Throat Flashcards

1
Q

Investigations for vocal cord palsy

A
  • Chest X-ray
  • Computed topography of the skull base to mediastinum (aortic arch) (to check entire course of recurrent laryngeal for lesions / trauma)
    +/- USS thyroid
    +/- Oesophagoscopy
  • HBA1C (diabetes)
  • ACE-I levels (? Sarcoid)
  • Mantoux text (TB)

Remember 1/3 idiopathic 1/3 neoplasia 1/3 iatrogenic / traumatic (surgery)

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2
Q

Causes of unilateral vocal cord palsy

A

Left > affected than right as longer course, therefore more places for lesions to affect it

Generally:
* 1/3 Trauma (e.g to vocal cord via intubation or to recurrent laryngeal e.g. thyroid surgery, cartoid endarterectomy)
* 1/3 Neoplastic (e.g. Thyroid, bronchus, oesophagus etc.)
* 1/3 Idiopathic (likely viral neuritis)

Other:
- Infective (e.g Viral, Lyme disease, TB)
- Neurotoxins (mercury)
- Autoimmune (Sarcoid, RA, Crohn’s, PGA)
- Diabetes
- Thoracic lesions e.g aortic aneurysm, mitral stenosis etc

Pathology of:
- Recurrent laryngeal nerve (e.g. Iatrogenic - intubation/surgery, trauma, malignancy)
- Cricoarytenoid joint (e.g RA)
- Intrinsic muscle (e.g. myopathy, malignancy)

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3
Q

Vocal cord palsy symptoms

A
  • Breathy voice - adductor palsy
  • Weak / hoarse voice - abductor palsy / compensated adductor palsy
  • Stridor - bilateral palsy
  • Difficulty swallowing
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4
Q

Treatment for unilateral vocal cord palsy (3)

And, when would you surgically intervene and why at this time?

A
  • Speech and language therapy
  • Injections of fillers e.g teflon, colloid
  • Surgical procedures to medialise the affected cord

Wait 6 months, as occasionally the contralateral cord could compensate for the palsy, and also to allow any viral cause to resolve.

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5
Q

Symptoms of laryngomalacia

A

Number one cause of infant stridor (harsh inspiratory noises)
Mild tachypnoea
Choking and other feeding difficulties
Chest infections (aspiration)

**Snoring

Noisy breathing

Sleep-disordered breathing

Swallowing dysfunction

Nasal congestion

NORMAL CRY

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6
Q

Laryngomalacia prognosis

A

90% resolve by 2 years

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7
Q

Stridor characteristics in Laryngomalacia

A

High pitched
Crowing
Worse when crying and when supine

WILL HAVE NORMAL CRY

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8
Q

Description of what you see on FNE with laryngomlacia:

A

An omega- shaped retroflexed epiglottis

Shortened aryepiglottic folds

Dynamic collapse of the supraglottic structures on inspiration

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9
Q

Pathophysiology of laryngomalacia

A

Collapse of the supraglottic structures on inspiration causing stridor

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10
Q

Treatments (mins 3) for laryngomalacia

A

Conservative:
MDT - paediatrics, dietician, SALT

Feeding advice / upright feeding position / thickened feeds / encouraging burping / paced feeds / treating any reflux to reduce laryngeal oedema

Oxygen administration

Surgery
- supraglottoplasty (e.g if failure to thrive)
- Aryepiglottoplasty (e.g. CO2 laser)
- rarely tracheostomy

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11
Q

Investigations for larygomalacia (min 3)

A

Flexible nasal endoscopy
Laryngoytracheobronchoscopy
Polysomnography

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12
Q

Embyological origin of Branchial cysts

A

Failure of **obliteration **of 2nd branchial cleft (by fusion of 2nd branchial arch and epicardial ridge)

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13
Q

Branchial cleft cyst differentials?

A

Thyroglossal cyst
Reactive lymph node

Metastatic lymph node
Lymphoma
Cystic SCC
Carotid body tumour

Vascular malformation
Cystic hygroma
Ectopic thyroid tissue

Cat scracth disease
Atypical mycobacterium infection

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14
Q

USS Neck of branchial cysts - findings: (5)

A
  • Cystic
  • Well defined
  • Smooth outline
  • Uniformly anechoic
  • Posterior enhancement
    *
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15
Q

Aspiration of branchial cysts - findings:

A
  • Viscous, turbid, yellow-green
  • Cholesterol crystal on microscopy
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16
Q

What is the workup for a head and neck cancer?

