Thyroid Flashcards

1
Q

What is the anterior triangle?

A

The anterior triangle is an inverted triangle with its base above and the apex pointing downwards at the manubrium of the sternum. It can be further subdivided into smaller triangles by the crossing of digastric and omohyoid muscles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the boundaries of the anterior triangle?

A

anterior: median line of the neck
posterior: anterior margin of sternocleidomastoid
base: inferior border of the mandible , which is a line from the inferior border of the mandible to the mastoid process.
the roof of platysma muscle and subcutaneous tissues;
the floor, formed by the pharynx, larynx and thyroid gland;
the apex which is the jugular notch; and

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is contained in the anterior triangle?

A

The anterior triangle contains glandular structures (such as the thyroid and parathyroid glands) and lymphatics. The carotid triangle in particular contains the carotid vessels and associated veins and nerves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the subdivisions of the anterior triangle?

A

digastric (submandibular) triangle
muscular triangle
carotid triangle
submental triangle (half, only because there is only one submental triangle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the posterior triangle?

A

The posterior triangle of the neck forms the posterior compartment of the neck and is separated from the anterior triangle by the sternocleidomastoid muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the boundaries of the posterior triangle?

A

anterior: posterior border of sternocleidomastoid
posterior: anterior border of trapezius
inferior: middle third of the clavicle
roof: skin, superficial fascia and the investing layer of deep cervical fascia
floor: prevertebral fascia overlying splenius capitis, semispinalis capitis, levator scapulae, scalenus medius and scalenus anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the contents of the posterior triangle?

A

The posterior triangle contains mostly vessels and nerves that connect the neck and the upper limb. It also contains superficial and deep lymph nodes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe a pyramidal lobe

A

A pyramidal lobe (Lalouette’s pyramid) may be seen in 10-40 percent of cases, extending upward from the isthmus or the left lobe to the suprahyoid region.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the posterior thyroid

A

The posterior part of the gland is attached to the cricoid cartilage by a ligamentous band (ligament of berry).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the normal size of an adult thyroid?

A

Normally L5.0cm, W3cm, D2cm, isthmus 2-3mm thick; thyroid gland weighs about 20-30g in the adult. It can fluctuate with age and pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe the vascularity of the thyroid?

A

Each lobe generally has two arteries (superior and inferior thyroid arteries) and three veins (superior, inferior and medial) that originate from a peri-thyroid plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where do thyroid nerves derve from?

A

Superior, middle and inferior cervical ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the parathyroid glands?

A

Parathyroid glands, usually two pairs of each superior and inferior, lie close to the posterior surface of the thyroid gland with many variations in number and position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the embryological development of the neck.

A

The thyroid is the first endocrine gland to form in the embryo and appears in the 4th embryonic week as median endodermal thickening in the primitive pharynx which forms the thyroid diverticulum. The thyroid is derived from the thyroid diverticulum in the floor of the primitive pharynx. It descends from the base of the tongue to the base of the neck along the thyroglossal duct. The thyroid continues to descend until it reaches just inferior to the cricoid cartilage by the 7th week. Three pairs of salivary glands arise from the pharyngeal region.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the normal final remnant of the thyroglossal duct?

A

foramen caecum of the tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are thyroid follicular cells made up of?

A

Follicles are largely made up of simple cuboidal epithelial cells that are referred to as follicular cells and produce the glycoprotein, thyroglobulin.
The role of thyroid follicular epithelial cells is to convert thyroglobulin into T4 and T3.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the role of parafollicular cells?

A

Parafollicular cells, or C cells, can also be found in the follicular epithelium as seen in They secrete the hormone calcitonin which controls calcium metabolism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe the fibrous capsule of the thyroid

A

A thin fibrous capsule surrounds the thyroid and sends septa into the gland dividing it into lobules made up of 20-40 evenly dispersed follicles.
Surrounding the fibrous capsule is a loose sheath formed by the visceral part of the pretracheal deep cervical fascia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the symptoms of thyroid gland enlargement?

A

Obstruction, difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), compression of large blood vessels, lymphatics and nerves in the neck and upper thorax, sensation of tightness or pain in the anterior neck, discomfort when swallowing, compression of blood vessels may inhibit the return of blood from the neck and head and may even result in superior vena cava syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are symptoms of malignant enlargement?

