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ESA1 Review > Tissues of the Body > Flashcards

Tissues of the Body Flashcards

1
Q

Define epithelia.

A
  • Sheets of contiguous tissue
  • Varying embryonic origin
  • Cover external surfaces & line internal surfaces
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2
Q

How many days does it take for skin to be renewed?

A

28 Days

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3
Q

How many days does it take for small intestine epithelia to be renewed?

A

4-6 Days

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4
Q

What are the 4 regions of the epidermis in descending depth?

A

I remember it as SGPB, a more amusing one might be Horny Grannies Pickle Beetroot.

  • Stratum Corneum (horny)
  • Granular Layer
  • Prickle Cell Layer
  • Basal Layer
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5
Q

What are the 6 layers of the wall of the oesophagus?

A
  • Epithelium
  • Lamina Propria
  • Muscularis Mucosa
  • Submucosa
  • Muscularis Externa
  • Adventitia
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6
Q

What are the four layers of the ailmentary tract?

A
  • Mucosa
  • Submucosa
  • Muscularis externa
  • Serosa
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7
Q

What can needle methods of biopsy be used for?

A
  • Brain
  • Breast
  • Liver
  • Kidney
  • Muscle
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8
Q

What can a smear biopsy be used for?

A
  • Cervix
  • Buccal cavity

Everyone knows about cervical smears but it can also be used in the mouth for the exact same reason.

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9
Q

What can curettage be used for?

A

Testing endometrial lining of uterus

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10
Q

What can direct incision be used for?

A
  • Skin
  • Mouth
  • Larynx
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11
Q

What can endoscopic methods be used for?

A

Think about what you can see if you shove a pipe up or down the two orifices:

  • Lung
  • Intestine
  • Bladder
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12
Q

What can transvascular methods be used for?

A
  • Heart

- Liver

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13
Q

What do serous membranes consist of?

A
  • Simple, squamous epithelium

- Connective tissue

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14
Q

What does a mucous membrane consist of?

A
  • Epithelium
  • Lamina propria
  • Muscularis mucosa
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15
Q

What is a gland described as if it’s ducts branch?

A

Complex/compound

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16
Q

What is a gland?

A

An epithelial cell/collection of epithelial cells specialised for secretion.

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17
Q

What is an endocrine gland?

A

A ductless gland which secretes directly into the blood

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18
Q

What is an exocrine gland?

A

A gland with ducts

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19
Q

What is confocal microscopy?

A

Labelling of a tissue with multiple probes to produce a 3D render

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20
Q

What is connective tissue?

A
  • A tissue (group of cells)
  • Mesodermal origin
  • Consists of cells and protein fibers embedded in a chiefly carbohydrate ground substance
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21
Q

What are the special molecules contained in mucous?

A

Mucins (high glycosylated polypeptides) which stain badly in H&E

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22
Q

What is Dark Field microscopy and why is it used?

A

Don’t include the unscattered light from beam so it can be used to view live and unstained samples

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23
Q

What is PAS and what does it stain?

A

Periodic Acid-Schiff stains carbohydrates and glycoproteins magneta

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24
Q

What is Phase Contrast and why is it used?

A

The interference effects of combining two light waves to enhance the image of unstained cells

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25
Q

What is the basement membrane?

A

The thin, flexible, acellular layer between the epithelial tissue and connective tissue

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26
Q

What is the benefit of glycosylation and where does it occur?

A

Branching sugars are added in the golgi and are responsible for interactions such as:

  • Inhibition
  • Communication
  • Adhesion
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27
Q

What is the definition of the term biopsy?

A

The removal of a small part of an organ for microscopic examination

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28
Q

What is the function of the basement membrane?

A
  • Provides surface for epithelia to adhere to
  • Cellular and molecular filter
  • Penetration into it gives an indication of cancer prognosis
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29
Q

What is the meaning of the word tissue?

A

A collection of cells specialised for a particular function

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30
Q

What is the purpose of ground substance?