A

Tissue biopsy for histology
Imaging of lesion
- e.g. USS guided core biopsy or USS and EUA

Once CA known:

  • CT/MRI (e.g. neck for surgical planning)
  • CT Thorax for staging
  • PET CT for distant mets / primary
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17
Q

Neck lumps by location e.g. midline, anterior, posterior triangle, anywhere

A

Anywhere
- sebaceous cysts / other skin lesions
- Lymphadenopathy (reactive / malignant)
- Lymphoma
- Malignancy
- Infection (neck space/Ludwigs/dental abscess)

Midline
- Thyroglossal cysts
- Thyroid goitre / Cancer
- Dermoid cysts (fusion point, abocve hyoid, midline)

Anterior Triangle
- Branchial cysts (young adult, infected often, deep to junction of upper 1/3 and lower 2/3 SCM)
- Parotid lump (benign/malig/infective/stone)
- Submandibular lump (bening/malig/infective/stone)

Posterior triangle
- Cystic hygroma (low posterio triangle new born)
- Cartoid body tumour

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18
Q

Treatment of thyroglossal cysts:

A

Conservative with long course abx and repeated aspiration can be used for infections

**
They should not be incised and drained because this
would result a persistent discharging sinus.**

Sistrunk procedure (removal of cyst, body of hyoid bone, wedge of tongue base)

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19
Q

Risks of sistrunk procedure

A

Recurrence (2-8% if hyoid body excised)

Postoperative accumulation of infection or hematoma
may push the tongue base up into the airway and give rise to a ‘Ludwig’s’ angina type of airway emergency.

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20
Q

Why do thyroglossal cysts form?

A

Failure of closure of the thyroglossal duct extending from the foramen cecum in the tongue to the thyroid’s location in the neck

….following migration of the thyroid gland from tongue base (foramen caecum) to its position in the neck

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21
Q

Symptoms and presentatio of thyroglossal cysts

A

Most occur in children - mean 4yrs old, but adults can get

Midline (in 90%) swelling
Move upwards with tongue protrusion and swalling (attached to larynx)
Intermittent swelling, pain due to infection

Note left sided in 10%, right in 1%

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22
Q

Investigation of thyroglossal cysts

A

Ultrasound scan
Radio-iodine uptake scan (Prior to excision as there may be active thyroid tissue in the cyst)
MRI

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23
Q

What pathology is geneally found in midline between hyoid bone and cricoid cartilage?

A

Thyroglossal cyst

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24
Q

Symptoms & signs acute tonsillitis

A

Odynophagia
Referred otalgia
Trismus
Drooling
Fever
Fatigue
Abdo pain (kids)
Vomiting (kids)

Enlarged tonsils, hyperaemic, pus in tonsillar crypts
Tender cervical lymphadenopathy

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25
Q

Treatment of tonsillitis

A

Analgesia (paracetamol - NOT aspirin, risk Reye’s syndrome)

Fluid replacement (IV if necessary)

Antibiotics (if bacterial - Penicillin V (allergy: Clarithroymcin) or IV Benzylpenicillin, never Amoxicillin

Corticosteroids (more contraversial)

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26
Q

What is associated with aspirin in children and what is it:

A

Reye’s syndrome: rapidly worsening brain disease associated with aspirin use post virally, generally in children

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27
Q

What type of reaction does amoxicillin cause in GF?

A

Type IV hypersensitivity - rash

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28
Q

Post tonsillectomy haemorrhage rates and the study/audit names

A

NPTA (National Post Operative Tonsillectomy Audit 2005):

Post operative haemorrhage for cold steel tonsillectomy - 1.3% (1% return to theatre rate)

Post operative haemorrhage rate (all techniques, adult + children) - 3.5% with 0.8% return to theatre.

GIRFT (Getting it right first time 2019)

Post operative haemorrhage rate (all techniques, adult + children) - 8% with 1.3% return to theatre.

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29
Q

Indications for tonsillectomy (min. 5)

A

Paradise Criteria & SIGN criteria

Recurrent quinsy
Recurrent severe tonsillitis for > 1 year
Treatment for obstructive sleep apnoea
Diagnosis of tonsillar malignancy with unilaterally enlarged tonsillar
7 or more documented, clinically significant, adequetely treated sore throats in the last year
5 or more (as above) in last 2 years
3 or more (as above) in last 3 years

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30
Q

Tonsillits differential diagnosis (min 3)

A

Glandular fever (EBV)
Diptheria
Agranulocytosis
Leukeamia

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31
Q

Most common organism bacterial tonsillitis

A

Group A Beta Haemolytic Streptococcus

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32
Q

Investigations for tonsillitis

A

FBC - (Neutrophilia = Bacterial, Leucocytosis > GF)
Monospot / Paul -Bunnell test
Throat swab

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33
Q

Define - Supraglottis, Glottis and Subglottis

A

Supraglottis – From inferior surface of the epiglottis to the vestibular folds (false vocal cords) including them to the superior surface of the true cords

Glottis – Contains true vocal cords and 1cm below them (opening between the vocal cords is known as rima glottidis)

Subglottis – From inferior border of the glottis to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage.

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34
Q

Define laryngeal vestibule vs ventricle

A

Laryngeal Ventricle / sinus of Morgagni:
slitlike, mucosa-lined, space located between the true and false vocal cords.

Laryngeal vestibule:
The part of the laryngeal cavity lying between the laryngeal inlet and vocal folds.

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35
Q

Classification for H&N cancer?

A

8th Edition of the TNM classification for head and neck cancer

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36
Q

Symptoms of pharyngeal pouch (8)

A

Halitosis
Regurgitation
Dysphagia
Weight loss
Chest infections
Aspiration
Swelling of the neck (left sided usually)
Gurgling on palpation (Boyce’s sign)

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37
Q

Epidemiology pharyngeal pouch

A

1:200,000 per year

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38
Q

Aetiology of pharyngeal pouch

A

Weakness at Killian dehiscence through the inferior constrictor between the thyropharyngeus and cricopharyngeus muscles of the infderior constrictor.

It’s a posterior pharyngeal pulsion (Zenker’s) diverticulum through the pharyngeal mucosa.

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39
Q

Treatment options for pharyngeal pouch (4)

A
  • Conservative
  • Laser / diathermy myotomy (Dohlmann’s procedure - divides the wall between the pouch and oesophagous)
  • Endoscopic stapling (first line generally)
  • Open surgical excision
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40
Q

Investigations for pharyngeal pouch

A

Flexible nasendoscopy
Contrast swallow

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41
Q

Complications from pharyngeal pouch surgery (10)

A

IMMEDIATE:
Primary haemorrhage
Surgical emphysema
Pneuomothorax
Injury to teeth
Oesophageal perforation

INTERMEDIATE:
Secondary haemorrhage (infection)
Hoarseness (recurrent laryngeal damage, permanent if divided)
Wound infection
Fistula
Mediastinitis

LATE:
Stricture
Recurrence

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42
Q

Causative agent of laryngeal papillomas?

A

HPV 6 and 11 (11 = moe aggressive disease)

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43
Q

Epidemiology of laryngeal papillomas
- peak incidence
- risk factors
- what dictates how aggressive disease is?
- can remission occur ?

A

Any age from birth to around age 5 (peal incidence 3-5).

Earelier age on onset = more aggressive disease

Remission can occur at any age

Maternal warts dsuring pregnancy a risk factor

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44
Q

Symptoms of laryngeal papillomas (3)

A

Hoarseness
Abnormal cry
Shortness of breath
Stridor (late)

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45
Q

Investigations for laryngeal papillomas

A

Microlaryngoscopy + tissue biopsy

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46
Q

Treatment for laryngeal papillomas

A

Surgical:
Microdebridement /cold steel excision or C02 laser ablation

If on both cords or at anterior commisure two operations 4 weeks apart are required to prevent web formation.

Adjuvant Medical (if px has > 4 procedures a year):

  • Gardasil Vaccine (quadrivalent, given in 3 IMs)
  • Antivirals e.g. Cidofovir (prevents HPV DNA synthesis) injected into lesion a number of times
  • Alpha interferon
  • indole-3-carbinol
    (cabbage juice derivative) and immunostimulants.
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47
Q

Single laryngeal papilloma in and adult - management:

A

Liable to recur and become malignant

Remove at direct laryngoscopy.

Follow up for 5 years

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48
Q

Tracheostomy in laryngeal papillomas

A

Used rarely (as a last resort)
as risk of spreading disease distally

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49
Q

Risk factors for oral cancer

A

Smoking
Excessive alcohol consumption
Betel nut chewing

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50
Q

Investigations for oral cavity cancer

A

Biopsy
+/-Orthopantomogram (useful if ? mandible involved)
Staging CT head / neck / chest
MRI useful for soft tissue delineation
PET CT if concerns for occult spread

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51
Q

Treatment options for oral cavity cancer (3)

A

Palliation
Radiotherapy / Chemotherapy
Surgery - excision +/- neck dissection +/- reconstruction (e.g radial forearm free flap if T1/T2 / hemiglossectomy, free fibular if mandible resection)

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52
Q

Treatment options for oral cavity cancer (3)

A

Palliation
Radiotherapy / Chemotherapy
Surgery - excision +/- neck dissection +/- reconstruction (e.g radial forearm free flap if T1/T2 / hemiglossectomy, free fibular if mandible resection)

53
Q

Symptoms of hypothyroidism (min 5)

A

Fatigue
Hair loss
Dry skin
Weight gain
Cold intolerance
Voice change
Muscle weakness
Decreased sweating

54
Q

Symptoms hyperthyroidism (min 5)

A

Sweating
Anxiety
Weakness
Palpitations
Weight loss
Tremor
Insomnia
Hyperactivity
Diarrhoea
Oligomenorhoea

55
Q

Causes of hypothyroidism (min 5)

A

Hashimotos thyroiditis (>com. developed world)
Iodine deficiency (>com. developing world)
Radiation
Thyroid surgery
Pituitary disease
Drugs e.g. Amiodarone