A

Pain, hoarseness of the voice if laryngeal nerves are affected, coughing up of blood if the trachea is invaded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe the superior parathyroid glands.

A

arise from the paired fourth branchial pouches (clefts), along with the lateral lobes of the thyroid gland
Minimal migration occurs during fetal development
remain associated with the posterior aspect of the middle to upper portion of the thyroid gland.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe the inferior parathyroid glands

A

arise from the paired third branchial pouches, along with the thymus
Both migrate caudally along with the thymus.
Making them more variable in location than the superior glands
Located anywhere from the angle of the mandible to the pericardium.
majority (>60%) come to rest at or just inferior to the posterior aspect of the lower pole of the thyroid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the role of the thyroid gland?

A

The thyroid is an endocrine gland that maintains body metabolism and growth development by synthesising, storing and secreting thyroid hormones. Parafollicular cells (C-cells) make up a small amount of the thyroid gland composition, occurring mainly in small clusters between follicles. Parafollicular cells produce the hormone calcitonin which is involved in calcium homeostasis, decreasing the release of calcium from the bone to lower blood calcium levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the role of the parathyroids?

A

The parathyroids synthesise the hormone parathormone (PTH)
who’s role (along with vitamin D and calcitonin) is to maintain blood calcium levels.
In bone- increased reabsorption to mobilise calcium and phosphate (increases levels of P and Ca in the blood).
In the kidneys, increased tubular reabsorption of calcium and tubular secretion of phosphate (increases Ca in the blood and P in the urine).
In the gut, increased absorption of dietary calcium, magnesium and phosphate and reduced loss of calcium in faeces. (increases Ca and P in blood)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does a rise in blood calcium do to parathyroid secretion?

A

A rise in blood calcium depressed parathyroid secretion while a fall increases it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are advantages of an FNA of the thyroid?

A
minimal materials (usually a very simply procedure)
inexpensive
quickly performed
local anaesthetic often not used
minimal discomfort (usually)
small bruise only (usually)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are disadvantages of an FNA of the thyroid?

A

sample may be inadequate ( reduced if pathologist is present to check sample )
false positive/false negative/equivocal aspirates
dependence of cytopathology expertise
specific tissue-related potential pitfalls.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are advantages of a thyroid core biopsy?

A

inexpensive
relatively atraumatic
may obviate the need for open biopsy
higher diagnostic yield (though there is some varying opinion about this)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are disadvantages of a thyroid core biopsy?

A

greater chance of local haemorrhage due to larger bore needle used
tracheal perforation and other complications as there is probably reduced control of the needle depth with this procedure compared to FNA.
potential for facial nerve damage
possibility of tumour seeding, but very little evidence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is hyperthyroidism?

A

Hyperthyroidism is due to excessive secretion of thyroid hormones T3 and T4, often termed thyrotoxicosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are causes of hyperthyroidism?

A

Graves’ disease
idiopathic nodular hyperplasia of the thyroid (toxic goitre)
tumours, such as hyperfunctioning thyroid adenoma and metastatic thyroid carcinoma
subacute or acute thyroiditis
choriocarcinoma or hydatidiform mole
overdose of thyroid hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are symptoms are hyperthyroidism?

A
mostly related to the abnormally high metabolic rate
warm and sweaty
increased pulse rate and blood pressure
Tachycardia
Tremor
muscle weakness
weight loss
Restlessness
Anxiety
Amenorrheoa and exophthalmos may also occur, especially in Graves' disease.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is treatment for hyperthyroidism?

A

Treatment is often with anti-thyroid drugs for Graves’ disease. If this is not effective or the cause is due to tumour or nodular hyperplasia, then a subtotal thyroidectomy is usually performed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is hypothyroidism?

A

Hypothyroidism occurs due to reduced circulating thyroid hormones. This usually results from a functional failure of the thyroid gland.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are causes mof hypothyroidism?

A

developmental defects, such as congenital thyroid aplasia
postoperative thyroidectomy, for example, after removal of tumour
thyroiditis, often autoimmune such as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
iodine deficiency where dietary iodine is low
deficiency of TRH from the hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are symptoms of hypothyroidism?

A
Usually related to a low metabolic rate
Low BMR
Bradycardia
Shortness of breath
Lethargy
Mental sluggishness
Weight gain
Constipation
Cold sensitivity
Cretinism occurs in utero or infancy usually due to congenital aplasia. It will result in mental and physical retardation unless detected and treated with thyroid hormones. This is usually a routine test for all newborns
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is treatment of hypothyroidism?

