Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

!!!!! Advanced Anesthesia II !!!!! > Thoracic Surgery II > Flashcards

Thoracic Surgery II Flashcards

1
Q

Formula for O2 content

A

(Hgb)(O2 Sat)(1.39) + (PaO2)(.003)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Physiologic responses to hypoxia

A

Increased CO
HTN
Increased ventilation

Sats 60-80% = tachycardia and hypotension
Sats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Kids have this pronounced response to hypoxia

A

Bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Predictors of hypoxia on single lung ventilation

A 
Poor PaO2 on two lung ventilation
High perfusion to lung being removed
Right thoracotomy
Problems with desaturation in the supine position
Restrictive diseases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

This is the biggest predictor of hypoxia on single lung ventilation

A

Poor PaO2 on two lung ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Saturation values and their correlated PaO2

A 
90% = 70mmHg
80% = 50
60% = 35
20% = 15
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

These factos cause a leftward shift of the dissociation curve

A

Alkalosis
Cold
Decreased 2,3-DPG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

These factors cause a rightward shift of the dissociation curve

A

Acidosis
Hyperthermia
Increased 3,4-DPG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the difference between hypoxia and hypoxemia?

A

Hypoxia is low O2 tension at the cellular level and reflects tissue hypoxia.

Hypoxemia is the relative lack of enough O2 in arterial blood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Hypoxemia is defined as a PaO2

A

80mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Common causes of hypoxia

A
  • Low FiO2
  • Hypoventilation
  • V:Q mismatch from compression d/t atelectasis or pulmonary edema
  • Decreased O2 carrying capacity (anemia, bleeding, etc)
  • Leftward shift of the dissociation curve (alkalosis, hypothermia, decreased 2,3-DPG, hypocarbia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Possible reasons for hypoxia during anesthesia

A 
Mechanical failure***** --> most common cause
  - Disconnect of circuit from the ETT (most common)
  - Empty cylinders
  - Pipeline failure
Esophageal intubation
Hypo or hyperventilation
Decreased FRC
Right to left shunt
PE
ARDS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Clinically effective range of O2 therapy

A

.24-.5 FiO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Detrimental effects of O2 therapy

A

Hypoventilation (especially in those with COPD)
O2 Toxicity
- Avoid 100% O2 for > 12 hours
- Avoid 80% O2 for > 24 hours
- Avoid 60% > 36 hours
Retrolental fibroplasia (common in newborns on high FiO2)
Fire hazard
Absorption atelectasis (gas rapidly diffuses into the blood and alveolar collapse occurs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Clinical goal for O2 therapy

A

Sat > 90%

Which correlates to a PaO2 of 60-70mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

S/S of O2 toxicity

A 
Substernal pain
Mild carinal irritation
Cough
Impairment of ciliary motion
Alveolar epithelial damage
Interstitial fibrosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A face mask can deliver up to this FiO2

A

Up to 60%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A facemark with a reservoir can deliver these FiO2s

A 
6L/min = 60%
7 = 70%
8 = 80%
9 = > 80% (around 90%)
10 = >80% (around 100%)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

This is the gold standard to prevent respiratory depression in thoracic cases

A

Thoracic epidural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the most common reason for not maintaining respiration after surgery?

A

Impaired respiratory drive.

This is why we prefer thoracic epidural to opioids!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Tidal volumes during jet ventilation

A

Provides tidal volumes less than anatomical deadspace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Two most common post-op complications

A

Atelectasis and pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When should ABGs be obtained?

A

On room air, on double lung ventilation, 15 minutes after one lung ventilation, and every hour or as clinical condition requires

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Tiers of Intra-op Monitoring for Thoracic Surgery

A

Tier I

  • Otherwise, routine, healthy patients like young person getting a VATS
  • Need a-line

Tier II

  • Healthy patient undergoing a specialized procedure, or, a sick patient undergoing a routine procedure
  • Significant cardiopulmonary disease or mild lung disease patient undergoing one lung ventilation (OLV)
  • Significant interstitial lung disease who requires an open lung biopsy or lobectomy
  • Need a-line and CVP. Possible PAC.

Tier III

  • Sick patients with significant cardiopulmonary complications who will probably be getting sicker and have special intra-op needs
  • Patient with cor pulmonale
  • Needs a-line, CVP, and PAC
  • Mixed venous monitoring
  • Probably TEE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

If PaO2 is > ____, then you’re probably not going to have issues with oxygenation on OLV. If

A

> 400 = ok

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Normal TVs for OLV

A

5-6mL/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is intrapulmonary shunt?

A

When part of the lung is being perfused, but not ventilated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What stimulated hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction?

A

Alveolar hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are silent lung units?

A

Areas of the lung that have had blood shunted away from them d/t hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction and OLV

A

Blood ends up getting shunted away from the non-dependent lung and towards the dependent lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is unique about hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV)?

A

In other parts of the body, vessels dilate in response to hypoxia. This is the opposite in the lungs and works to our favor by shunting blood away from the shitty parts of our lungs and towards the parts that are working well.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

HPV hits its maximal effect at ___ and lasts for up to ___.

A

Peaks at 30 minutes, and lasts for about 2 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Mechanism of action of HPV

A

Exact mechanism is unclear

HOWEVER, it may be due to the direct action of alveolar hypoxia on pulmonary smooth muscles sensed by the mitochondrial electron chain, with reactive O2 species serving as a second messenger to increase calcium and cause smooth muscle constriction.
Endothelial derived molecules modulate the primary response.
Other humoral and neurogenic influences are probably involved.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Factors that inhibit HPV

A 
High or low PA pressures
Hypocapnea (d/t hyperventilation)
High or low mixed venous blood
Vasodilators (NTG, nipride, etc)
Pulmonary infections
Inhaled anesthetics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Effect of HPV on left to right shunting

A

HPV will improve right to left shunting. Without it, blood would be going to areas of the lung not being perfused, resulting in Deoxygenated reaching the left heart. With it, blood is not exposed to these shitty lung areas and all blood gets properly oxygenated, thus decreasing right to left shunting.

36
Q

Effect of inhaled anesthetics on HPV

A

Most IAs inhibit HPV once greater than 1 MAC.

Below 1 MAC, you’re good.
IAs have a dose-dependent effect on HPV

37
Q

How do IV agents affect HPV?

A

They don’t.

38
Q

Effect of nitrous on HPV

A

Clinically insignificant

39
Q

1MAC of isoflurane inhibits HPV by ____%

A

21%

40
Q

Factors that place a patient at increased risk for desaturation on OLV

A

High percentage of ventilation or perfusion to the operative lung (as seen on scan)
Poor PaO2 on two lung ventilation (especially in the lateral position)
Right sided thoracotomy (because the right side is 10% larger –> means there will be a larger intrapulmonary shunt that occurs when this lung is deflated)

41
Q

OLV causes this type of shunt

A

Right to left shunt. This occurs because the lung is still getting blood flow but is not being ventilated during the case. The degree of this shunt, however, is diminished by HPV. But remember that gases > 1MAC will reduce this response and worsen intrapulmonary shunt!

42
Q

How might shunt be worsened in the VENTILATED lung during OLV?

A

Anything that would decrease blood flow to the ventilated lung:

  • High airway pressures
  • Low FiO2 (causes HPV in the lung where we don’t want it)
  • Vasoconstrictors
  • PEEP
43
Q

Benefits of inhaled anesthetics in thoracic surgery

A

Good bronchodilators and obtunds airway reflexes
Can be delivered with high FiO2 concentrations
Relatively CV stable
Rapidly removed from the system if needed
HPV is preserved at levels up to 1 MAC

44
Q

Benefits of IV agents in thoracic surgery

A

CV stability
No affect on HPV
Decreases the need for high volatile anesthetics

45
Q

Nitrous in thoracic surgery

A

Has no clinical affect on HPV, but remember that to be effective it must be used in high concentrations. This is undesirable because we try to give high FiO2 during the case.

46
Q

We want to any fluid intake over ____ in a 24 hours period

A

20mL/kg

ex- 1400cc for a 70kg patient

47
Q

What should you include in your epidural medications?

A

Low concentration local plus an opioid (the other day we used fentanyl + buvipicaine). We gave bolus doses during the case and then started a maintenance drip in the ICU.

48
Q

What sucks about referred shoulder pain after thoracotomy?

A

It can persist despite have a thoracic epidural.

49
Q

What can be used to treat refractory shoulder pain?

A

NSAIDs (Toradol), but we need to be careful because they increase bleeding and we have an epidural in place. We don’t want no epidural hematoma. That would be bad, mmmkay?

50
Q

We should reduce thoracic epidurals dosing to about __% of the dose that you would give for lumbar epidurals.

A

50%

This is to avoid cephalic spread.

51
Q

Why do we usually avoid morphine in these cases?

A

They cause more respiratory depression than fentanyl. Fentanyl has less respiratory depression and is cardiac stable.

52
Q

According to the powerpoint, about how much fentanyl should you give on induction?

A

3-6mcg/kg, but really you probably won’t give this much because you would have your thoracic epidural in place and shouldn’t need to much pain control.

53
Q

How many interspaces should get blocked in an intercostal nerve block?

A

5 interspaces. Should be one at the site as well as two interspaces above an two below the site.

54
Q

Indications for OLV

A

ABSOLUTE Indications:

  • To isolate a lung to avoid spillage or contamination (fistula/empyema)
  • To control distribution of ventilation
  • Unilateral bronchopulmonary lavage for pulmonary alveolar proteinosis (excessive abnormal surfactant –> treatment is lavage of the entire lung)

RELATIVE Indications:

  • To improve surgical exposure
  • Severe hypoxemia d/t unilateral lung disease (do OLV to increase HPV, thus decreasing right to left shunt)
55
Q

This is the lung separation technique of choice

A

Double lumen tube (chosen over bronchial blockers or endobronchial intubation)

56
Q

This is the best predictor of DLT size

A

Height! Cause that shit needs to go far down your trachea.

57
Q

People taller than 170cm, should receive this size DLT

A

41 FR

58
Q

Average DLT size

A

37 or 39 FR

Usually for those 63-67 inches

59
Q

Complications for DLTs

A

Tracheobronchial tree disruption
Traumatic laryngitis
Suture of pulmonary vessels to the DLT

60
Q

What is a univent tube?

A

Single lumen (uni) tube that has a special channel for placement of a bronchial blocker

61
Q

How to check placement for a left sided DLT

A

Inflate the tracheal cuff
Check for bilateral breath sounds (if unilateral, it means that it has gone so far down the left maintop that the tracheal opening is blocked)
Inflate the bronchial cuff and clamp the tracheal lumen and make sure you only hear left breath sounds
Then clamp the bronchial lumen only and make sure you only hear right breath sounds.

62
Q

During OLV. minute ventilation should be adjusted so that PaCO2 is about ___mmHg

A

40mmHg

63
Q

Interventions to do if you begin having trouble with oxygenation during OLV

A

Try suctioning the tube (might be shit in there)
Re-assess positioning with fiberoptic scope
Give PEEP to ventilated lung
Give CPAP to non-dependent lung (5-10cmH2O)
Ensure that MAC we would have to discuss this with the surgeon first)

64
Q

When re-inflating the down lung, you should re-inflate it to about ____cmH2O to reinstall the atelectic area and check for air leaks

A

30cmH2O

65
Q

When checking chest tube potency, it should only be at this setting

A

To water seal only, no suction.

66
Q

Weaning parameters

A

VC > 15mL/kg
TV > 2mL/kg
RR

67
Q

Criteria for extubation

A

Acute phase of the disease is resolved and adequate cough reflex is present***
Hemodynamic stability
RR is 60 on FiO2 of 40-50 and PEEP 13)

68
Q

Mortality rate for mediastinoscopy can be as high as __%

A

8%

69
Q

Can mediastinoscopy be done under LA only?

A

Yes, but 90% are done with single or double lumen ETT.
Major risk may be involved if local only, b/c if the patient coughs, there is major risk of bleeding and damage to the great vessels or other structures

70
Q

Mediastinoscopy is the gold standard for

A

evaluation of mediastinal lymph nodes in the staging of NSCLC, in the diagnosis of mediastinal masses, and in staging of SCLC

71
Q

Where is incision made for mediastinoscopy?

A

2-3cm incision in midline of lower neck in the suprasternal notch

72
Q

This artery is immediately anterior to the mediastinoscope

A

The innominate artery (brachiocephalic artery)

73
Q

Anesthetic considerations for mediastinoscopy

A

GETA
A-line and pulse ox on the right side to monitor for compression of the innominate artery (if waveform flattens, as the surgeon to reposition the scope)
NIBP on left
Trachea may be compressed by the scope
Keep patient paralyzed! Coughing could be devastating. in terms of resultant blood loss.
T&C should be complete with blood available IN the room!

74
Q

Why is compression of the innominate artery bad?

A

It also supplies the right carotid! Can result in poor cerebral perfusion

75
Q

Major things to watch for during mediastinoscopy

A

Compression of the innominate artery
Compression of the trachea
Risk for hemorrhage (8% overall mortality)

76
Q

This is an absolute contraindication for mediastinoscopy

A

A prior mediastinoscopy! Major risk for mortality d/t formation of adhesions.

77
Q

Major complications of mediastinoscopy

A 
Hemorrhage
Pneumothorax
RLN injury
Phrenic nerve injury
Esophageal injury
Air embolism
Left hemiparesis (from compression of innominate)
78
Q

VATS is the procedure of choice for

A

Diagnosis and management of diseases of the pleura, non diagnosed peripheral pulmonary nodules, interstitial lung disease, lung biopsies, pleurectomies, and other various pulmonary disorders

79
Q

Can VATS be done supine?

A

Yes, but generally done lateral

80
Q

Advantages of VATS compared to open thoracotomy

A

Less pain
Shorter hospital stay
Improved post-op PFTs (probe due to decreased pain)

81
Q

Injury risk in the lateral position

A

Risk for stretch and compression injury! Stretch injury in up arm and compression in down arm.
Make sure to watch eyes and ears.
Risk for damage to the perennial nerve –> dependent leg should be slightly flexed.

82
Q

Empyema can lead to

A

Erosion of the bronchus and development of a bronchopleural fistula

83
Q

S/S of bronchopleural fistula

A

SQ emphysema, dyspnea, tracheal deviation, air leak (bubbbles in chest tube), and purulent chest tube drainage

84
Q

Indication for tracheal resection

A

For tracheal obstruction. ETT should be placed past the obstruction if possible (use fiberoptic). If not, then ventilate with HFJV.

85
Q

Post-op notes for tracheal resection.

A

Transport with HOB up and neck flexed to prevent tension at the suture line.
Caution with the ETT cuff –> make sure that the cuff didn’t get sutured in place during closure of the trachea.

!!!!! Advanced Anesthesia II !!!!! (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions