Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Boards part 1 > things to remember > Flashcards

things to remember Flashcards

1
Q

HIV

A

oncovirus NOT oncogenic

only virus with diploid

enveloped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

inital manifestation of acute early HIV looks like

A

mononucleosis like syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

HIV is responsible for resurrgence of

A

M . Tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

HIV not associated with

A

adenovirus [conjunctivitis = pink eye]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

HIV associated protozoa

A

cryptosporidium enterocolitis

[another protozoa is toxoplasmosis, but less associated with HIV]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

intracellular parasite

treated with sulfadiazine [antibiotic]

A

toxoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

even some super killers have pretty nice capsules

A

e coli

salmonella

s. pneumonia
k. pneumonia

H. influenza

P. aeruginosa

N. meningitis

C. neoforman = crytoccocus neoforman

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

airbone fungus

cause opportunistic infections

A

aspergillus

cryptococcus menigitis

rhizopus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

2x as more common in males

most commonly affects B cells

lymphadenopathy [disease affecting lymph nodes]

non contagious

heterozygous histology

A

non hodgkins lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

1st indication of swollen lymph nodes

A

non hodgkins lymphoma

  • lymphadenopathy [painless]
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

burkitt’s lymphoma is a type of non hodgkin’s lymphoma

TF

A

true

high grade b cell lymphoma [lymph gland tumor]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

1st human cancer strongly associated with virus

A

burkitts lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Reedstern berg cells

bimodal = homozygous histo

anorexia, weight loss, low grade fever, night sweats

contagious

extranodular rare

A

hodgkins lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

american form of burkitt’s lymphoma

A

americans are fat = abdominal mass

cleaner than africa = not likely EBV, jaw tumors rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

starry sky appearance of high grade B cell in histo

endemic form in africa and jaw tumors

A

burkitt’s lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

increased bleeding time in pt with leukemia due to

A

thrombocytopenia [decreased number of blood platelet]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

pt undergoing chemotherapy for leukemia will see more oral infections from c. albicans

A

oral candidiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

hyperthyroidism = thyrotoxicosis

A

exopthalamous

tachycardia

fine tremor, fine hair

heat intolerance, warm moist skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

diffuse goiter [enlargement of thyroid gland]

seen in

A

grave’s disease

  • hyperthroidism with TSH receptor antiboides
  • TS Ig Ab binding to TSH receptor –> produce excess thyroxin
  • weight loss, diarrhea,
  • insomnia, irritability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

pretibial myedema

butterfly shaped gland

what disease?

A

grave’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

simple NO to the plummer

A

Plummer’s Disease

simple nodular goiter

toxic nodular goiter

NEVER SEEN IN CHILDREN

risk factor = female 60+ yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

same symptoms as grave’s disease but no exopthalamus

A

plummer’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

congenital hypothyroidism most likely causes

A

delayed eruption of teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

most common cause of hypothyroidism

A

hashimoto’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

hypothyroidism

A

WEIGHT GAIN:

  • increase blood cholesterol
  • positive nitrogen balance

DECREASE:

  • plasma bound iodine
  • iodine uptake by thyroid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

increase o2 consumption if under heavy metabolism

hypo or hyper thyrodism

A

hyperthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

extreme hypothyrodism in adults =

A

myxedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

autoimmune reaction against the thyroid gland [thyroiditis]

A

hashimoto’s disease

most common cause of hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

severe hypothyroidism in children leads to

A

cretinism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

severe hypothyroidism in children with crenitism

will cause

M D D D D

A

mental retardation

underdeveloped of mandible

overdeveloped maxilla

delayed growth

delayed eruption

deciduous teeth retained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

maxillary teeth derives from

A

BA 1 and globular process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

which is not derived from BA 1

A

intermaxillary arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

1 BA divides in ____ weeks embryonic development to form Mn and Max processes

A

4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Man is mostly formed form ____

Max is mostly formed form ____

A

mand = intramembranous ossification of meckel’s cartilage

max = intramembranous ossification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Man everything forms except for ____

A

condyles = endrochondral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

BA 1 max processes formed:

A

maxillary

upper lip

zygomatic bone

squamous part of the temporal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

lateral palatine process of maxillary processes forms_____

A

2ndary palate : hard and soft palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

medial palatine process of maxillary process forms ____

A

palatine shelves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

medial nasal processes forms ____

A

primary palate [anterior to incisive foramen]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

lateral cleft lip is failure of fushion ____

affects mostly ____

A

failure of fushion = medial nasal process and maxillla

asians

*** correct fushion of max process and medial nasal process = philtrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

cornerns of the mouth is formed by

A

fushion of mand and maxillary processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

failure of complete fushion of palatine shelfs

A

bifid uvula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

anterior 2/3 of tongue

___ = median tongue bud

____ = distal tongue bud on each side of median tongue bud

A

tuberculum impar

lateral lingual swellings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

which BA does the median tongue bud from the tuberculum impar develope from

A

BA 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

lateral lingual swellings

elevations of proliferation of mesenchyme of ___ arch

swellings form ____ part of the tongue + mucosa

waht type of mucosa

A

1st arch

anterior 2/3 and ectoderm mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

posterior 1/3 tongue

_____ from 2nd arch

_____ from 3rd arch

type of mucosa

A

copula = 2nd arch

hypobronchial emeninece = 3rd arch

endoderm mucosa

47
Q

macula DOES NOT FORM THE TONGUE

waht does it form

A

macula = eye

48
Q

junction of the body and root of the tongue =

A

foramen cecum

49
Q

foramen cecum lies ___ of the sulcus terminalis

A

base of V of sulcus terminalis

50
Q

sulculs terminalis is

A

V shaped demarcation taht separates anterior 2/3 of tongue and posterior 1/3

51
Q

where is the circumvalliate papilla to the foramen cecum

and sulcus terminalis

A

in front of the foramen cecum and sulcus terminalis

52
Q

taste innervation

ant 2/3 = ____

pos 1/3 = ___

all from ____ nucleus

A

ant 2/3 = CN 7

pos 1/3 = CN 9

all from solitary nucleus

53
Q

bifid tongue from

A

failure of fushion from distal tongue buds aka laterl lingual swellings

54
Q

______ arches play a role in tongue development

A

1st 2nd 3rd BA

55
Q

BA 1 cartilage

M M M M M

V3 –> 8 muscles

forms _____ and a large part of the ____

A

malleus –> malleus and incus

meckel’s cartilage –> scaffold for Mn

[mainly intramembranous ossifcation of meckel’s = Mn]

mandible

mylohyoid

muscles of masstication

V3 innervation

56
Q

BA 2 cartilage

S S S S 7

hyoid bone

Reichert’s cartilage

A

stapes

styloid process of temporal bone

stylohyoid ligament and muscle

hyoid bone

smiling = muscles of facial expression

CN 7

57
Q

BA 3 cartilage

A

stylopharngenous muscle

CN 9 hyoid bone

58
Q

BA 4 and 6

laryngeal cartilages except ____

pharyngeal and layngreal muscles

CN 11 via 10

A

spinal part of CN 11 : SCM and trapezius

cranial part of CN 11 via 10:

  • pharyngeal muscles via vagus
  • laryngeal muscles via recurrent laryngeal nerve

laryngeal cartilages except epiglottis

59
Q

BA 5 ?

pharyngeal pouch 5th ?

A

5th BA = short lived, NOT DEVELOPED

5th pharyngeal pouch = becomes the 4th

60
Q

pharyngeal pouches = pharyngeal _______ lining

A

pharyngeal endoderm

61
Q

____ is not a derivative of phayrngeal pouch

A

parotid gland

62
Q

DiGeorge syndrome is messed up development of

___ and ____ pharygneal pouches.

results in ____ and ______

A

3rd and 4th pharygneal pouches

T cell deficiency and hypocalcemia

63
Q

Pharyngeal pouches

1

2

3

4

A

1 = auditory tube, middle ear cavity, inner layer Tympanic mem, mastoid air cells = antrum