A

Standard treatment for hypothyroidism involves daily use of the synthetic thyroid hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is hyperparathyroidism?

A

Excessive secretion of parathormone is termed hyperparathyroidism. This causes hypercalcemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How does hyperparathyroidism cause hypercalcemia?

A

bone reabsorption and calcium mobilisation from the skeleton, which can cause the bone to be very susceptible to fracture
increased renal tubular reabsorption and retention of calcium
enhanced gastrointestinal calcium absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are causes of hyperparathyroidism?

A
Primary
- parathyroid adenoma (80-90%)
- hyperplasia (10-20%)
- carcinoma (less than 1%)
Secondary
- associated with renal failure and vitamin D deficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the causes of multigland enlargement?

A

Multigland enlargement most often results from primary parathyroid hyperplasia and less often from multiple adenomas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are symptoms of multigland enlargement?

A
  • elevated serum calcium
  • Hypophosphatasia
  • hypercalciuria
  • possible nephrocalcinonsis or renal calculi
  • possible bone deformities in severe cases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the treatment for multigland enlargement?

A

Remove one or more of the glands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are risk factors for multigland enlargement?

A
  • Most cases are sporadic
  • Prior external neck radiation (small amount of cases)
  • Long term lithium therapy
  • Hereditary (multiple endocrine neoplasia syndrome (MEN I))
  • Familial syndromes such as familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the prevalence of primary hyperparathyroidism?

A
  • common endocrine disease 1 to 2 per 1000 population.
  • Women are affected 2-3:1 particularly after menopause.
  • Most >50 years
  • rare <20 years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What kind of laboratory results would you expect to see in primary hyperparathyroidism?

A
  • elevated serum calcium
  • Hypophosphatasia
  • Hypercalciuria
  • PTH level that is “inappropriately high” for the corresponding serum calcium level confirms the diagnosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Why should we consider the diagnosis of hyperparathyroidism in a patient with normal PTH levels but high calcium?

A

Hypercalcemia from other non-parathyroid causes (including malignancy) should suppress the glandular function and decrease the serum PTH level.

48
Q

What are late stage symptoms of hyperparathyroidism?

A

painful bones, renal stones, abdominal groans, and psychic moans

49
Q

What are symptoms of hyper parathyroidism

A

muscle weakness, malaise, constipation, dyspepsia, polydipsia, and polyuria

50
Q

What is hypoparathyroidism?

A

This is a functional disorder that results in reduced secretion of parathormone.

51
Q

What are causes of hypoparathyroidism?

A
  • inadvertent removal of the glands
  • congenital absence of the glands
  • autoimmune disease, causing atrophy
  • rare syndromes
52
Q

What are symptoms of hypoparathyroidism?

A
  • tetany, which is an increased excitability of the neuromuscular tissues and muscle contraction (stiffness, cramps, spasms, convulsions, hyperexcitability, depression).
  • The heart action may also become irregular.
53
Q

What is the treatment for hypoparathyroidism?

A

Usually injections of synthetic parathormone.

54
Q

When is alkaline phosphatase elevated?

A

hyperparathyroidism (sometimes)

55
Q

What is calcium test?

A

serum calcium and phosphorous levels are reflective of parathyroid function

56
Q

When will calcium be elevated?

A

Hyperparathyroidism, malignant tumours, hyperthyroidism, excessive calcium intake, parathyroid adenoma

57
Q

When will calcium be decreased?

A

massive blood transfusion, vitamin D deficiency, hypoparathyroidism, acute pancreatitis

58
Q

what is the normal range for parathyroid hormone?

A

1.0-6.5pmol/L

59
Q

When would PTH be elevated?

A

hyperparathyroidism primary or secondary

60
Q

When would it be decreased?

A

hypoparathyroidism, hypocalcemia due to malignant disease

61
Q

What is the radioactive iodine uptake test?

A

this test determines thyroid function

62
Q

what is the normal range for RAIU?

A

5-30% of administered dose

63
Q

When would RAIU be elevated (or potentially normal)?

A

Hyperthyroidism, Graves’ disease, toxic multinodular goitre,hypopituitary disease

64
Q

When would RAIU be decresed?