56
Q

Investigations for hypothryoidism

A

TSH
Free T4
Antithyroid Peroxidase Antibodies

More thorogh:
TSH, T4
TSH Receptor Antibodies (which are directed against the TSH receptor causing stimulation of it)
Anti thyroglobulin antibodies (can be raised in Grave’s / Hashimoto’s - sign of autoimmune damage to thyroid)
Calcium
Calcitonin
CXR ? Retrosternal ? Trachea deviation ? Mets/Nodes
Flexible nasendoscopy to check vocal cords
USS +/- FNA
Radionucelotide scintigraphy to identify if a nodule is hot
Staging scans if necessary

57
Q

Investigations for hyperthryoidism

A

TSH
Free T4
TSH receptor antibodies

More thorough:
TSH, T4
TSH Receptor Antibodies (which are directed against the TSH receptor causing stimulation of it)
Anti thyroglobulin antibodies (can be raised in Grave’s / Hashimoto’s - sign of autoimmune damage to thyroid)
Calcium
Calcitonin
CXR ? Retrosternal ? Trachea deviation ? Mets/Nodes
Flexible nasendoscopy to check vocal cords
USS +/- FNA
Radionucelotide scintigraphy to identify if a nodule is hot
Staging scans if necessary

58
Q

Common causes hyperthyroidism

A

Graves disease
Toxic multinodular goitre

59
Q

What’s raised in Hashimotos and what’s raised in Grave’s

A

Hashimoto’s
- AntiThyroid Peroxidase Antibodies
- Anti thyroglobulin antibodies (can be raised in Grave’s / Hashimoto’s - sign of autoimmune damage to thyroid)
- Anti-microsomal antibodies

Graves
- TSH Receptor Antibodies (which are directed against the TSH receptor causing stimulation of it)

60
Q

Treatment for Hashimoto’s

A

Levothyroxine

Nb. if severe hypothyroidism = medical emergency

61
Q

Treatment for Grave’s

A

Co-ordinated with endocrinologists:

Medical
- Beta blockers
- Thioamide drugs e.g carbimazole and radioactive iodine

Surgical
- Total thyroidectomy

62
Q

Complications of thyroid surgery

A

Anatomical
- Recurrent laryngeal nerve damage (2%)
- External branch of superfical laryngeal nerve damage
- Damage to trachea
- Pneumothorax

Hormonal
- Tetany (hypoparathyroidism due to removal or bruising to parathyroid glands)
- Thyroid crisis
- Hypothyroidism
- Late recrrence thyrotoxicosis due to incomplete removal of toxic gland

Wound site
- haemorrhage (immediate / delayed - release staple/stitches, evacuate)
- Tracheomalacia (rare)
- Infection of wound
- Poor scar

63
Q

Follow up care post thyroid surgery

A

Serum calcium 12 hours post op
(SGH seems to be within 6 hours post op and post op day 1)
Thyroid function check at 6 weeks to check contralateral lobe working
Check again at 3 months if issue at 6 weeks
Vocal cord mobility check (FNE) post op

64
Q

Which signs are pathognomic of Grave’s in a hyperthyroid patient?

A

Exophthalmos and nonpitting edema (pretibial myxedma)

65
Q

Risk factors for Grave’s

A

Genetic link > likely to suffer if family member has
Those with Autoimmune disease - T1DM, RA - more likely to suffer
Smoking

66
Q

Risk factors for Hashimoto’s

A

FH
Personal history of autoimmune disease

67
Q

Pathophyisology of Grave’s

A

Thyroid stimulating immunoglobulins (IgG) bind to TSH receptors on thyroid follicular cells which produce > T3/T4
Eye signs are due to ? the extaocualr muscles expressign a TSH receptor, are affected by the circulating IgG which results in fibrobklast activation > hypertrophy, adipogenesis > exopthalmos

68
Q

Second most common cause hyperthyroidism

A

Toxic multinodular goitre

69
Q

Indications for thyroid surgery

A

4 C’s

Compressive symptoms (Trachea / Oesophagous - Dysphagia / Stridor)
Cancer
Cosmetic
ToxiCOSIS

70
Q

Signs / Symptoms of Hypocalcaemia

What is a common cause of it in an ENT setting?

A

CATS GO Numb

Convulsions / seizures
Arrhythmias
Tetany
Numbness in the hands and feet and around the mouth

ECG changes (prolonged QT)

Chostek sign may be positive with hypocalcaemia
(twitching of facial muscle ontapping on the side of the ear).

Thyroid / Parathyroid surgery

71
Q

Emergency management of hypocalcaemia

A

STAT
> IV 10ml 10% calcium gluconate in 100ml NaCl / 1 hour

Followed by:
> Calcium infusion 40ml 10% in 500mls NaCl / 24hrs
> Start calcium supplements PO (Calcichew D3 forte) QDS 1 tabket

72
Q

Rare causes of Goitre

A

Sarcoidosis
TB
Amyloid
HIV

can all cause Goitre

73
Q

Large goitre, normal TFTs diagnosis?

Management?

A

Non toxic or multinodular goitre

(? Ensure not cancer or rare cause e.g. Amyloid, sarcoid, TB, HIV by testing for all of this?)
> USS FNA
> CXR for retrosternal extension and sarcoid and TB
> Bloods - CA, ACE-I, HIV

If is just the above generally no treatment unless becomes toxic / hypo or compressive symptoms or other 4 C’s)

74
Q

What is De Quervains Thyroiditis?

A

Subacute granulomatous thyroiditis

Secondary to acute viral illness e.g. URTI, Mumps, adenovirus etc.
Diffusely swollen, tender goitre
Transiet Hyperthyroidism and autoantibody production
Hypothyroidism
Then return to euthyroid

75
Q

Elderly patient, long term Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, Goitre has recently enlarged, what is the possible cause?

A

Hashimoto’s Can degenerate into Lymphoma (B Cell, Non-Hodgkins)

76
Q

Types opf thyroid cancer (5-7)

A

Papillary
Hürthle cell
Follicular
Medullary
Anaplastic

Thyroid sarcoma
Primary thyroid lymphoma is a type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma

77
Q

Papillary Carcinoma

Description
Where metastasis to
Diagnosis
Histology

A

Papillary Carcinoma

> Common (60%)
Commonest thyroid cancer in children
Often MULTIFOCAL
Lymph mets common (cervical nodes)
< 10% have distant mets

Diagnosis
Thyroglobulin tumour marker
Accurately Dx on FNA (FNA, not a core biopsy

Histology:

Psammoma bodies (microcalcification)
Orphan annie nuclei (which appear uniform on staining and EMPTY)
Pappillary projections
Seldom encapsulated

78
Q

Follicular Carcinoma

Description
Where metastasis to
Diagnosis
Histology

A

Follicular Carcinoma
20% of thyroid CAs
Rare in young (<30 yr old) pts
Haematogenous route common (lungs etcs)

Diagnosis
CANNOT Dx on FNA, therefore must perform hemi-lobectomy for histology

Histology:

macroscopically encapsulated, microscopically capsular invasion is seen

well-defined follicles containing colloid

Hurthle cell tumours (variation): prominent oxyphil cells and scanty thyroid colloid.

Dx actually made on invasion rather than histology because it looks so much like normal tissues (hence FNA no diagnostic)

79
Q

Medullary thyroid carcinoma

Description
Where metastasis to
Diagnosis
Histology

A

Medullary thyroid carcinoma

~5% of all thyroid CAs
Familial in 20%

Can be MEN II (A&B) disease or Familial NON MEN disease or Sporadicially
If MEN 90% bilateral

Tumour of Parafollicular (C cells)
Lymphocytes predominant

Lymph AND Haematogenous spread

Poor outcome if not familial

Diagnosis
Calcitonin often raised

Management
Total Thyroidectomy + selective lymph node dissection

80
Q

MEN I
MEN IIA
MEN IIB

What pathologies

A

MEN I
Pituitary adenoma
Parathyroid hyperplasia
Pancreatic tumours

MEN IIA
Medullary thyroid cancer
Parathyroid hyperplasia
Phaeochromocytoma

MEN IIB
Medullary thyroid cancer
Phaeochromocytoma

Marfanoid body habitus
Mucosal neuromas

81
Q

Anaplastic Carcinoma

A

**Anaplastic Carcinoma **

10% of all Thyroid malig
Elderly women
Often superimposed on longstanding Goitre
Spindle cells
Rapid local invasion common
Very poor prognosis

82
Q

British Thyroid Association (BTA) “U” System

A

U1: Normal - only FNAC if high risk
U2: Benign - only FNAC if high risk
U3: Indeterminate - FNAC
U4: Suspicious - FNAC
U5: Malignant - FNAC

83
Q

Thyroid ultrasound appearance suspicious for malignancy (6)

A
  • Solid hypOechoic
  • Lobulated / irregular outline
  • Microcalcification
  • Intranodular vascularity
  • Taller than wide axially (AP>ML)
  • Characteristic associated lymphadenopathy
84
Q

How are thyroid nodules classified on ultrasound and what is the grading system called?

A

British Thyroid Association (BTA) “U” System

U1 (normal)
no nodules
U2 (benign)
hyperechoic or isoechoic with a halo
cystic change with ring-down artifact (colloid)
microcystic or spongiform appearance
peripheral egg-shell calcification
peripheral vascularity
U3 (indeterminate)
solid homogenous markedly hyperechoic nodule with halo (follicular lesions)
hypoechoic with equivocal echogenic foci or cystic change
mixed or central vascularity
U4 (suspicious)
solid hypoechoic (compared with thyroid)
solid very hypoechoic (compared with strap muscles)
hypoechoic with disrupted peripheral calcification
lobulated outline
U5 (malignant)
solid hypoechoic with a lobulated or irregular outline and microcalcification
papillary carcinoma
solid hypoechoic with a lobulated or irregular outline and globular calcification
medullary carcinoma
intranodular vascularity
taller than wide axially (AP>ML)
characteristic associated lymphadenopathy

Size does not have a role in this grading system.

85
Q

THY classification

A

Thy 1
Non-diagnostic

Thy 2
Non-neoplastic

Thy 3a
Neoplasm possible (atypical features)

Thy 3f
Follicular neoplasm

Thy 4
Suspicious of malignancy

Thy 5
Diagnostic of malignancy

86
Q

How are thyroid FNA samples classified on cystology and what is the grading system called?

A

THY Classification

Thy 1
- Non-diagnostic
- US +/- repeat FNA

Thy 2
Non-neoplastic
Correlate with clinical and US findings

Thy 3a
Neoplasm possible (atypical features)
Further US +/- FNA
MDT discussion if Thy3a on repeat sample

Thy 3f
Follicular neoplasm
Diagnostic hemi-thyroidectomy

Thy 4
Suspicious of malignancy
Diagnostic hemi-thyroidectomy

Thy 5
Diagnostic of malignancy
Therapy appropriate to tumour type: usually surgery

87
Q

What adjuncts are there post thyroidectomy for high risk tumours?

A

Post-operative radioactive iodine treatment is warranted in the management of high-risk thyroid tumours

88
Q

What type of burns do button batteries cause and how?

A

The form a circuit when surrounded by bodily fluids, releasing strong alkali causing corrosive burns.

Can perforate oesophagus within 2 hours.

89
Q

Investigations (3) for ingestion of button battery?

A

AP & Lateral soft tissue neck XR
Erect AP & Lateral CXR
Abdominal XR

90
Q

Button battery at cricopharangeous - management?

A

Urgent rigid oesophagoscopy for removal

91
Q

Radiological signs associated with FB in oesophagous (4)

Which fish bones are radiolucent vs radiopaque?

A

LAWS

Loss of cervical lordosis
Air fluid level
Widened pre-vertebral shadow (pre-vertebral soft tissue thickening)
Subcutaneous emphysema

Lucent - Mackeral, Trout, Pike
Opaque - Cod, Haddock

92
Q

Management of FB in oesophagous

A

NBM
D/W anaesthist on call, theatre co-ordinator, ENT consultant on call and list for emergency oesophagoscopy and foreign body removal

93
Q

Signs and symptoms of oesophagoeal perforation (6)

A

Severe chest pain
Haematemesis
Tachycardia
Tachypnoea
Pyrexia
Surgical emphysema

94
Q

Management of oesophagel perforation

A

NBM
IV Abx
CXR
Rigid oesophagoscopy
Pass NG in theatre
Confirm placement
Commence feed when placement checked and satisfactory

95
Q

Investigation for FB in oesophagous / airway

A

HX & clinical exam (oral / neck / chest / nasal exam)
FNE
AP & Lateral soft tissue neck XR
AP & lateral CXR
+/- AXR

If none found, but high clinical suspicion can consider CT

96
Q

Management of a child who has inhaled a foreign body

A

A to E approach as per APLS
Assessning for any signs of airway compromise

15L high-flow oxygen on a non re-breath mask
+ nebulised adrenaline
+ heliox if available

Anaesthetic, paediatric and senior ENT support should be sought.

If in respiratory distress can deliver back blows > Abdominal thrusts > CPR is unresponsive

Operative management:

Above the vocal cords
Direct laryngoscopy
Magill forceps to remove

Below the vocal cords e.g. right main bronchis

Removal using
Rigid ventilating bronchoscope and optical forceps

97
Q

Causes of respiratory distress in a child (7)

A

**Congenital **
- laryngomalacia in the infant
**Traumatic **
- vocal cord palsy, subglottic stenosis
**Infective **
- severe adenotonsillitis, acute epiglottitis, laryngotracheo- bronchitis (croup)
**Acquired **
- Foreign body ingestion
**Autoimmune **
- severe asthma
- Anaphylaxis

98
Q

What can be used in laryngectomy patients to provide them with speech? (3)

And how do the work?

A

Blom-Singer valve (transoesophageal prosthesis)
- stoma occludedm air transmitted from trachea into oesophagus through prosthesis and then the throat which creates voice sound. Small valve prevents aspiration of food / fluids

Electrolarynx - handheld device put against neck produces monotone buzz which user articulates into speech

Oesophageal speech - swallowed air is regurgitated, vibrating neopharynx and articulated into speech

99
Q

How does a transoesophageal prosthesis create speech and what is the valve’s name?