A
  • Acts as a lubricant

- Barrier to pathogens

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31
Q

What is transepithelial transport?

A

When a molecule is too large to be taken though a membrane it is endocytosed into a vesicle and then exocytosed

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32
Q

What parts of a tissue does H&E stain?

A
  • Haematoxylin stains acidic components in the nucleus purple/blue
  • Eosin stains alkaline components in the cytoplasm pink
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33
Q

What two components make up the extracellular matrix?

A

Fibers and ground substance

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34
Q

Where can endocrine glands be found?

A
  • Thyroid
  • Pancreas
  • Adrenal
  • Parathyroid
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35
Q

Suggest some places where exocrine glands can be found?

A
  • Goblet cells (unicellular glands) in Jejunum
  • Submandibular
  • Parotid
  • Pancreas
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36
Q

Where can the protein elastin found?

A

Dermis of the skin

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37
Q

Which areas in the body are simple squamous epithelia located?

A
  • Loop of Henle
  • Bowman’s capsule of Kidney
  • Mesothelium
  • Endothelium
  • Alveoli
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38
Q

Which areas of the body are keratinised stratified squamous epithelia located?

A

-Skin

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39
Q

Which areas of the body are non-keratinised stratified squamous epithelia located?

A
  • Buccal cavity
  • Vagina
  • Anus
  • Oesophagus
  • Surface of cornea
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40
Q

Which areas of the body are simple columnar epithelia located?

A
  • Lining of the stomach
  • Small intestine
  • Uterus
  • Oviducts
  • Gallbladder
  • Ductuli Efferents of testis
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41
Q

Which areas of the body are simple cuboidal epithelia located?

A
  • Surface of the ovary as a barrier
  • Thyroid follicles
  • Kidney tubules
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42
Q

Which areas of the body are simple pseudostratified epithelia located?

A
  • Lining of nasal cavity
  • Trachea
  • Bronchi
  • Eustachian tube
  • Epididymis
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43
Q

Which areas of the body are stratified transitional epithelia located?

A

Urinary bits:

  • Ureters
  • Bladder
  • Calyces of kidney
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44
Q

Which fixatives are commonly used to fix tissues?

A

Glutaraldehyde and formaldehyde

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45
Q

Which type of secretion has vesicles in cell but not when released?

A

Merocrine (exocytosis)

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46
Q

Which type of secretion has vesicles pinched off from the cell membrance?

A

Apocrine

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47
Q

Which type of secretion involves the entire cell being released and disintegrating?

A

Holocrine

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48
Q

Why are shrinkage artefacts commonly created?

A

The dehydration and rehydration in slide preparation

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49
Q

Why is histology important?

A
  • Provides gold standard of diagnosis

- Inform what specific type of treatment to give a patient

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50
Q

What is histology?

A

The study of the structures of tissues by means of special staining techniques combines with light and electron microscopy

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51
Q

Why do tissues need to be fixed?

A
  • Macro molecules are cross linked, preserving cellular structure
  • Prevents autolysis
  • Prevents putrefaction
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52
Q

Describe keratinocyte differentiation.

A

1) Keratinocyte mitosis occurs in BASAL layer
2) Daughter keratinocytes move into prickle cell layer where terminal differentiation occurs meaning the cells can no longer divide
3) Then in the granular layer cells lose plasma membrane and become corneocytes
4) FInally in the stratum corneum they are flattened corneocytes

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53
Q

Where are melanocytes found?

A

Basal cell layer of epidermis

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54
Q

What do melanocytes produce?

A

Melanin N.B. More melanin production leads to darker skin - not more melanocytes

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55
Q

Where are Langerhans cells found?

A

Prickle cell layer of the epidermis

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56
Q

What is the function of Langerhans cells?

A

Specialised to present antigens to T lymphocytes to mediate immune response

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57
Q

Where is the epidermal basement membrane located?

A

Occurs at the dermo-epidermal junction below the basal layer of the epidermis

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58
Q

What 5 cell constituents make up the dermis?