A

Subacute thyroiditis, hyperthyroiditis, thyrotoxicosis, metastatic thyroid carcinoma, struma ovarii

65
Q

What is TSH?

A

TSH is secreted by the anterior pituitary on stimulation by TRH from the hypothalamus. TSH stimulates the release of T3 and T4

66
Q

What is the normal range of TSH

A

0.4-6.3mU/L

67
Q

When would TSH be elevated?

A

Hypothyroidism, thyroiditis (due to a poor response from the thyroid to secrete T3 and T4 so more TSH is released)

68
Q

When would TSH be decreased?

A

Hyperthyroidism, thyroid carcinoma (as there is increased T3 and T4, Tless TSH is secreted)

69
Q

Which is more potent, T3 or T4?

A

T3

70
Q

What is the normal range for T4?

A

12-26pmol/L

71
Q

When will T4 be elevated?

A

hyperthyroidism

72
Q

when will T4 be decreased?

A

hypothyroidism

73
Q

What is the normal range for T3?

A

3.3-7.5pmol/L

74
Q

When is T3 elevated?

A

Hyperthyroidism

75
Q

Does a decreased T3 always indicate hypothyroidism?

A

No

76
Q

If a patient presents with:

Feeling hot, increased sweating, weight loss, enlargement of the thyroid gland, rapid heart rate and palpitations, anxiety and restless hyperactivity.

What do you expect is the likely cause?

A

Graves’ disease (thyrotoxicosis presentation)

Other causes- toxic multinodular goitre, hyperfunctional adenoma

77
Q

If a patient presents with:

Cold intolerance, facial and extremity oedema, lethargy, weight gain, bradycardia, constipation, hair loss

What do you expect is the most likely cause?

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis due to clinically presenting with reduced thyroid function and symptoms of myxedema due to reduced metabolic rate

78
Q

If a patient presents with:

Prominent, irregular neck swelling, difficulty in swallowing, occasional neck pain.

What do you expect is the most likely cause?

A

Multinodular goitre (usually have normal thyroid function)

79
Q

If a patient presents with:

History of renal calculi, unilateral (mild) neck swelling.

What do you expect is the most likely cause?

A

Parathyroid adenoma.

Hyperparathyroidism caused by a single adenoma will result in unilateral neck swelling and nephrolithiasis

80
Q

List congenital anomalies of the thyroid

A
  • agenesis of one lobe or the whole gland;
  • hypoplasia; and
  • ectopic thyroid tissue.
81
Q

What is congenital hypothyroidism?

A
  • relatively common disorder occurring in about 1 in 3000 to 4000 live births.
  • Cause may be
  • Dysgenesis
  • Dyshormonogenesis
  • pituitary or hypothalamic hypothyroidism)
  • clinically important because prognosis and therapy differ.
  • Early initiation of therapy can prevent mental retardation and delayed bone development.
82
Q

List anomalies of the parathyroid

A
  • agenesis of some or all of the glands (congenital or post-surgical); and
  • ectopic positions (multiple variations).
83
Q

What is a goitre?

A

Goitre is an enlargement of the thyroid gland. The definition of goitre is age and sex dependent

84
Q

Causes of goitres?

A
  • non-toxic simple goitre (e.g. from iodine deficiency)
  • Graves disease
  • multinodular goitre
  • Hashimoto thyroiditis
  • thyroid cancer
  • goitrogens
    • drugs: lithium, amiodarone, etc.
    • diet: cabbage, sprouts, etc.
  • depositional disease, e.g. amyloidosis
  • miscellaneous, e.g. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
85
Q

What are the most common benign thyroid nodules?

A

Hyperplastic/colloid nodules

86
Q

What is the most common thyroid cancer?

A

papillary thyroid cancer

87
Q

Describe thyroid cysts

A

Many (if not all) cystic thyroid lesions are hyperplastic nodules that have undergone extensive cystic degeneration or haemorrhage.

Cystic appearances may also be present with papillary carcinoma of the thyroid.

Pathologically, true epithelial-lined cysts of the thyroid gland are rare. In the course of this cystic degenerative process, calcification, which is often coarse and perinodular, may occur.

88
Q

What is the ultrasound appearance of thyroid cysts?

A

They are often thick-walled, mixed or echo-free. Some solid elements may be seen and there may be some posterior enhancement.

89
Q

Describe colloid nodules

A

Colloid nodules are hyperplastic and represent overgrowths and involution of normal follicular tissue.

