Ti Flashcards

1
Q

Which gland secretes the most saliva
a. Parotid
b. Submandibular
c. Sublingual
d. Minor salivary glands

A

b. Submandibular

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2
Q

Which duct is the most likely to cause sialolithiasis
a. Stensons
b. Whartons
c. Blandin
d. Bartholins

A

b. Whartons

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3
Q

A patient presents with a small mass that is present for 3-4 weeks. It is translucent and is located in the anterior floor of the mouth

A

Ranula

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4
Q

Which gland is associated with taste buds
a. Glands of blandin nuhn
b. Von Ebners glands

A

Von Ebners glands

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5
Q

Which gland forms first in utero
a. Minor salivary glands
b. Parotid
c. Submandibular
d. Sublingual

A

Parotid

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6
Q

Which 3 structures pass through the parotid gland
i. Facial
ii. Retromandibular vein
iii. External Carotid Artery
iv. Stylomandibular ligament
b. 1, 2, 3
c. All of the above
d. 2, 3, 4
e. 1,

A

1

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7
Q

The thickening in the parotid gland capsule is the
a. Stylomandibular ligament
b. Sphenomandibular ligament
c. Stylohyoid ligament ligament ligament ligament ligament

A

Stylomandibular ligament

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8
Q

What can be damaged with a parotidectomy
i. CN 7
ii. Paralysis of the muscles of facial expression
iii. Chorda tympani
iv. CN 5
v. Lingual nerve
b. 1, 2, 3

A

b. 1, 2, 3

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9
Q

What structures can be damaged associated with the sublingual gland
i. Lingual neurovascular bundle
ii. Hypoglossal nerve
iii. Facial artery
iv. Marginal mandibular branch
b. 1 and 2?

A

b. 1 and 2?

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10
Q

How much saliva do you produce per day
a. 1 L/day
b. 250 cc/day
c. 2500 cc/day
d. 100 cc/day

A

1 L/day

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11
Q

50% of function is lost after how much radiation
a. 1000 cGy

A

1000 cGy

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12
Q

What test is used to evaluate levels of NaCl with Cystic Fibrosis patients
a. Sialochemistry

A

a. Sialochemistry

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13
Q

Which is the most best method of determining malignancy
a. Fine needle aspiration
b. Excisional Biopsy
c. Incisional Biopsy

A

ine needle aspiration

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14
Q

Freys syndrome following a parotidectomy is associated with which cranial nerve
a. 9
b. 7
c. 5
d. 8

A

9

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15
Q

The most common benign salivary neoplasia is

A

a. Pleomorphic adenoma

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16
Q

What is the longest duct with two sharp curves

A

Wharton’s duct

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17
Q

Which of the following can cause bilateral swellings
i. Sjogren’s Syndrome
ii. Wharton’s Tumor
iii. Pleomorphic adenoma
b. 1 and 2

A

1 and 2

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18
Q

Infections of the parotid gland are associated with which bacteria? What is the treatment

A

a. Staphylococcal, cephalosporins

19
Q

Granulomatous sialodenitis is associated with
i. TB
ii. HIV
b. 1 and 2

A

1 and 2

20
Q

Which of the following is associated with sulfur granules

A

Actinomycosis

21
Q

Patient presents with a swelling and the x-ray shows a sharply demarcated mass. The patient was told in the past that it was just a sialadenitis. It was slow growing for months and present for 5 years. What is the diagnosis?

A

a. Pleomorphic Adenoma
b. Sialadenitis

22
Q

A patient presents with 4 cm indurated ulcer on the palate. What would not be part of your diagnosis
a. Pleomorphic adenoma
b. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
c. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

A

Pleomorphic adenoma

23
Q

What solution should be used for an avulsed tooth
a. Milk
b. Hank’s solution
c. Water

A

b. Hank’s solution

24
Q

The best method of airway protection for a patient with a cervical spine protection

A

a. Chin lift

25
Q

Deviation on opening for a condylar fracture is
a. Contralateral to the side of fracture
b. Towards the side of fracture

A

Towards the side of fracture

26
Q

Bilateral condylar fracture causes what dental classification
a. Posterior apertognathia
b. Anterior apertognathia
c. Class 2
d. Class 3

A

Anterior apertognathia

27
Q

A fracture of multiple pieces is a

A

a. Comminuted fracture

28
Q

Where is the mandible most commonly fractured

A

ondyle

29
Q

With a condylar fracture, which movement will not occur
a. Translation
b. Rotation
c. No movement due to ankylosis

A

Translation

30
Q

A patient has a vertical maxillary excess with an elongated lower 1/3 of the face and a gummy smile. What is the treatment of choice
a. Le fort 1 + Superior repositioning
b. Le fort 1 + Inferior repositioning
c. BSSO

A

Le fort 1 + Superior repositioning

31
Q

The most conservative method of treating a ranula is
a. Excision of gland
b. Incise and Drain
c. Cryotherapy
d. Marsupialization

A

Excision of gland

32
Q

Which of the following is associated with perineural invasion
a. Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma
b. Polymorphouse low gade adenocarcinoma
c. Adenoid cystic carcinoma

A

Adenoid cystic carcinoma

33
Q

Viral parotitis is associated with what organism

A

a. Paramyxovirus

34
Q

Some question about alcohol
a. Sialodenosis??
b. Xerostomia Hypertrophy

A

Sialodenosis

35
Q

What type of fracture is associated with a bilateral orbital floor fracture
a. Le fort 1
b. Le Fort 2
c. Le Fort 3
d. Zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture

A

Le Fort 3

36
Q

What type of fracture is associated with an increased vertical maxillary heigh, cranial something, and maxillary teeth
a. Le fort 1
b. Le fort 2
c. Le fort 3

A

Le fort 3

37
Q

What percent of diagnosed child abuse cases are associated with orofacial trauma

A

50%

38
Q

Indications for rigid internal fixation include
i. Displaced fractures
ii. Patient noncompliance
iii. COPD
iv. Previous history of substance abuse
b. All of the above

A

b. All of the above

39
Q

The leading cause of death with ages 1-44 years of age is
a. Trauma
b. Cancer
c. Atherosclerosis

A

Trauma

40
Q

Glasgow coma scale is determined by
i. Measuring eye opening
ii. Measuring motor response
iii. Measuring verbal response
iv. Measuring cardiovascular function
v. Measuring ventilator function

A

1,2,3

41
Q

Class 2 bleeding is defined by
i. Tachycardia
ii. Tachypnea
iii. Decreased pulse pressure
iv. Decreased systolic blood pressure

A

1,2,3

42
Q

The most common dental classification is
a. Class 1
b. Class 2
c. Class 3

A

Class 1

43
Q

Hemorrhage during a maxillary procedure is most likely due to the
a. Pterygoid plexus
b. Greater palatine arteries
c. Internal maxillary artery

A

Pterygoid plexus