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CompTIA Security+ > Threats, Attack and Vulnerabilities > Flashcards

Threats, Attack and Vulnerabilities Flashcards

1
Q

Virus

A

Replicates, requires user action

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2
Q

Trojan

A

Hidden as something else

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3
Q

Worm

A

Self-replicating

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4
Q

Logic bomb

A

Virus with specific activation logic

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5
Q

Polymorphic virus

A

avoid signature-based detection by self-mutation

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6
Q

Armored virus

A

Decompilation-resistant

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7
Q

ARP poisoning is commonly used in

A

MITM

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8
Q

The ARP cache

A

maps IPs to MAC addresses

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9
Q

Replay attack

A

Sniffing and resubmission

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10
Q

Transitive Access Attack

A

Capture credentials through access of honeypot shared folder

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11
Q

Spoofing

A

Masquerade as a trusted system

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12
Q

DNS Poisoning

A

redirects to malicious server, either local or through DNS provider

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13
Q

Smurfing

A

ICMP Flood with a spoofed header

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14
Q

Sniffer attack

A

Used for recon, based on network examination

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15
Q

XMAS scan

A

Each packet has 3/6 flags to hide the scan

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16
Q

Hybrid password attack

A

Bruteforce and dictionary

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17
Q

Birthday attack

A

Bruteforce hash collision

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18
Q

Pharming attack

A

Malicious site through DNS Poisoning

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19
Q

Spearfishing

A

Directed phishing from a fake trusted person

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20
Q

Vishing

A

Telephone Phishing

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21
Q

Whaling

A

Phishing for high-level targets

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22
Q

War chalking

A

War driving, sniffing unprotected networks en masse

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23
Q

Rogue access point

A

Fake access point

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24
Q

Evil twin

A

A rogue WAP with similar SSID

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25
Q

Session hijacking

A

Disconnects session (DoS) and impersonates the user

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26
Q

Static environment

A

Hardware that is out of direct control, as processors.

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27
Q

Bluesnarfing

A

Bluetooth hijack for information retrieval

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28
Q

Bluebugging

A

Using bluesnarfing for installing a backdoor

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29
Q

MAC Flooding

A

Overloads CAM on switch leading to traffic being sent on all ports

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30
Q

Vishing

A

Voice phishing with spoofed caller ID

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31
Q

Authority Principle

A

Using an authority figure to pressure in SE attack

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32
Q

Threat to act belligerently on an SE attack

A

Intimidation principle

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33
Q

Using an authority figure to pressure in SE attack

A

Authority Principle

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34
Q

Be personable or create a bond for SE attack

A

Familiarity Principle

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35
Q

Citing professional credentials or organizational status for SE attack

A

Trust Principle

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36
Q

Make a social connection claiming someone else can vouch for them in an SE attack

A

Social Proof Principle

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37
Q

Claiming something is urgent in an SE attack

A

Urgency Principle

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38
Q

Claiming you don’t have time for verifying your identity in an SE attack

A

Scarcity Principle

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39
Q

Companion virus

A

Disguised as a legitimate program but with different extension

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40
Q

File Infector Viruses

A

They infect files .com or .exe

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41
Q

Macro Viruses

A

Excel and word macros, VBA

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42
Q

Stealth Viruses

A

Hijack system calls to not reveal corrupted files

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43
Q

Metamorphic Virus

A

Polymorphic but also changes memory payload

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44
Q

Pass the hash

A

Authenticate using hashing credentials that had been intercepted

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45
Q

Password spraying

A

Using very common passwords and testing it against a lot of user accounts to find matches. It exploits the weakest link in the chain, and can be more efficient than bruteforce.

46
Q

Logic bombs usually pass AV detection because they are usually

A

simple scripts

47
Q

Data Emanation

A

Interception of data due to EM leakage. Applies to WLAN.

48
Q

Bluejacking

A

Sending unwanted messages to BL devices for spam.

49
Q

Bluetooth Security Modes

A

Nonsecure, Service-level, Link-level

50
Q

Bluesnarfing can be prevented by using ____-____ mode

A

link-level

51
Q

Link-level mode protects Bluetooth by

A

Authentication on the link level, managed by hardware

52
Q

Service-level mode protects bluetooth

A

Through app policies

53
Q

Other name for a deauth attack

A

Disassociation attack

54
Q

Tool for WPS attack

A

Reaper

55
Q

On-path attack

A

General form of MITM usually with modification of content

56
Q

You can detect a rogue WAP by

A

A slightly different SSID or the lack of authentication

57
Q

Most severe WEP attack

A

IV Attack

58
Q

WEP IV

A

Initialization Vector

59
Q

Most common WPA attack

A

TKIP

60
Q

TKIP Attack mitigation

A

WPA2 with AES

61
Q

Classical attack on WPA2

A

Deauth, capture handshake and bruteforce or dictionary attack

62
Q

Ping attack

A

DoS through ICMP pings

63
Q

SYN Flood

A

Forged SYN packets that leave target waiting for ACK, halting the system meanwhile.

64
Q

DNS Amplification

A

Request sent to open DNS server with wrong source address, sending response to target

65
Q

Most common way to do MAC spoofing

A

ARP poisoning

66
Q

Main use of IP Spoofing (in DoS)

A

Confusing sysadmins, making tracing more difficult

67
Q

Use of IP Spoofing in internal network

A

Appearing as a trusted system

68
Q

ARP poisoning can be mitigated by

A

Implementing DHCP

69
Q

Common utility to forge packets

A

hping3

70
Q

Smurf attack use modified ICMP packets directed to

A

Broadcast addresses

71
Q

Smurf attacks can be mitigated by disabling

A

IP Broadcast Addressing

72
Q

Mitigation for TCP/IP Hijacking

A

Authenticated encryption, ex: IPSec

73
Q

The new exam calls MITM

A

On-path attack

74
Q

A mitigation for man-in-the-browser attacks is

A

Out-of-band transaction verification

75
Q

Domain Kiting

A

Registering a domain repeatedly on a grace period

76
Q

Domain Testing

A

Using Domain Kiting to test whether a domain is valuable by checking traffic

77
Q

ISACs

A

Information Sharing and Analysis Centers

78
Q

ISACs/ISAOs usually provide…

A

threat intelligence

79
Q

AIS

A

Automated Indicator Sharing

80
Q

TAXII, STIX and CybOX are examples of

A

Automated Indicator Sharing (AIS) Specifications

81
Q

Threat Hunting is the practice of

A

Theat Hunting uses Threat Intelligence to actively search for threat actors

82
Q

Threat Hunting and other security activities can be automated by using a ___ platform

A

SOAR (Security, Orchestration, Automation and Response)

83
Q

SIEM

A

Security Information and Event Management System

84
Q

SOAR

A

Security, Orchestration, Automation and Response

85
Q

SIEM vs SOAR

A

SOAR also assigns criticality and carries automated response once events are detected

86
Q

Third party platforms can increase unmanaged _____ _____

A

attack surface

87
Q

To reduce third-party risks, an organization needs to perform _____ _____

A

vendor management

88
Q

Shadow IT

A

Assets that are not known to the IT team and pose a possible unmanaged attack surface

89
Q

A(n) __________ is a security weakness that could be exploited by a threat.

A

vulnerability

90
Q

Term that describes the level of harm that results from a threat exploiting a vulnerability

A

Impact

91
Q

Network Mapper

A

Determine hosts, OSs and other types of network information through ICMP sweeps and other type of scans. Doesn’t scan ports.

92
Q

After systems have been identified with a network mapper, usually a ___ ____ follows.

A

port scan

93
Q

SMTP port

A

25

94
Q

FTP ports

A

20/21

95
Q

Telnet port

A

23

96
Q

Port 23

A

Telnet

97
Q

Port 25

A

SMTP

98
Q

Ports 20/21

A

FTP

99
Q

LDAP port

A

389

100
Q

389 Port

A

LDAP

101
Q

Three most common types of port-scanning

A

TCP, SYN (TCP with SYN flag), UDP

102
Q

CVE

A

Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures

103
Q

CVSS

A

Common Vulnerability Scoring System

104
Q

CVSS is based on vulnerability ______.

A

criticality

105
Q

CVSS vs CVE

A

CVSS scores a particular CVE by criticality

106
Q

OVAL

A

Open Vulnerability and Assessment Language

107
Q

An important consideration of SIEM configuration is server _______.

A

synchronization

108
Q

Alternative terms for white, gray and black box testing

A

Known, Partially Known and Unknown Environment Testing

109
Q

While known, partially known and unkown environments describe the knowledge of an attacker or pentester, to describe intent we use the terms

A

authorized, semi-authorized, unauthorized

110
Q

Red team vs Pentest

A

Pentest is more strictly defined in scope and duration

111
Q

Purple Team

A

Mix between blue and red, information sharing during the exercise

112
Q

White team

A

leads and adjudicates an exercise

CompTIA Security+ (7 decks)

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