A

Blom-Singer valve (transoesophageal prosthesis)

Stoma occludedm air transmitted from trachea into oesophagus through prosthesis and then the throat which creates voice sound. Small valve prevents aspiration of food / fluids

100
Q

Indications for tracheostomy

A

Obstruction:
To secure airway compromised by obstruction (e.g tumour / trauma / burns / FB / infection)
Protection:
To secure an airway in a anticipation of compromise (e.g surgery / cancer / neuorligical disease / burns)
Weaning:
To faciliate ventilatory wean (reduces dead space)
Pulmonary disease:
- Severe OSA unresponsive to CPAP
- Aid removal of secretions / protect from aspiration
Severe chest injury (flail chest):
As part of another procedure e.g. laryngectomy

101
Q

Types of tracheostomy tube and why you would use them:

A

Cuffed - to protect the lower aiway

Uncuffed - used for:
Children (to reduce subglottic stenosis)
Used to aid Vocalisation
(- patients who can protect their own airway, have an adequate cough reflex and most importantly can manage their own secretions e.g. GCS >8)

Fenstrated - allows air to pass to the glottis enabling speech, but encourage granulation formation > bleeding > aspiration risk

Unfenestrated - ??

102
Q

Parts of tracheostomy tube

A

Size 8 is pretty standard

Introducer - to aid insertion of tracheostomy

Inner tube (fenestrated / unfenestrated) - aid cleaning of the tracheostomy

Balloon / cuff

103
Q

Complicatons from tracheostomy

A

**Immediate **
- Damage to local structures (recurrent lareyngeal, cricoid, oesophagus, brachiocepahlic vein)
- Cardiac arrest

Early
- Bleeding
- Infection
- Pneumothorax
- Surgical emphysema
- Tube obstruction
- Tracheal necrosis

Late
- Subglottic stenosis
- Decannulation difficulties
- Tracheoesophageal fistula / Tracheocutaneous fistula
- Tracheoinommate fistula
- Scarring / Keloid

104
Q

Post op management tracheostomy

A

Regular suction (pt unable to cough/clear)
Humidifcation of air to prevent drying of airway / crusts / infection

Inner tube change at 48hrs
Outer tube change at 5 days
(Should always be spare tube and dilater at bedside)

Writing pad / instructions on speaking if fenestrated trachy

Removal as soon as is feasible - Ptg must be able to tolerate spigot for full 24 hour period before removal, and then monitored as inpt for 48 hrs after

105
Q

Oral pathology that could come up:

A

Oral candidiasis

Mucocele / Mucous retention cyst
Ranula

Apthous Ulcer
Traumatic Ulcer
Neoplasia (SCC)

Lichen Planus
Geographic tongue (erythema migrans)
Black hairy tongue

Frictional keratosis (e.g. linear, bilateral acoss buccal surface where teeth meet)
Leukoplakia
Erythroleukoplakia
Proliferative Verrucous leukoplakia

Palatal (Maxillary) Torus
Mandibular torus

Good article with images: https://www1.racgp.org.au/ajgp/2020/september/common-benign-and-malignant-oral-mucosal-disease

106
Q

Lace like pattern on buccal mucosa - diagnosis, sign, Rx?

A

Reticular Lichen Planus

‘net-like’ pattern = Wickham’s striae

This is most commonly located on the buccal mucosa but can be found on the tongue and lip vestibule

Often asymptomatic

Rx
Leave if asymptomatic
Topical steroid (e.g. steroid mouth rinses)
Systemic Rx

107
Q

Define leukoplakia, investigatons and management

A

Leukoplakia = descriptive term used to describe ‘white plaques of questionable risk having excluded (other) known diseases or disorders that carry no increased risk for cancer’ affecting the oral mucosa

As leukoplakia is a descriptive term
> Biopsy mandatory to establish the diagnosis.

Tissue diagnosis may range from benign (eg hyperkeratosis) to pre-malignant (dysplasia) to malignant (SCC).

108
Q

Define erythroplakia, investigatons and management

A

Red patch of the oral mucosa or a red lesion that cannot be characterised clinically or pathologically as any other definable lesion or disease.

Erythroplakic lesion is of even greater cause for concern than a white leukoplakic lesion as there are studies showing an almost 90% rate of SCC/high-grade dysplasia when a tissue diagnosis is established.

Biopsy

109
Q

What is a ranula and how is it treated?

A

A ranula is a mucus extravasation cyst involving a sublingual gland and is a type of mucocele found on the floor of the mouth.

Rx
- Nothing is aymptomatic and small
- Marsupialisation (open it into the oral cavity)
- Removal of sublingual gland

110
Q

Red spots on tongue - possible diagnosis?

What are they and where else could they be found?

A

Hereditary Heamorhagic Telengectasia

Telengectasia =
Red spots on lips / tongue / mucous membranes
Telengectasia face
AVM
Lesions in the gut

111
Q

Hereditary Heamorhagic Telengectasia
- Mode of inheritance
- Symptoms (6)
- Associatyed abnormalities (2)

A

Autosomal dominant

Epistaxis (> commons feature)
Telengectasia on face, nose & mucous membranes (mouth / (esp. the tongue / lips)
GI bleeding
Haemoptysis
CNS complications, cardiac and liver failure
Iron def anaemia

Lesions in the gut which can bleed
Arteriovenous malformations in the lungs, liver & brain / spine

112
Q

Treatments for HHT when it affects the nose

A

Conservative
- monitoring, follow-up and surveillance

Medical
- Oestrogens or Progesterone

Surgical / Interventional
- Repeated local treatment (cautery may exacerbate bleeds, try adrenaline soaked balloons, TXA)
- Radiotherapy
- Sclerosants
- laser (argon or Nd-YAG)
- Septodermoplasty (replacement of area with skin graft)
- Modified Young’s procedure (surgical closure of the nares)

113
Q

Investigations for a patient with recurrent epistaxis and red spots on tongue?

A

? Hereditary haemorrhagic telengectasia

FBC
Iron studies
Genetic screening
CXR (?Lung AVMS visible)
Echocardiogram (?cardiac compromise)
MRI Brain (?AVMS)

114
Q

Management options for hypopharyngal tumour

A

Depends on TNM stage:

Transoral laser microsurgery (TLM)
Chemoradiotherapy Laryngopharyngectomy
Palliative therapy / Best supportive care

115
Q

Laryngeal cancer pathology:

A

90% SCC

116
Q

Why does glottic carcinoma spread more slowly than other laryngeal tumours?

A

Glottic carcinoma spreads more slowly than other subtypes due to the relative lack of lymphatic drainage of the vocal cords.

117
Q

How does the monospot test work and how diagnostic is it for EBV?

A

positive Monospot test is highly suggestive of glandular fever.

HETERO = opposite of MONO

The test detects heterophile antibodies produced by
humans in response to EBV infection.
sensitivity between 70-92 percent
specificity between 96-100 percent.

118
Q

Complications of tonsillitis (6)

A

Peritonsillar abscess,
Inferior extension to medistinum
Para or retropharyngeal abscess
Septicaemia
Infective endocarditis Glomerulonephritis.

119
Q

Complications of deep neck space infections

A

Septicaemia
Endocarditis
Pericarditis
Mediastinitis

Thrombosis of the great vessels of the neck

Pyopneumonitis
Bronchial erosion
Purulent aspiration pneumonia

Grisel syndrome - non-traumatic rotary atlantoaxial subluxation associated with a head and neck infection.

120
Q

Symptoms of deep neck space infections
(5 key ones)

A

Stridor / Resp distress
Pyrexia
Drooling
Neck pain / stiffness
Dysphonia / voice change

Trismus
Odynophagia / Dysphagia

In children v. siumiliar to epiglotitis presentation: poor feeding, irritability plus the above

121
Q

Treatmet of deep neck space infections:

A

Consult seniors (ENT Surgeon / Anaestethist / paediatrician anesthetist)

Secure airway if any concerns

IV abx / 02 +/- adrenaline nebulises / Fluids / Bloods / Cultures

Imaging:
CT with contrast most helpful
Lateral soft tissue XRs

Theatre for drainge usually

122
Q

Discharging sinus anterior to SCM between the middle and lower 1/3?

A

second branchial cleft fistula

123
Q

Branchial cleft pathology - describe the types and locations and which is most common?

A

First branchial cleft anomalies (5-8%): seen above the level of the mandible near the external auditory canal within or close to the parotid gland.
* first branchial cleft cyst
* first branchial cleft fistula
* first branchial cleft sinus

second branchial cleft anomalies (commonest by far: 90-95%):
between the level of the mandible angle and the carotid bifurcation, deeper than the platysma and superficial layer of deep cervical fascia
* second branchial cleft cyst
* second branchial cleft fistula
* second branchial cleft sinus

3rd and 4th are very rare
3rd - infrahyoid neck
4th - infrahyoid neck, usually adjacent to the thyroid gland

5th - don’t occur

124
Q

Investigations for weeping sinus in neck

A

Fistulogram / Fistulorgraphy
USS
CT

125
Q

Management of weeping sinus in neck

A

Likly 2nd branchial cleft sinus/fistula

Investigations
- Fistulogram / Fistulography
- +/-USS
- +/- CT

Abx
Analgesia
Then any of:
sclerosing agents;
excision of the fistulous tract
Pull through brachial fistulectomy

126
Q

What will a fistulogram of a 2nd branchial cleft fistula show / what is the course of the tract?

A

Ssmooth tract extending from the external cutaneous opening at the lateral neck superomedially passing between the ECA and ICA over the hypoglossal nerve to the posterior pillar of the tonsillar fossa.

127
Q

What syndrome is associated with 2nd branchial cleft fistula?

A

Branchio-oto-renal syndrome

128
Q

Tonsillectomy - bleeding, what to tell patients

A

one in every five adults will need to stay in hospital for observation because of bleeding.

One in 100 people will need a second operation to stop the bleeding.