A
  • Fibroblasts
  • Blood vessels
  • Lymphatic vessels
  • Mast Cells
  • Nerves
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59
Q

What are the components of the extracellular matrix in the dermis?

A
  • Ground Substance

- Fibres (Type 1 collagen, elastin etc.)

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60
Q

List the 4 types of skin appendage

A
  • Hair Follicles
  • Nails
  • Sebaceous glands
  • Eccrine and apocrine sweat glands
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61
Q

What are the 4 main functions of skin?

A
  • Barrier
  • Sensation
  • Thermoregulation
  • Psychosexual communication (whey!)
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62
Q

What are the three histological forms of muscle?

A
  • Skeletal
  • Cardiac
  • Smooth
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63
Q

Which two histological forms of muscle are striated?

A
  • Cardiac

- Skeletal

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64
Q

What is the thick filament called?

A

Myosin

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65
Q

What is the thin filament called?

A

Actin

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66
Q

Outline the 5 stages of the sliding filament model of muscle contraction, starting with attachment.

A
  • Attachment of the myosin head to the actin molecule
  • Release of the myosin head when ATP binds
  • Cocking of the myosin head due to hydrolysis of ATP
  • Force generation as the myosin weakly binds and the phosphate is released leading to the power stroke
  • Reattachment of the myosin head to the actin
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67
Q

How does calcium allow for the binding of myosin to actin?

A
  • Increased amounts of calcium bind to the TnC part of troponin
  • Conformational change moves tropomyosin away from the actin binding site
  • This displacement allows for the binding of myosin to the actin site
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68
Q

Describe the mechanism of innervation of muscle and excitation contraction coupling. (6 points)

A
  • Action potential arrives at the pre synaptic neurone causing influx of Ca2+
  • Causes vesicles containing acetylcholine to fuse with membrane and release Ach
  • Binds to nicotinic receptors (nAch receptors) on the motor end plate
  • Binding leads to depolarisation of the sarcolemma by an influx of sodium
  • Proteins in T tubule change conformation causing calcium to be released from the terminal cisternae into the sarcoplasm
  • Ca2+ binds to Tnc on troponin casuing contraction
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69
Q

Which connective tissue surrounds the entire muscle?

A

Epimysium

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70
Q

Which connective tissue surrounds the muscle fascicle?

A

Perimysium

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71
Q

Which connective tissue is inside each fascicle?

A

Endomysium

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72
Q

Where do skeletal muscle fibres interdigitate with tendon collagen bundles?

A

Myotendinous junction

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73
Q

What do many fascicles make up?

A

Muscles

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74
Q

What do myofilaments make up?

A

Myofibrils

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75
Q

What are muscle fibres made of?

A

Myofibrils

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76
Q

What are fascicles made of?

A

Muscle fibres

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77
Q

How can skeletal muscle be repaired?

A

Tissue regenerates by the mitotic activity of satellite cells which fuse with muscle cells to increase mass

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78
Q

Cardiac muscle cannot be regenerated, what happens instead?

A

Fibroblasts invade, divide and lay down scar tissue

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79
Q

Which muscle cells retain their mitotic activity?

A

Smooth muscle

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80
Q

Which six features could distinguish cardiac muscle from other types of muscle?

A
  • Branching
  • Centrally placed nucleus (doesn’t occur in skeletal)
  • Intercalated discs
  • Adherens type junctions
  • Striations (don’t occur in smooth)
  • Purkinje fibres
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81
Q

Which type of muscle has the T tubules in line with Z lines?

A

Cardiac muscle

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82
Q

What is the function of gap junctions?

A

Electrical coupling

83
Q

Which type of muscle has the T tubules in line with A-I band junction?

A

Skeletal muscle

84
Q

What shape are the cells of smooth muscle?

A

Spindle-shaped (fusiform)

85
Q

What type of muscle has no sarcomeres or T Tubules?

A

Smooth muscle

86
Q

What are the benefits of smooth muscle?

A
  • Contraction is more sustained
  • Contraction requires less ATP
  • Capable of being stretched
87
Q

What are the features of Purkinje fibres?

A
  • Abundant glycogen
  • Sparse myofilaments
  • Extensive gap junction sites
  • Rapid conduction of action potentials
88
Q

What is the function of Purkinje fibres?

A

They transmit action potentials to the ventricles from the atrioventricular node

89
Q

What is it called when more muscle is destroyed than created?

A

Atrophy

90
Q

What is it called when more muscle is created than destroyed?

A

Hypertrophy

91
Q

What is another name for sensory neurones? What is their function?

A

Afferent neurones carry impulses to the central nervous system

92
Q

What is another name for motor neurones? What is their function?

A

Efferent neurones carry impulses away from the central nervous system

93
Q

What type of connective tissue is an entire nerve surrounded by?

A

Epineurium

94
Q

What type of connective tissue is a nerve fascicle surrounded by?

A

Perineurium

95
Q

What type of connective tissue is a single axon cell surrounded by?

A

Endoneurium

96
Q

What are neurones with multiple dendrites known as?

A

Multi-polar

97
Q

What are neurones with one axon and one dendrite known as? Where are they usually found?

A

Bi-polar neurones usually found in the retina of the eye

98
Q

What are neurones with one axon only known as? Give an example of one type.

A

Unipolar - the primary sensory neurone

99
Q

What is the sleeve of Schwann cells surrounding peripheral nerves called?

A

Neurolemma

100
Q

What are the gaps between Schwann cells called?

A

Nodes of Ranvier

101
Q

Which histological stain is commonly used to detect the myelin sheath? Why?

A

Osmium tetroxide as the myelin sheath is predominately lipid which is soluble in most of the common staining techniques.

102
Q

In the CNS what maintains the myelin coating?

A

Glial cells called oligodendrocytes

103
Q

Which nervous system nervous system contains myelinated (CNS) and unmyelinated (PNS) neurones?

A

Autonomic (involuntary) nervous system

104
Q

Which nervous system contains myelinated neurones only?

A

Somatic (voluntary) nervous system

105
Q

What type of neurotransmitter do excitatory neurones release?

A

Release glutamate/aspartate neurotransmitter

106
Q

What type of neurotransmitter do inhibitory neurones release?

A

Release of glycine/GABA neurotransmitter

107
Q

How does demyelination relate to a slowing of conduction velocity?

A

The impulse can no longer jump from Node of Ranvier by saltatory conduction and therefore cannot be propagated as quickly meaning the impulse moves slower

108
Q

What is the name for the nerve cell body?

A

Perikaryon

109
Q

What are the 4 main features of the perikaryon?

A
  • Nucleus
  • Nucleolus
  • Nissl substance (aggregation of RER)
  • Dendrite
110
Q

What is the function of astrocytes? Where are they found?

A

Astrocytes are found in the blood brain barrier of the CNS and assist in the transfer of nutrients/waste

111
Q

What is the function of oligodendrocytes? Where are they found?

A

Maintenance of the myelin sheath in the CNS

112
Q

What is the function of microglia? Where are they found?

A

The microglia are important in immune and inflammatory responses in both the CNS and PNS

113
Q

What is the function of satellite cells?

A

Physical support of peripheral neurones

114
Q

The autonomic nervous system is made up of which two neurones?

A

Pre-ganglionic and post-ganglionic

115
Q

Why is the sympathetic nervous described as having a thoraco-lumbar outflow?

A

Its cells begin in the thoracic and lumbar regions of the spinal cord

116
Q

Why is the parasympathetic nervous described as having a cranio-sacral outflow?

A

Its cells begin in the cranial and sacral regions of the spinal cord

117
Q

What are the relative sizes of the pre and post ganglionic nerve fibres in the sympathetic nervous system?

A

Short pre-ganglionic and long post-ganglionic

118
Q

What are the relative sizes of the pre and post ganglionic nerve fibres in the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Long pre-ganglionic and short post-ganglionic

119
Q

What is the overall function of the sympathetic nervous system?

A
  • Fight/flight/fright
  • Diversion of blood to muscles
  • Increase in heart rate
  • Increase in blood pressure
  • Reduced blood flow to skin and GIT
120
Q

What is the overall function of the parasympathetic nervous system?

A
  • Relaxed state
  • Reduced heart rate
  • Increased digestion
  • Increased bodily functions
  • Increased sleep
121
Q

In the parasympathetic nervous system what type of transmitter is used in the pre ganglionic nerve fibre?

A

Cholinergic transmitters

122
Q

In the parasympathetic nervous system what type of transmitter is used in the post ganglionic nerve fibre?

A

Cholinergic transmitters

123
Q

In the parasympathetic nervous system what type of receptors do the post ganglionic neurones express?

A

Nicotinic receptors

124
Q

In the sympathetic nervous system what type of receptors do the post ganglionic neurones express?

A

Nicotinic receptors

125
Q

In the sympathetic nervous system what type of transmitter is used in the pre ganglionic nerve fibre?

A

Cholinergic transmitters

126
Q

In the sympathetic nervous system what type of transmitter (mainly) is used in the post ganglionic nerve fibre?

A

Noradrenergic transmitters

127
Q

In rare cases some post ganglionic transmitters of the sympathetic nervous system are not noradrenergic, what transmitter are they?

A

Cholinergic transmitters

128
Q

Give two examples of cholinergic transmitters of the post ganglionic nerve fibres of the sympathetic nervous system.

A
  • Perspiration

- Ejaculation

129
Q

Define the term “limit of resolution”

A

Limit of resolution is the minimum distance that two objects can be distinguished at.

130
Q

What is the glycocalyx?

A

The cell ‘coat’ made up of oligosaccharide and polysaccharide side chains on the outside of the plasma membrane.

131
Q

What are fibroblasts?

A

Synthesise and maintain extra-cellular materials. Synthesise collagen, elastic and reticular fibres and ground substance.

132
Q

What are mast cells?

A

Near blood vessels containing granules (histamine and heparin). They release pharmacologically active molecules.

133
Q

Where can reticular fibres be found?

A
  • Form a delicate network around smooth muscle cells, certain epithelial cells, blood vessels, adipocytes and nerve fibres
  • Make the structural framework around certain organs such as the liver, spleen, bone marrow and lymphoid organs.
134
Q

What is ground substance made up of?

A
  • Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)
  • Proteoglycans
  • Glycoproteins
135
Q

What gives elastic fibres their ability to stretch?

A

High lysine content

136
Q

What type of connective tissue is blood?

A

Loose

137
Q

Give some examples, other than blood, of loose connective tissue.

A

Forms the septa (walls) and trabeculae (rods) that make up the framework inside organs and adipose tissue.

138
Q

What are the three major types of cartilage?

A
  • Hyaline
  • Elastic
  • Fibrocartilage
139
Q

What are the main features of mucous connective tissue? Where is it found?

A
  • Large stellate fibroblasts (which fuse with similar adjacent cells), few macrophages and lymphocytes and soft ground substance full of hylauronic acid-Loose connective tissue
  • Only found in the umbilical cord and subdermal CT of the embryo.
140
Q

Where is areolar connective tissue found? What type of connective tissue is it?

A

Loose connective tissue found:

  • Deep under the skin
  • Submucosa
  • Below the mesothelium of the peritoneum
  • With adventitia of blood vessels
  • Surrounding the parenchyma of glands
141
Q

What is areolar connective tissue made up of?

A
  • Fibroblasts
  • Macrophages
  • Some mast cells
  • Collagen fibres are the most abundant
  • Elastin fibres also present.
142
Q

What type of tissue is adipose tissue?

A

Loose connective tissue

143
Q

What type of tissue is reticular tissue? Where is it found?

A

Loose connective tissue found in:

  • Liver
  • Kidney
  • Spleen
  • Lymph nodes
  • Bone marrow
144
Q

Name two places in the body where you could find dense regular connective tissue?

A
  • Ligaments

- Tendons

145
Q

What are ligaments made up of?

A

Dense regular connective tissue - Collagen fibres interspersed with fibroblasts

146
Q

What is the main histological difference between ligaments and tendons?

A

In ligaments collagen is less regularly arranged than in tendons.

147
Q

Describe the histological structure of tendons.

A
  • Collagen fibres interspersed with flattened fibroblasts in bundles -> fascicles
  • Fasiciles have endotendineum (loose CT) inside and held together by peritendineum. A fibrous sheath surrounds the whole tendon
148
Q

What is the benefit for the skin of havind dense irregular connective tissue?

A

Has Interwoven bundles of collagen which counteracts multi-directional forces

149
Q

What is the benefit for a tendon of having dense regular connective tissue?

A

Fibre bundles orientated in parallel to provide maximum tensile strength which means huge strength in one direction

150
Q

What is the main histological difference between loose and dense connective tissue? Why?

A

Dense CT has close packing of fibres with fewer cells and less ground substance. This allows it to achieve mechanical support and transmit forces

151
Q

What are entrapped chondroblasts known as?

A

Chondrocytes

152
Q

What is the function of the chondroblasts?

A

Secrete the matrix which entraps the cells

153
Q

What is cartilage made up of?

A
  • Organic substances
  • Mesenchymal cells
  • Collagen type I fibres
  • Ground substance (protein, glycoprotein, glycosaminoglycans, lipids and water)
154
Q

What is the cartilage often surrounded by? What is this made up of?

A

Perichondrium (dense irregular connective tissue) made up of:

  • Outer Fibrous layer
  • Inner cellular (chondrogenic) layer
155
Q

What is the foetal skeleton made up of?

A

Hyaline cartilage

156
Q

What are the two remnants of the hyaline cartilage (that made up the foetal skeleton) in the child?

A
  • Growth plates

- Articular cartilage

157
Q

What is the main type of collagen in hyaline and elastic cartilage? Why?

A

Type II Collagen for firm and flexible support

158
Q

What is the main type of collagen in fibrocartilage? Why?

A

Type I Collagen (in bundles) for mechanical strength and rigidity and Type II Collagen

159
Q

Which type of cartilage has no perichondrium?

A

Fibrocartilage

160
Q

Where can hyaline cartilage be found?

A
  • Respiratory passageways
  • Articulating surfaces of long bones
  • Anterior ends of the ribs
  • Foetal skeleton
161
Q

Where can elastic cartilage be found?

A
  • Pinna of ear
  • Epiglottis
  • Auditory tubes
162
Q

Where can fibrocartilage be found?

A
  • Intervertebral discs
  • Menisci of the knee
  • Pubic symphysis
163
Q

What are the main functions of bone?

A
  • Support
  • Protection
  • Mineral storage
  • Haemopoiesis.
164
Q

Describe the two different types of bone.

A
  • Compact (dense) bone made up of vertical osteons with horizontal Volkmann’s canals and vertical Haversian canals
  • Cancellous (spongy) bone
  • Meshwork of trabeculae filled in with marrow
165
Q

What are the two colours of marrow and what is their respective function?

A
  • Red: red blood cell synthesis

- Yellow: contains adipose tissue

166
Q

Which hormone stimulates osteoclasts to reabsorb bone matrix leading to calcium in the blood?

A

Parathyroid hormone

167
Q

What is the hardness and rigidity of bone due to?

A

The interaction between collagen and inorganic salts

168
Q

What three types of cells are found in bone?

A
  • Osteoblasts – synthesise organic bits of cells, make bone + produce osteoid matrix.
  • Osteocytes – found in the lacunae cavities, maintaining bone and are formed when osteoblasts are entombed
  • Osteoclasts – large multinucleated cells from monocytes that digest bone.
169
Q

What are the two types of ossification called? What do they give rise to?

A
  • Intramembranous - flat bones created from loose connective tissue/mesenchyme
  • Endochondral - most skeletal bones, made from the hyaline cartilage of foetus
170
Q

Describe the process of endochondral ossification

A
  • Cartilage is reabsorbed and replaced with bone (e.g. long bones)
  • Begins at the primary centre in the shaft (diaphysis) and later at each end (epiphysis – secondary centre)
  • Growth in length is at epiphyseal growth plates
171
Q

Describe the process of intramembranous ossification

A
  • Begins as highly vascularised loose connective tissue
  • Mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteoblasts surrounded by collagen fibres and ground substance
  • Osteoblasts secrete uncalcified matrix (osteoid) and then become osteocytes
172
Q

Describe the cellular processes involved in bone repair following a fracture.

A

1) Big ole’ hole in the bone and rupture of blood vessels supplying it - bone cells start dieing
2) Inflammatory cells invade that mess and form a huge haematoma (blood out of a vessel) - we refer to this as a pre-callus and it’s now got lots of cytokines and growth factors floating in it
3) Osteoblasts, chondroblasts and fibroblasts start creating a soft callus with bits of bone, cartilage and connective tissue in it
4) This soft callus is converted into a hard (bony) callus via endochondral ossification to make a solid lump of bone

173
Q

What is the transit time of a keratinocyte from basal layer to stratum corneum during keratinocyte differentiation?

A

30-40 days

174
Q

Describe the microstructure and organisation of muscles in order of size.

A
  • Fascicles
  • Muscle fibres (cells)
  • Myofibrils
  • Myofilaments (actin and myosin)
175
Q

What metabolic changes accompany hypertrophy?

A

Need more energy (ATP) and more oxygen:

  • Increased enzyme activity for glycolysis
  • Increased mitochondria
  • Increased stored glycogen
  • Increased blood flow
176
Q

An increase of muscle mass from work performed against load results in what? What is this described as?

A

More contractile proteins, increase in fibre diameter - Hypertrophy

177
Q

What is the benefit of the rapid conduction of the action potentials down Purkinje fibres?

A

Enables the ventricles to contract in a synchronous manner

178
Q

In general terms outline the process of haemopoiesis

A
  • Proliferation: Starting with a stem cell, the cell divides into two. One to replace the original stem cell (self-renewal) and one that differentiates.
  • Differentiation of haemopoietic progenitor (under influence of cytokine) to form either a myeloid blast (RBC, WBC, platelets) or a lymphoid blast (immunoresponse cells)
179
Q

What causes differentiation to red blood cells?

A

Erythropoietin

180
Q

What causes differentiation to platelet cells?

A

Thrombopoietin

181
Q

What is the main driver of erythropoiesis?

A

Partial pressure of O2 - if it’s low it stimulates increase in erythropoietin

182
Q

Name the 5 types of white blood cells that circulate in the blood and lymphatic system. What type of nucleus does each have?

A
  • Neutrophils (Multi-lobed nucleus)
  • Eosinophils (Bi-lobed)
  • Monocytes (Kidney shaped)
  • Basophils (Bi- or Tri-lobed)
  • Lymphocytes (Deep staining)
183
Q

What is the structure of erythrocytes?

A
  • Biconcave disc
  • 4 globin chains (2α & 2β)
  • Each molecule carries a haem
184
Q

What is the function of erythrocytes?

A

Carries O2 to tissues and CO2 to the lungs

185
Q

What is the structure of reticular cells?

A

Synthesise reticular fibres and surround them with cytoplasm

186
Q

What is the function of reticular cells?

A

Direct the T and B lymphocytes to specific regions with the lymphatic tissues

187
Q

Describe the core structure of platelets.

A
  • Small round blue particles
  • Produced by megakaryocytes in the bone marrow
  • Cytoplasm contains α fibrinogen, Von Willebrand’s factor and dense (ADP and Ca2+) granules
188
Q

Describe the core function of platelets.

A
  • Clotting cascade

- Adhere to damaged cells walls and aggregate together

189
Q

What is the function of eosinophils and neutrophils?

A

Phagocytosis

190
Q

What is the function of basophils?

A

Mediate acute inflammatory reactions using heparin and histamine

191
Q

Describe the main function of monocytes.

A
  • Migrate through the blood and become macrophages when leaving the blood in many organs of the body
  • When they become mature macrophages they are capable of phagocytosis and interacting with T cells
192
Q

Name the seven humoral components of the innate immunity system and briefly describe what each of them do?

A
  • Transferrin/Lactoferrin deprive microorganisms of iron
  • Interferons inhibit viral replication
  • Lysozymes breakdown peptidoglycan in bacterial cell walls
  • Antimicrobial peptides do what they say on the tin
  • Fibronectin – opsonises bacteria and promotes their phagocytosis
  • Complement causes destruction of microorganisms directly/with the help of phagocytic cells
  • TNF-α suppresses viral replication and activates phagocytes
193
Q

Name the five cellular components of the innate immunity system and describe what each of them do?

A
  • Macrophages (monocytes when they are in the blood) – phagocytosis and antigen presentation to lymphocytes.
  • Neutrophils – Phagocytic and anti-bacterial
  • Eosinophils – Anti-parasite and allergic response
  • Basophils & Mast Cells – Allergic response
  • Natural Killer Cells – Recognise and kill abnormal cells, e.g. tumours
194
Q

Name the three humoral components of the adaptive immunity system and describe what each of them do?

A
  • Cytokines – Promote the differentiation and proliferation of lymphocytes
  • Perforin – Released by T killer cells and destroy cell walls
  • Antibodies – Protect host by neutralisation (prevents binding to epithelia), opsonisation and complement activation (enhances opsonisation and lysis)
195
Q

Name any TWO cellular components of the adaptive immunity system and describe what each of them do.

A
  • T Helper – Become activated when CD4 binds to a specific antigen on the MHC/antigen complex of an APC (antigen presenting cells). Once activated, it clones itself to form active T-helper cells and T-memory cells
  • T Killer – Released when cell is already infected
  • B Cells – Divide to form plasma cells and memory cells when activated by T-helper cells and release cytokines
  • Plasma cells produce specific immunoglobulin for non-self antigen.
196
Q

Suggest THREE of the features of innate immunity which make it different to adaptive immunity.

A
  • Present from birth
  • Non-specific
  • No “memory”
  • Not enhanced by secondary exposure
197
Q

What is haem component of haemoglobin broken down in to? Where does this take place

A
  • Bilirubin

- Formed in the reticuloendothelial cells of the liver, spleen, and bone marrow.

198
Q

Describe the function of the liver in bilirubin metabolism.

A

Glucuronidation - liver reacts bilirubin with a solubilizing sugar called glucuronic acid

199
Q

Describe the excretion of bilirubin after it reacts with glucuronic acid and is excreted in the bile.

A
  • Bile goes through the gall bladder into the intestines where the bilirubin is changed into a variety of pigments (importantly stercobilin and urobilinogen)
    + Stercobilin excreted in the faeces (white faeces)
    + Urobilinogen excreted via the kidneys (brown urine)
200
Q

What are the meninges?

A

The system of membranes which envelops the central nervous system

201
Q

What are the three layers of meninges?

A

You have to PAD the brain, so from inner to outer:

  • Pia mater
  • Arachnoid
  • Dura mater
202
Q

What are the 5 layers of stomach?

A
  • Epithelium
  • Gastric Mucosa
  • Muscularis Mucosa
  • Submucosa
  • Muscularis Externae
203
Q

Describe the process of opsonisation with relation to phagocytosis.

A

Phagocytosis is enhanced by the coating of antibodies or complement on an infected cell to render it recognisable as foreign (opsonisation).

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