  • Occur more commonly in women
  • Haemorrhage and necrosis are common
  • initial stage of formation is often indistinguishable from normal thyroid parenchyma
  • often undergo liquefactive degeneration with the accumulation of blood, serous fluid, and colloid substance
  • Many (if not all) cystic thyroid lesions are hyperplastic nodules that have undergone extensive liquefactive degeneration.
90
Q

What is the ultrasound appearance of colloid nodules?

A
  • Usually well demarcated and smooth walls and increased through transmission of sound.
  • Mostly isoechoic but may become hyperechoic because of the numerous interfaces between cells and colloid substance.
  • mixed echo texture, with low-level echoes of haemorrhage and necrosis.
  • may have a hypoechoic peripheral rim, with egg-shell calcifications.
  • Commonly have a spongiform appearance.
91
Q

Describe the degenerative changes to goitrous nodules

A
  1. Purely anechoic areas are caused by serous or colloid fluid.
  2. Echogenic fluid or moving fluid-fluid levels correspond to hemorrhage.
  3. Bright echogenic foci with comet-tail artifacts are likely caused by microcrystals or aggregates of colloid substance, which may also move slowly, like snowflakes, within the fluid collection.
  4. Thin, intracystic septations probably correspond to attenuated strands of thyroid tissue and appear completely avascular on color Doppler ultrasound.
  5. These degenerative processes may also lead to the formation of calcifications, which may be either thin, peripheral shells (“eggshell”) or coarse, highly reflective foci with associated acoustic shadows, scattered throughout the gland.
92
Q

What is a follicular adenoma?

A

Adenoma (or it may be termed follicular adenoma) is a benign, solid tumour composed of thyroid follicles encapsulated with fibrous tissue. It is a true thyroid neoplasm, characterized by compression of adjacent tissues and fibrous encapsulation.

93
Q

Describe a follicular adenoma

A

Most are solitary however may develop as part of a multinodular process. Most commonly encountered thyroid neoplasm. They can become hyperfunctioning and lead to hyperthyroidism and thyrotoxicosis. Most result in no dysfunction as they function the same as the rest of the gland. Those that function poorly usually have a greater degree of cystic degeneration and are seen as ‘cold’ lesions on nuclear scanning.

94
Q

What are the subtypes of follicular adenomas?

A

embryonal, fetal adenomas have no malignant potential, but the Hurtle Cell subtype may have some.

95
Q

What are some differentials for a follicular adenoma?

A
  • Follicular carcinoma

similar cytologic features, vascular and capsular invasion

96
Q

Is needle biopsy a viable method to distinguish between a follicular adenoma and carcinoma?

A

No, because they are identified by histologic rather than cytologic analysis.

97
Q

Describe the ultrasound appearance of a follicular adenoma

A
  • solid masses
  • hyper, iso or hypo- echogenicity
  • smooth peripheral halo resulting from the fibrous capsule and blood vessels, which can be readily seen by color Doppler imaging.
  • Often, vessels pass from the periphery to the central regions of the nodule, sometimes creating a “spoke and wheel” appearance.
  • increased flow within if hyperfunctioning exists.
98
Q

What are risk factors for malignant nodules?

A
  • early exposure of thyroid gland to irradiation; and

- prolonged exposure to high levels of TSH, for example, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.

99
Q

Describe thyroid carcinomas

A

Most primary thyroid cancers are of epithelial origin and are derived from follicular or parafollicular cells. Malignant thyroid tumors of mesenchymal origin are exceedingly rare, as are metastases to the thyroid. Most thyroid cancers are well differentiated, and papillary carcinoma (including so-called mixed papillary and follicular carcinoma) accounts for 75% to 90% of all cases.

100
Q

List features associated with malignancy

A

capsular invasion, coexisting metastatic lymphadenopathy, markedly hypoechoic, entirely or nearly entirely solid, taller than wide, infiltrative or lobulated margin, punctate echogenic foci, irregular or interrupted peripheral calcifications

101
Q

Describe papillary carcinomas

A
  • Most malignant nodules are papillary in type (50-70%).
  • Sub-types include: follicular (most common), diffuse sclerosing (children/young adults), encapsulated.
  • PTC peaks in both the third and the seventh decades of life.
  • Women are affected more often than men.
  • Distant metastases are very rare (2%-3%)
  • least aggressive, slow growing, non-functioning, and spread to cervical lymph nodes.
102
Q

What is the prognosis for papillary carcinoma?

A

They respond well to treatment, often even the presence of adjacent nodal metastases does not adversely affect the patient’s progress. Recurrences may develop.

Poorer prognosis is associated with: older patients, male, masses larger than 3cm with large solid areas, and extracapsular invasion.

103
Q

How do patients with papillary carcinoma usually present?

A

Usually present with a hard mass, hoarseness, pressure symptoms, and often no symptoms.

104
Q

Describe the ultrasound appearance of a papillary carcinoma

A
  • predominantly hypoechoic
  • chaotic internal blood flow
  • mostly solid
  • variable in size, from tiny to 10cm
  • may have vascular septae
  • punctate calcifications
  • microcalcifications or irregular macrocalcifications
  • irregular peripheral calcifications
  • often incomplete peripheral halo with ill-defined irregular margins
105
Q

Where is likely local metastases of papillary carcinoma?

A

cervical lymph nodes, strap muscles, trachea, oesophagus, recurrent laryngeal nerve. Cervical nodes and thyroid may be palpable

106
Q

Describe cervical lymph metastases

A

Cervical lymph node metastases, which may contain tiny, punctate echogenic foci caused by microcalcifications. These are mainly located in the caudal half of the deep jugular chain. Occasionally, metastatic nodes may be cystic as a result of extensive degeneration

107
Q

Describe the appearance of cystic nodal metastases

A

Cystic nodal metastases show a thickened outer wall, internal nodularity, and septations in most cases, although they may appear purely cystic in younger patients. Cystic lymph node metastases in the neck occur almost exclusively in association with PTC, but occasionally with nasopharyngeal carcinomas.

108
Q

Describe the ultrasound appearance of lymphadenopathy

A

nodes hyperechoic relative to muscle
distribution along cervical chain and pre/para-tracheal nodes
punctate calcifications are present in approximately 50 percent of cases
chaotic internal blood flow may be present
cystic necrosis in 25 percent with thick, vascular walls

109
Q

List the protocol for post-surgical follow up

A

Look for recurrence in the thyroid bed and adjacent nodal regions. Granulomatous change at the previous surgical site may mimic tumour recurrence (ill-defined, solid mass, hypoechoic with echogenic shadowing). This is termed a suture granuloma

110
Q

Describe follicular carcinoma

A

Next most common after PTC. It can be difficult to differentiate between malignant and benign follicular lesions on FNA or ultrasound. Follicular lesions must be surgically removed as they can only be assessed histologically. Hurtle Cell is a variant of benign follicular adenoma that has some malignant potential. There is an increased incidence in areas of low iodine. Two types are minimally invasive that rarely metastasises and frankly invasive with obvious vascular invasion. It spreads via bloodstream to the lungs, bone, liver and brain. Nodal metastasis is uncommon. It may be multiple and have some iodine uptake.

111
Q

Describe the ultrasound appearance of follicular carcinoma

A

There are no discernible features between follicular adenomas and carcinomas on ultrasound, FNA is not reliable either as differentiation is based on cellular appearance not capsular/vascular invasion.

Most appear predominantly solid, homogeneous, hyperechoic, encapsulated with a peripheral halo is often thick and partial, rarely calcify, internal chaotic nodular flow pattern with or without perinodular flow

112
Q

What are rare features of follicular carcinoma?

A

irregular tumour margins, thick irregular halo, tortuous/chaotic internal vascularity

113
Q

Describe medullary adenocarcinoma

A

Arises from parafollicular C-cells. It is relatively rare and makes up only 1-5% of all thyroid cancers. Often familial or with patients with a history of hypercalcaemia or phaeochromocytoma. Slow-growing however metastasises early to lymph nodes then via the blood stream

114
Q

Describe the sonographic appearance of medullary carcinoma

A
  • irregular margins but may appear well-circumscribed with no capsule
  • thick irregular halo
  • may be focal or multi-focal or diffuse
  • granular, echogenic foci with acoustic shadowing
  • prominent chaotic vessels within the tumour
  • associated with MEN which are biologically aggressive
115
Q

Describe the appearance of metastatic lymphadenopathy

A

exhibit the same calcification pattern within hypoechoic nodes, especially at the mediastinum of the lymph node.