by someone else may acquire valid title to it, so long certain requirements are met.

80
Q

What are the elements required to establish adverse possession?

A
  • Actual
  • Open
  • Notorious
  • Exclusive
  • Hostile
  • Continuous throughout Utah’s 7 year statutory period
81
Q

What properties are restricted from Adverse Possession Claims?

A
  • Government property
  • Water rights (in Utah)
82
Q

What is the legal doctrine of Boundaries by Acquiescence?

A

A legal doctrine that a long-standing marker indicating where property owners understand a boundary to be located become the actual boundary, even if a survey places it elsewhere.

83
Q

What is the legal doctrine of Boundaries by Agreement?

A

Both parties agree, must mark boundary, actual line uncertain or in dispute, agreement must continue uncontested for 20 years.

84
Q

What is Accession?

A

A property owner’s right to all that is added to real property naturally or by labor, including land left by floods, and improvements made by others, such as a concrete driveway.

85
Q

What is Dedication in real property law?

A

The conveyance of land for public use or creation of an easement for public use.

86
Q

What does Escheats refer to?

A

Reversion of property to the state upon the death of an owner who has neither a will nor any legal heirs.

87
Q

What is Tenants in Common?

A

Ownership by two or more parties in which each tenant has a separate ownership right of possession.

88
Q

What happens to a tenant in common’s ownership upon their death?

A

Their ownership right is retained by their estate.

89
Q

What is Joint Tenancy?

A

Ownership by two or more individuals with shared ownership right of possession.

90
Q

What happens to the ownership right upon the death of a joint tenant?

A

The ownership right will transfer by law to the other joint tenant.

91
Q

What is Community Property?

A

A law that the assets of an individual in a spousal relationship are the assets of both spouses.

92
Q

List the types of parties that can hold title to real property.

A
  • Individual
  • Corporation
  • Limited Liability Company
  • General Partnerships
  • Limited Partnerships
  • Trustee of a Trust
93
Q

Define Monetary Encumbrance.

A

All mortgages, deeds of trusts, security instruments or lien in which the debt owed is secured with property.

94
Q

What is a Voluntary Lien?

A

A lien established by the debtor granting a property interest in exchange for a monetary loan or debt.

95
Q

What is a Deed of Trust?

A

Document in which a real property owner conveys a property interest to a lender, held in trust by an appointed trustee.

96
Q

What is a Mortgage?

A

Document in which a real property owner conveys a property interest to a lender, requiring a court order to foreclose.

97
Q

What is an Involuntary Lien?

A

A lien established by a court or recorded by a party without a grant or consent by the property owner.

98
Q

What is a Judgment in terms of liens?

A

A monetary judgment given by a court in favor of a private creditor and recorded with the county recorder’s office.

99
Q

What is a Mechanic’s Lien?

A

A lien recorded with real property by a person or entity that claims an interest in property related to labor or materials for the real property.

100
Q

Define Legal Description.

A

A geographical description of real property that identifies its precise location and boundaries.

101
Q

What are the two Base and Meridians in Utah?

A
  • Salt Lake Base and Meridian
  • Uintah Special Base and Meridian
102
Q

What is a Township in the rectangular survey system?

A

A six square mile area containing 36 sections.

103
Q

How many acres are in a Section?

A

640 acres.

104
Q

What is a Metes and Bounds description?

A

A form of legal description that uses angles and distance of property boundaries.

105
Q

What is required for a property owner to receive a residential tax exemption?

A

Application from a property owner for a 45% reduction in the county assessed value of the property.

106
Q

When are property taxes due in Utah?

A

Property taxes become due and payable on November 1st of the tax year.

107
Q

What is a rollback tax?

A

Tax charged by the county if property is removed from Farmland Assessment, calculated by assessing the full tax payment for the prior 5 year period.

108
Q

What is the purpose of a Title Insurance Policy?

A

To provide warranties made by the Grantor to the Grantee regarding the ownership and rights to the property.

109
Q

What happens if the rollback tax is not paid within 30 days of removal from Farmland Assessment?

A

The county may record a Notice of Rollback Tax Lien on the property.

110
Q

What is the purpose of a Title Insurance Policy?

A

To provide warranties made by the Grantor to the Grantee regarding title ownership and rights.

111
Q

List some warranties made by the Grantor to the Grantee in a Warranty Deed.

A
  • Grantor lawfully owns fee simple title to the property
  • Grantor has good right to convey the property
  • Grantor guarantees quiet possession of the property
  • The property is free from all encumbrances
  • Grantor will warrant and defend Title to the premises
112
Q

What is an Owner’s Policy of Title Insurance?

A

A policy that handles warranties and provides additional coverages under the terms of the policy.

113
Q

Define a title insurance underwriter.

A

The company that insures the title policy and handles any claims against the policy.

114
Q

What is the role of a title insurance agent?

A

A title company that issues title insurance policies on behalf of a title insurance underwriter.

115
Q

What is a Commitment in title insurance?

A

A form in which the title insurer commits to insure real property subject to exceptions and requirements.

116
Q

What does a Loan Policy of Title Insurance protect?

A

It protects the lender from damages resulting from warranties regarding title.

117
Q

What is covered under the general risks of a Title Insurance Policy?

A
  • Title vested other than stated
  • Defects in lien or encumbrance
  • Unmarketable Title
  • No right of access
  • Violations of laws or ordinances
118
Q

What types of legal entities can hold a real property interest?

A
  • Individual person
  • Corporation
  • General Partnership
  • Limited Partnership
  • Limited Liability Company
  • Trust or Trustees of a Trust
119
Q

What is a Fee Simple Estate?

A

The ownership of all real property interest included on the land.

120
Q

Fill in the blank: A _______ is a policy that can be issued with either an owner’s policy or lender’s policy form that insures the status of title and validity of a real property lease.

A

[Leasehold policy]

121
Q

What is the role of endorsements in a title policy?

A

To provide additional coverages or exclusions not already contained in the title policy.

122
Q

What are the requirements for a notary public in Utah?

A
  • Be 18 years of age or older
  • Lawfully reside in Utah for 30 days
  • Able to read, write, and understand English
  • Application with fee
  • Bond of $5,000 filed with the lieutenant governor
123
Q

What is a Mechanic’s Lien?

A

A lien placed on a property to secure payment for work performed or materials supplied.

124
Q

What is the significance of a judgment in relation to real property?

A

A judgment does not create a lien on real property unless it is filed in the Registry of Judgments.

125
Q

True or False: Judgments in favor of state agencies must be recorded with the county recorder to have an effective lien.

126
Q

What is required to release a lien created by a judgment?

A

A document must be recorded in the office of the county recorder of each county where the lien is recorded.

127
Q

What are the fiduciary responsibilities of escrow producers?

A

To manage trust funds without commingling them with personal funds and to act as a trustee.

128
Q

What types of funds may be deposited into an escrow account?

A
  • Premiums
  • Fees or taxes paid with premiums
  • Funds from escrow settlements or closings
  • Amounts for bank charges
129
Q

What must be included in a notary acknowledgment for electronic documents?

A

The notary’s full name, commission number, and expiration date.

130
Q

What must the contract between the insurer and licensee allow for EFTs?

A

The contract must allow EFTs in and out of the licensee’s trust account and require specific authorization for each transfer.

131
Q

What account must the licensee have for EFTs?

A

A separate account for EFTs with each insurer.

132
Q

What are the requirements for an individual or agency producer to do escrow?

A
  • Licensed with title line of authority and escrow subline of authority
  • Appointed by a title insurer authorized to do business in the state
  • Issues an owner’s policy or lender’s policy as part of the transaction
  • Money deposited in a federally insured financial institution and in a separate trust account
  • Money deposited is the property of persons entitled under escrow provisions
  • The money is segregated escrow by escrow in the records
  • Earnings may be paid out in accordance with escrow conditions
  • The escrow does not require holding construction or 1031 money
  • Physical office in Utah staffed by a person with an escrow subline of authority
133
Q

Under what conditions can a producer do escrow for personal property?

A

For escrows involving mobile homes, grazing rights, water rights, or other personal property authorized by the commissioner.

134
Q

What are the restrictions on money held in escrow?

A
  • Not subject to the producer’s debts
  • May only be used to fulfill the terms of the individual escrow
  • May not be used until escrow conditions are met
135
Q

What must a producer do with assets received into escrow other than money?

A
  • Preserve and protect the asset from loss, theft, or damages
  • Comply with the duties and responsibilities of a fiduciary or bailee
136
Q

When can cash be disbursed from the escrow account?

A

Cash may be disbursed on the same day the cash is deposited.

137
Q

When can a wire transfer be disbursed from the escrow account?

A

A wire transfer may be disbursed on the same day the wire transfer is deposited.

138
Q

What types of financial instruments may be disbursed on the same day they are deposited?

A
  • Cashier’s check
  • Certified check
  • Official check
  • Personal check not to exceed $500 per closing
  • A check drawn on the escrow account of another title insurance producer
139
Q

What are the conditions for disbursing a check not described in the previous flashcard?

A
  • Within the time limits under the Expedited Funds Availability Act
  • Upon notification from the financial institution that final settlement has occurred
140
Q

What must a producer maintain regarding escrow money?

A

A record of a receipt or disbursement of escrow money.

141
Q

What types of costs may a borrower pay according to FHA requirements?

A
  • Lender’s origination fee
  • Deposit verification fees
  • Attorneys’ fees
  • Appraisal fees
  • Title insurance
  • Document preparation
  • Survey
  • Credit report
  • Transfer stamps and recording fees
  • Home inspection fees up to $200
  • Wire transfer fees (refinance only)
  • Courier fees (refinance only)
  • Fees to payoff bills (refinance only)
142
Q

What costs may a veteran borrower NOT pay according to VA requirements?

A
  • Attorneys’ fees
  • Brokerage fees/commissions
  • Prepayment penalties
  • HUD/FAH inspection fees for builders
143
Q

What does the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act (RESPA) prohibit?

A

No person shall give or accept any fee, kickback, or thing of value for real estate settlement services involving a federally related mortgage loan.

144
Q

What is required before disbursing funds in the recording and disbursement procedures?

A

Record first, then disburse funds.

145
Q

What is a 1031 Exchange?

A

A tax-deferred exchange of investment properties.

146
Q

What is the first leg of a 1031 Exchange?

A

Proceeds of the sale of investment property go to an exchange company.

147
Q

What does constructive notice refer to?

A

A legal presumption that a party has notice of certain facts by due diligence or inquiry into public records.

148
Q

Who is responsible for the recording of the executed deed?

A

The Grantee.

149
Q

What are the requirements to record under R592-14?

A

Acknowledgments and presumptions.