64
Q

pharyngeal pouches

1

2

3

4

A

1 = auditory tube, middle ear, mastoid antrum, inner tympanic mem

2 = palatine tonsils, lymph nodules, middle ear

65
Q

phargyngeal pouches

1

2

3

4

A

1 = auditory tube, middle ear, mastoid air cells, inner tympanic mem

2 = palatine tonsils, middle ear, lymph nodules

3 = inferior parathyroid gland, thymus = Hassall’s corpuscle

66
Q

pharyngeal pouches

1

2

3

4

A

1 = auditory tube, mastoid air cells, middle ear, inner tympanic mem

2 = palatine tonsils, middle ear, lymph nodules

3 = inferior parathyroid gland, Hassall’s corpuscles

4 = UU CC

superior parathyroid gland, ultimobrochinal body –> parafollicular cells [C cells] –> calcitonin in thyroid

67
Q

pharyngeal pouches

1

2

3

4

A

1 = auditory tube, middle ear, mastoid air cells, inner tympanic mem

2 = palatine tonsils, middle ear, lymph nodules

3 = inferior parathyroid gland, thymus = Hassall’s corpuscle

4 = UU CC

superior parathyroid gland, ultimobronchial body –> parafollicular cells [c cells] –> make calcitonin in thyroid

68
Q

soft, non cancerous growth from tertiary syphillis

a type of granuloma

A

gumma necrosis

69
Q

gumma necrosis most commonly affects ____

can result in _____ and _____

A

most commonly LIVER

neurological disorder

heart valve problems

70
Q

black and dead tissue

blood loss –> dead lower limb

A

gangrenous necrosis

71
Q

dry vs. wet gangrenous

A

dry = initially blood loss from coagulative necrosis

wet = bac infection, liquefactive necrosis

72
Q

thickened and pinkish vessal walls

antigen, ABs, + fibrin = immune rxn in vessels

A

fibrinoid necrosis

73
Q

pancreatitis

fat cells split

saponification = chalky white area with free FAs with Ca2+

A

fat necrosis

74
Q

white soft cheesy look

in TB, leprosy, and something

granuloma = debri and fragmented cells surrounded by macrophages and lymphocytes

A

caseous necrosis

75
Q

infections

brain infarcts

creamy yellow pus, liquidy

lots of neutrophils

A

liquefactive necrosis

76
Q

infarcts in any tissue EXCEPT BRAIN

blood loss

firm tissue

cell outline preserved [looks ghostly] everything looks red

A

coagulative necrosis

77
Q

epithelium in

maxillary sinus

implant epithelium of bone

respirtory tract

A

PCC epi

pseudostratisfied columnar ciliated epithelium

78
Q

coxsackievirus A causes _____ and ____ disease

A

herpangina

hand foot mouth disease

79
Q

location

herpangina vs hand foot mouth disease

A

Herpangina:

1) ulcers/ vesicles in the oropharynx: throat, phaynx, tongue, oral lesions, palate
2) usually children and SUMMER
3) associated lots of times with fever

Hand-foot-mouth:

buccal mucosa and gingiva

80
Q

most commonly isolated virus in feces:

hep c

influenza

herpes simplex

rubella

coxsackievirus

A

coxsackievirus

81
Q

3-yr-old w/ fever, vesicles / ulcers on soft palate, pharynx

A

herpangina

from coxsakievirus A

82
Q

Fever over 100, erythematous oropharyngeal ulcers

A

herpangina

83
Q

chronic cough

blood tinged sputum

fever, night sweats, weight loss

A

TB

[seen fever, night sweats, and weight loss in hodgkins lymphoma]

84
Q

highest lipid content in the cell wall

  • e coli
  • S aureus
  • Myco tuberculosis
A

Myco tuberculosis

  • due to the mycolic acids [rigidity of cell wall, protect against hydrophobic ABs = isoniazide –> inhibits mycolic acid biosynthesis
  • mycolic acid = lots of lipid waxy wall so stains RED in ACID FAST STAINING
  • usually G+ bac is blue BUT THIS IS RED
85
Q

PPD skin test is ____

Type IV hypersensitivity is due to ____

A
  • PPD = purified protein derivative of M. Tb
  • delayed Type IV hypersensitivity = hypersentivity to tuberculoproteins = Myco Tb DUE TO NECROSIS
86
Q

Causes fibrocasseous cavitary lesion in upper lobes

A

2ndary TB from M. TB

87
Q

Granulomas w/ multinucleate giant cells and caseation necrosis characterize lymph node involvement ______

A

w/ M. tuberculosis in the lateral neck

88
Q

Tuberculosis is produced by an agent that ___ produce exotoxin or endotoxin

A

DOES NOT produce exotoxin or endotoxin

89
Q

Cannot grow in vitro on any culture medium

A

syphyllis

and Myco leprae = leprosy = Hansen’s bacillus

90
Q

waht type of agar to grow M. Tb

A

Lowenstein-Jensen agar

91
Q

Pasteurization of milk targets what microbes?

A

Myco Tb and coxiella burnetti

92
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity is ___

A

sensitized lymphocytes

lymphocytes and macrophages

granulomas = sarcoidosis, crohns disease, TB, leprosy, CONTACT DERMATITS, fungus, GRAFT REJECTION

93
Q

Acute pyogenic bone infection

A

osteomyelitis

by S. arueus

94
Q

mand movements of digastric muscles primarily involved with

A

depression

and

RETRACTION

95
Q

MTM LgD

mother theresa met lord g Disick

A

masster

temporalis

medial pterygoid

lateral pterygoid

geniohyoid

digastrics

96
Q

innervation of V3 to MTM LgD

A

masseter

temporalis

medial pterygoid

lateral pterygoid

ANTERIOR BELLy of diagastric

[posterior belly is by CN 7]

97
Q

C1 via hypoglossal nerve [CN 12]

A

geniohyoid

98
Q

elevate the mandible

MTM LgD

A

masseter

temporalis

medial pterygoid

99
Q

main muscles that depress = open

DO = open

A

suprahyoid muscles = GIM, digastrics, lateral pterygoid

genio hyoid , mylohyoid, infrahyoid

100
Q

lateral pterygoid and diagastrics

A

depression and protrude the mandible

101
Q

origin and insertion of

M

T

M

L

G

D

A

Masster = maxillary process of zygomatic bone

I = lateral ramus of mand

Temporalis = O = temporal fossa of parietal bone

I = coronoid process

Medial pterygoid = O = lateral pterygoid plate of sphenoid bone

I = medial ramus of mand

Lateral pterygoid = O = lateral pterygoid plate of sphenoid bone

I = neck of mandible

Geniohyoid = hyoid bone

mand

Digastric = mand

hyoid bone

102
Q

3 things

geniohyoid and digastric have in common

A

hyoid bone

mand

mand

hyoid bone

both depresses mand

RAISES THE HYOID BONE

103
Q

posterior belly of digastric innervation

A

CN 7

104
Q

which muscle protrudes the mand

A

posterior fibers of temporalis

ant and superior fibers = elevate

elevate = close = easy

105
Q

muscle insertion into pterygoid hamulus

A

tensor veli palatini

106
Q

what makes up the sling of mandible

A

M and M

masseter

medial pterygoid

107
Q

origin and insertion of temporomandibular ligament

A

O = articular eminence / posterior zygomatic arch

I = neck of condyle

[also insertion of neck of condyle = lateral pterygoid muscle]

108
Q

Origin and insertion

temporomandibular ligament

pterygomandibular raphe

sphenomandibular ligament

A

-TML: articular eminence/ posterior arch of zygomatic –>

neck of mandible

  • [aslo neck of the mandible is lateral pterygoid muscle]
  • TML during yawning keeps the condyle in the fossa, so prevents retracting
109
Q

Origin and insertion

temporomandibular ligament

pterygomandibular raphe

sphenomandibular ligament

A

pterygomandibular raphe = buccinator and

superior pharyngeal constrictor

O = hamulus of pterygoid plate [also tensor veli palatini]

I = mylohyoid line

110
Q

Origin and insertion

temporomandibular ligament

pterygomandibular raphe

sphenomandibular ligament

A

sphenomandibular ligament

O = spine of sphenoid

I = lingula of mandible

[PREVENTS EXCESSIVE OPENING OF MANDIBLE]

111
Q

ligament that restricts protrusive movment

A

stylomandibular ligament

[DIFFER FROM SPHENOmandibular ligament

112
Q

TMJ is loading and synovial joint?

TMJ inferior part = ______

TMJ superior and anterior part = _____

A

true loading and synovial

inferior = rotation

superior and anterior part = translation, 25 mm?

113
Q
A

Boards part 1 (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions