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HESI > Things to know > Flashcards

Things to know Flashcards

1
Q

L = ?

A

50

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2
Q

C = ?

A

100

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3
Q

D = ?

A

500

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4
Q

M = ?

A

1,000

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5
Q

What is the freezing point of water in Fahrenheit?

A

32 degrees

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6
Q

What is the freezing point of water in Celsius?

A

0

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7
Q

What is the boiling point of water in Fahrenheit?

A

212

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8
Q

What is the boiling point of water in Celsius?

A

100

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9
Q

How many meters are in 1 kilometer?

A

1,000

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10
Q

How many centimeters are in 1 meter?

A

100

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11
Q

How many millimeters are in 1 centimeter?

A

10

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12
Q

How many centimeters are in 1 inch?

A

2.54

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13
Q

How many yards are in 1 mile?

A

1,760

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14
Q

How many feet are in 1 mile?

A

5,280

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15
Q

How many feet are in 1 yard?

A

3

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16
Q

How many pounds are in a ton?

A

2,000

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17
Q

How many ounces are in a pound?

A

16 ounces

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18
Q

How many kilograms are in a pound?

A

2.2

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19
Q

How many quarts are in a gallon?

A

4

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20
Q

How many ounces are in a gallon?

A

128

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21
Q

How many pints are in a quart?

A

2

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22
Q

How many cups are in a pint?

A

2

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23
Q

How many ounces are in a cup?

A

8

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24
Q

What is the appearance of observable emotions called?

A

Affect

Ex: The nurse observed that a depressed patient exhibited no obvious emotion and reported that the patient had a flat affect.

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25
Q

Rounded inward:

A

Concave

Ex: The dietitian noticed that the patient was very thin and the patient’s abdomen appeared concave.

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26
Q

Produced within the body:

A

Endogenous

Ex: The nurse explained that endogenous insulin produced by the body’s pancreas helps regulate the body’s blood sugar levels.

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27
Q

Produced outside the body:

A

Exogenous

Ex: The nurse explained that people with diabetes often need to receive exogenous forms of insulin because their bodies are unable to produce enough insulin.

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28
Q

So gradual as to not become apparent for a long time:

A

Insidious

Ex: The physician explained that the cancer probably started years ago but had not been detected because its spread was so insidious.

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29
Q

Changing rapidly and often:

A

Labile

Ex: Because the child’s temperature was very labile, the nurse instructed the unlicensed assistive personnel to check the temperature frequently.

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30
Q

Present but not active or visible:

A

Latent

Ex: The latent infection produced symptoms only when the patient’s condition was weakened from another illness.

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31
Q

Closed or obstructed:

A

Occluded

Ex: Because the patient’s foot was cold and blue, the nurse reported that the patient’s circulation to that foot was occluded.

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32
Q

Beginning suddenly or abruptly; convulsive:

A

Paroxysmal

Ex: The respiratory therapist provided a breathing treatment to stop the patient’s paroxysmal breathing difficulty.

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33
Q

Open:

A

Patent

Ex: The nurse checked to see whether the intravenous needle was patent before giving the patient a medication.

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34
Q

Rapid, uncontrolled:

A

Precipitous

Ex: The paramedic assisted the pregnant woman during a precipitous delivery in her home.

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35
Q

Of or relating to the kidneys:

A

Renal

Ex: The nurse closely monitored the oral intake and urinary output of the patient with acute renal failure.

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36
Q

Under the tongue:

A

Sublingual

Ex: The patient was prescribed a sublingual medication for chest pain.

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37
Q

What is the biological hierarchic system of organization, starting with Kingdom? (KPCOFGS)

A 
Kingdom
Phylum
Class
Order
Family
Genus
Species
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38
Q

Lipids are better known as fats, but specifically they are?

A

Fatty acids
Phospholipids
Steroids

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39
Q

Fatty acids vary greatly but simply are grouped into what two categories?

A

Saturated
Unsaturated

Saturated fats contain no double bonds in their hydrocarbon tail. Solid at room temperature.

Unsaturated fats have one or more double bonds. Liquid at room temperature.

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40
Q

This type of fat consist of two fatty acids of varying length bonded to a phosphate group?

A

Phospholipid

The phosphate group is charged and therefore polar, whereas the hydrocarbon tail of the fatty acids in nonpolar. This quality is particularly important in the function of cellular membranes. The molecules combine in a way that creates a barrier that protects the cell.

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41
Q

This type of fat is a component of membranes, and many are precursors to significant hormones.

A

Steroid

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42
Q

These polymers are the most significant contributor to cellular function:

A

Proteins

Proteins are complex, consist of several structure types, and are the largest of the biologic molecules.

Enzymes are particular types of proteins that act to catalyze different reactions or processes. Nearly all cellular function is catalyzed by some type of enzyme.

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43
Q

These are components of the molecules of inheritance:

A

Nucleic acids

Deoxyribonucleic acid is a unique molecule specific to a particular organism and contains the code that is necessary for replication.

Ribonucleic acid is used in transfer and as a messenger in most species of the genetic code.

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44
Q

This is the sum of all chemical reactions that occur in an organism:

A

Metabolism

In a cell, reactions take place in a series of steps called metabolic pathways… progressing form a standpoint of high energy to low energy. All of the reactions are catalyzed by the use of enzymes.

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45
Q

The 2 catabolic pathways that lead to cellular energy production (cellular respiration).

A

The aerobic pathway is a simple combustion reaction: CELLULAR RESPIRATION. Involves Glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain. Produces the most ATP (32-36 ATP).

The anaerobic counterpart, FERMENTATION.

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46
Q

Photosynthesis consists of what 2 stages?

A

Light reactions. Conversion of solar energy to chemical energy… absorbing light and using that energy to split a water molecule and transfer the electron, thus creating NADPH and producing ATP.

Calvin cycle. The molecules from the light reaction are used in the Calvin cycle to produce sugar. The sugar produced is polymerized and stored as a polymer of glucose… these are consumed by organism/plant itself to produce energy by cellular respiration.

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47
Q

The 5 stages of mitosis:

A

1) Prophase
2) Prometaphase
3) Metaphase
4) Anaphase
5) Telophase

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48
Q

The stages of meiosis:

A 
Meiosis one:
Prophase I
Metaphase I
Anaphase I
Telophase I

After the first cytokinesis, meiosis two begins: all 4 stages, identical to mitosis, occur.

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49
Q

This ER is responsible for protein synthesis and membrane production:

A

ROUGH ER

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50
Q

This ER is responsible for the detoxification and metabolism of multiple molecules:

A

SMOOTH ER

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51
Q

The DNA of a cell is organized in masses called?

A

CHROMOSOMES

Chromosomes contain all of the material for the regeneration of the cell, as well as all instructions for the function of the cell. Every organism has a characteristic number of chromosomes specific to the particular species.

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52
Q

These organelles read the RNA produced in the nucleus and translate the genetic instructions to produce proteins:

A

RIBOSOMES

Cells with a high rate of protein synthesis generally have a large number of ribosomes. They can be found in two locations… rough ER and free in the cytoplasm.

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53
Q

This membranous organelle is found attached to the nuclear membrane and consists of two continuous parts:

A

ENDOPLASMIC
RETICULUM

Rough ER and smooth ER.

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54
Q

This organelle is the packaging, processing, and shipping organelle of the cell. It transports materials from the ER throughout the cell:

A

GOLGI

APPARATUS

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55
Q

These organelles are packed with hydrolytic enzymes and is where intracellular digestion takes place:

A

LYSOSOMES

Lysosomes can hydrolyze proteins, fats, sugars, and nucleic acids.

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56
Q

These membrane-enclosed structures have various functions, depending on the type of cell:

A

VACUOLES

Many cells, through a process called phagocytosis, uptake food through the cell membrane, creating a food vacuole.

Plant cells have a central vacuole that functions as storage, waste disposal, protection, and hydrolysis.

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57
Q

The process in which cells engulf food particles through the cell membrane:

A

PHAGOCYTOSIS

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58
Q

The 2 organelles that produce cell energy (one is in the eukaryotic cell, the other in plants):

A

MITOCHONDRIA and
CHLOROPLASTS

Mitochondria are the site of cellular respiration.
Chloroplasts are in plants and are the site of photosynthesis.

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59
Q

The raw materials for cell respiration are?

A

Glucose and oxygen.

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60
Q

The products of cell respiration are?

A

Water, carbon dioxide, and ATP.

Plants and other autotrophs will utilize the products of cell respiration in the process of photosynthesis. The products of photosynthesis (oxygen, glucose) become the raw materials of cell respiration. (cyclical)

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61
Q

The process during cell division when the cell pinches in two:

A

CYTOKINESIS

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62
Q

Biology: pertaining to a single set of chromosomes:

A

HAPLOID

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63
Q

In biology: pertaining to having two similar complements of chromosomes:

A

DIPLOID

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64
Q

Alternate versions of a gene:

A

ALLELES

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65
Q

Trait in an organism that contains identical alleles:

A

HOMOZYGOUS

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66
Q

Trait in an organism that contains different alleles:

A

HETEROZYGOUS

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67
Q

In DNA, what pairs with Adenine?

A

THYMINE

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68
Q

In DNA, what pairs with Guanine?

A

CYTOSINE

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69
Q

During the production of protein synthesis, it begins with what process? What is it called?

A

TRANSCRIPTION

In this process, an RNA strand, complementary to the original strand of DNA, is produced. The piece of genetic material produced is called messenger RNA (mRNA).

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70
Q

In mRNA, the strand has nitrogenous bases identical to those in DNA with the exception of ?, which is substituted for Thymine?

A

URACIL

mRNA functions as a messenger from the original DNA to the ribosomes (either in they cytosol or on the rough ER). Here, the ribosome acts as the site of translation as the mRNA slides through it.

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71
Q

Tera -

abbreviation: T-

A

1 quadrillion times

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72
Q

deka -

abbreviation: D-

A

10 times

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73
Q

femto -

abbreviation: f-

A

1 quadrillionth of

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74
Q

Giga -

abbreviation: G-

A

1 billion times

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75
Q

deci-

abbreviation: d-

A

1 tenth of

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76
Q

pico-

abbreviation: p-

A

1 trillionth of

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77
Q

Mega -

abbreviation: M-

A

1 million times

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78
Q

centi -

abbreviation: c-

A

1 hundredth of

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79
Q

nano -

abbreviation: n-

A

1 billionth of

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80
Q

kilo -

abbreviation: k-

A

1 thousand times

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81
Q

milli -

abbreviation: m-

A

1 thousandth of

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82
Q

hecto -

abbreviation: h-

A

1 hundred times

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83
Q

micro -

abbreviation: u (greek letter)-

A

1 millionth of

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84
Q

Normal body temperature in Celcius:

A

37 degree C

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85
Q

0 degrees Kelvin (0 K) is -273 degree C and is thought to be the lowest temperature achievable or absolute ?:

A

It is thought to be absolute zero.

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86
Q

Freezing point of water in Kelvin:

A

273 K

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87
Q

The boiling point of water in Kelvin:

A

373 K

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88
Q

An atom that has a positive charge is called a ?

A

CATION

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89
Q

An atom that has a negative charge is called a ?

A

ANION

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90
Q

chemistry:

Different kinds of the same atom that vary in weight:

A

ISOTOPES

For a given element, the number of neutrons varies to make the different isotopes. The most common isotope of an atom, generally, has the same number of protons and neutrons in its nucleus. EX: Carbon 12 is the most common carbon. It has 6 protons and 6 neutrons. The isotope used for “carbon dating” is Carbon 14, which has 6 protons and 8 neutrons.

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91
Q

How to convert Fahrenheit to Celsius?

A

Subtract 32 degrees.

Multiply by 5/9.

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92
Q

1 Quart = ? ounces?

A

32 ounces.

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93
Q

How many milliliters are in an ounce?

A

30 milliliters.

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94
Q

chemistry: the part that is doing the dissolving:

A

SOLVENT

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95
Q

6.02 x 10 to the 23rd is called?

A

Avogadro’s number.

A MOLE.

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96
Q

chemical reaction: a self-sustaining, exothermic chemical reaction usually initiated by heat acting on oxygen and a fuel compound such as hydrocarbon:

A

COMBUSTION

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97
Q

chemical reaction: involved 2 ionic compounds, the positive ion from one combines with the negative ion of the other:

A

DOUBLE REPLACEMENT - The result is two new ionic compounds that have “switched partners”.

98
Q

chemical reaction: consists of a more active metal reacting with an ionic compound containing a less active metal to produce a new compound:

A

SINGLE REPLACEMENT - involves ionic compounds; whether the reaction will take place is based on the reactivity of the metals involved.

99
Q

chemical bonding: this is an electrostatic attraction between two oppositely charged ions:

A

IONIC BOND

Ex: Salt (cation=sodium, anion=chlorine)

100
Q

chemical bonding: formed when two atoms share electrons, generally in pairs, one from each atom:

A

COVALENT BOND: generally atoms share electrons in pairs… one from each atom. Generally between 2 nonmetals, and is strongest bond.

A single c.bond is sharing of one pair of electrons
A double c.bond is sharing of two pairs of electrons
A triple c.bond is sharing of three electron pairs.

101
Q

Hydrogen bonding, dipole-dipole interactions, and dispersion forces are all examples of what kind of forces?

A

INTERMOLECULAR Forces. These are not bonding interactions but instead are weaker forces of attraction between whole molecules.

102
Q

This type of “bond” is the attraction for a hydrogen atom by a highly electronegative element:

A

HYDROGEN BOND

Usually involve fluorine (F), oxygen (O), and nitrogen (N).
H.bonds are about 5-10% as strong as a covalent bond. But is the strongest among the “intermolecular forces.”

103
Q

This type of interaction (or intermolecular force) is the attraction of one dipole on one molecule for the dipole of another molecule:

A

DIPOLE-DIPOLE Interaction

Has 1% of strength of a covalent bond.

104
Q

These are sometimes called London dispersion forces and are the weakest of all the intermolecular forces:

A

DISPERSION Forces: a momentary or temporary dipole forms which is attracted to another momentary dipole of opposite charge in another near element/compound.

105
Q

What is the part of chemistry that deals with the quantities and numeric relationships of the participants in a chemical reaction called?

A

STOICHIOMETRY

The process of ratio comparison in a chemical equation. Similar to comparing ingredients in a recipe.
Ex: 2C2H6 + 7O2 —> blah blah, using this reaction, determine the # of moles of O that will react with 4 moles of ethane… it’s a 2:7 ratio. If ethane has 4 moles then O would have to have 14 (both doubled).

106
Q

oxidation and reduction: also called REDOX, involved the transfer of electrons from one element to another…

A

Oxidation is the LOSS of electrons (OIL = oxidation is loss).
Reduction is the GAIN of electrons (RIG = reduction is gain).

It is not possible to have one without the other.

107
Q

The element that is oxidized is the ? or the reducing agent:

A

REDUCTANT

108
Q

The element that is reduced is the ? or oxidizing agent?

A

OXIDANT

To “reduce” an element, one must cause that element’s overall electrical charge to become less and that is done by adding or gaining one or more negatively charged electrons.

109
Q

half chemical reaction to balance redox, using:

Ag + Al ^+3 –> Al + Ag^+

A

Ag —> Ag^+ (means Ag lost an electron=oxidized)
Al^+3 —> Al (means Al gained 3 electrons=reduced)

So, to balance out… add electrons to the most positive side:
Ag —> Ag^+ plus e-
Al^+3 plus 3(e-) —> Al
Then you have to balance by giving Ag’s coefficients of 3 to balance out… Answer is:
3Ag + Al^+3 —> Al + 3Ag^+

110
Q

pH: These are corrosive to metals:

A

ACIDS

111
Q

pH: These denature proteins:

A

BASES

Making the proteins feel slick

112
Q

These turn blue litmus paper red:

A

ACIDS

113
Q

These turn red litmus paper blue:

A

BASES

114
Q

These are called alkaline compounds:

A

BASES

115
Q

These are compounds that are hydrogen or proton donors:

A

ACIDS

Hydrogen in its ionic state is simply a proton.

116
Q

These are hydrogen or proton acceptors and generally have a hydroxide (OH) group in the makeup of the molecule:

A

BASES

This explains the dissociation of water into low concentrations of hydronium and hydroxide ions:
H2O + H2O H3O^+ + OH^-
water + water yields acid + base
1 water acts as a hydrogen donor giving one to another water, producing the hydronium cation and leaving a hydroxyl group.

All acids produce hydronium when placed in water.

117
Q

Amphoteric:

A

Can act both as an acid and as a base.

Ex: Water. Can donate or accept hydrogen.

118
Q

What is the scale of the pH scale?

A

0 to 14
7 is basic
0 is very acidic (hydrochloric acid)
14 is very basic (sodium hydroxide)

119
Q

skin: stratum germinativum consists of which two layers?

A

Stratum Spinosum and Stratum Basale

This is where mitosis occurs.

120
Q

Layers of epidermis from deep to superficial:

A 
Stratum Basale
Stratum Spinosum
Stratum Granulosum
Stratum Lucidum
Stratum Corneum

Epidermal cells contain the protein pigment called MELANIN which protects against radiation from the sun.

121
Q

This inner layer of the skin is called ? It is composed of fibrous connective tissue with blood vessels, sensory nerve endings, hair follicles, and glands.

A

The DERMIS.

Composed of fibrous connective tissue with blood vessels, sensory nerve endings, hair follicles, and glands.

122
Q

How many kinds of sweat glands are there?

A

There are 2 types of sweat glands:

The most widely distributed regulate body temperature by releasing a watery secretion that evaporates from the surface of the skin.

The other is mainly in the armpits and groin area, and display apocrine secretion.

123
Q

What type of sweat gland is the most widely distributed and help regulate the body temperature by releasing a watery secretion that evaporates from the surface of the skin?

A

ECCRINE sweat gland.

124
Q

HEMOPOIESIS

A

Blood cell formation.

125
Q

Which glands release an oily secretion (sebum) through the hair follicles?

A

SEBACEOUS glands. These lubricate the skin and prevents it from drying out.

The oil is produced by holocrine secretion, in which whole cells of the gland are part of the secretion. These are susceptible to becoming clogged and attracting bacteria, particularly during adolescence.

126
Q

Appendages of the skin include?

A

Hair and nails. These are composed of keratin (a strong protein).

127
Q

What are the cells that form compact bone called?

A

OSTEOBLASTS

128
Q

What are the mature bone cells called when they maintain bone tissue?

A

OSTEOCYTES

129
Q

What do osteoclasts do?

A

Break down bone.

130
Q

What is the axial skeleton comprised of?

A

The skull, spine, thorax, and ribs.

14 in the skull
14 face
33 spinal 
thorax
sternum
12 pairs of ribs
131
Q

What are the 14 facial bones?

A 
2 Nasal bones
2 Maxillary bones
2 Zygomatic bones
2 Palatine bones
2 Lacrimal bones
2 Inferior Nasal Conchae
1 Mandible (the only movable skull-bone)
1 Vomer
132
Q

What are the 14 bones of the cranium?

A 
2 Parietal
2 Temporal
6 Ossicles of the ear (2 Malleus, 2 Incus, 2 Stapes)
1 Occipital
1 Frontal
1 Ethmoid
1 Sphenoid
133
Q

What does the appendicular skeleton consist of?

A

The girdles and the limbs.

Upper: Pectoral (shoulder) girdle, the clavicle and scapula, and the upper extremity. Arm: Humerus, radius, ulna, carpals (wrist), metacarpals (bones of hand), and phalanges (bones of fingers).

Lower: Pelvic girdle (or os coxae) which consists of a fused ilium, ischium, and pubis. Leg: Femur (thighbone), Tibia and Fibula, tarsals (ankle), metatarsals (bones of foot), and the phalanges.

134
Q

How do muscles contract?

A

Big picture: in response to nervous stimulation.

Small picture: results from the sliding together of actin and myosin filaments within the muscle cell or fiber.

135
Q

What are the details of each muscle cell?

A

They each consist of MYOFIBRILS, which in turn are made up of still smaller units called SARCOMERES.

Calcium and adenosine triphosphate (ATP) must be present for a muscle cell to contract.

136
Q

What causes the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum in a muscle fiber?

A

Nervous stimulation from MOTOR neurons cause the release of Ca ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Calcium ions attach to inhibitory proteins on the actin filament within the cell, moving them aside so that cross-bridges can form between actin and myosin filaments.

Using energy supplied by ATP, the filaments slide together to produce contraction.

137
Q

Why must skeletal muscles work in pairs?

A

Muscles can only pull. So, you need another muscle to “undo” the original movement.

The muscle that executes a given movement is the PRIME MOVER, whereas the muscle that produces the opposite movement is the ANTAGONIST.

Other muscles known as SYNERGISTS may work in cooperation with the prime mover.

138
Q

Muscles can be classified according to the movements they elicit…

A

FLEXORS: reduce the angle at the joint (bicep curl up).

EXTENSORS: increase the angle at the joint (tricep).

ABDUCTOR: away from midline/body.

ADDUCTOR: toward the body.

139
Q

Sensory impulses enter the ? horns of the spinal cord:

A

DORSAL horns

140
Q

Motor impulses exit the spinal cord through the ? horns of the spinal cord:

A

VENTRAL horns

141
Q

What system assists the nervous system in homeostasis and meets at the hypothalamus and pituitary gland?

A

ENDOCRINE system. I also plays an important role in growth and sexual maturation.

The nervous and endocrine systems coordinate and control the body, but the endocrine system has more long-lasting and widespread effects.

142
Q

What governs the pituitary?

A

The HYPOTHALAMUS.

143
Q

What controls the hypothalamus?

A

The feedback of hormones in the blood.

fyi: it’s part of the limbic system

144
Q

Hormones are chemical messengers that control the growth, differentiation, and metabolism of specific target cells.

A

There are 2 major groups of hormones:
1) Steroid - enter the target cells and have a direct effect on the DNA of the nucleus.

2) Nonsteroid - Some are protein hormones. Many protein hormones remain at the cell surface and act through a 2nd messenger, usually adenosine monophosphate (AMP).

145
Q

Most hormones affect cell activity by…

A

altering the rate of protein synthesis.

146
Q

Locations of some major endocrine glands:

A 
Pineal (deep in center of brain)
Hypothalamus (below thalamus, just above brainstem)
Pituitary (pea-sized below hypothalamus)
Parathyroids (behind thyroid)
Thyroid (in front of trachea)
Thymus (heart)
Adrenals (kidneys)
Pancreas (islets)
Ovaries/Testes (gonads)
147
Q

What does the PINEAL gland do?

A

Produces MELATONIN, which maintains circadian rhythm and regulates reproductive hormones.

148
Q

This gland is nicknamed the “master gland”. It is attached to the hypothalamus:

A

PITUITARY gland.

Has 2 major portions:
1) The anterior lobe - ADENOHYPOPHYSIS (“tropic hormones”, because they act mainly on other endocrine glands). Includes: STH or “growth hormone”, Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and Luteinizing hormone (LH).

2) The posterior lobe - NEUROHYPOPHYSIS releases oxytocin (the labor hormone) and antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

149
Q

What is the INFUNDIBULUM?

A

The stalk that attaches the pituitary gland to the hypothalamus.

150
Q

What are AFFERENT neurons?

A

Sensory neurons. They transmit nerve impulses toward the CNS. An AFFECT is to change or influence something (the CNS is affected by the sensory neuron).

151
Q

What are EFFERENT neurons?

A

Motor neurons. They produce and EFFECT… They transmit nerve impulses away from the CNS toward the effector organs such as muscles, glands, and digestive organs. An EFFECT is something that is done due to a cause (the motor neuron is caused to respond to the affector neuron of the sensory neuron and an organ/gland responds.

152
Q

Affect vs effect:

A

When you affect something, it produces an effect.

153
Q

What part of the brain is associated with movement and sensory input?

A

The CEREBRUM

154
Q

What part of the brain is responsible for muscular coordination?

A

The CEREBELLUM

155
Q

What part of the brain is in control of many vital functions such as respiration and heart rate?

A

The MEDULLA OBLONGATA

156
Q

How long is the spinal cord?

A

Approximately 18”.

It extends from the foramen magnum to the 1st or 2nd lumbar vertebra (L1 or L2).

157
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves exit the spinal cord?

A

31 pairs.

158
Q

What do we call the spinal reflexes that travel through the spinal cord only and do not reach the brain?

A

SIMPLE reflexes.

159
Q

All blood vessels leading from the heart are called?

A

ARTERIES

They carry oxygenated blood. (except pulmonary artery)
They have thick elastic muscular walls
No valves
Blood flows under high pressure

160
Q

The blood vessels that carry blood away from the organs to the heart are called?

A

VEINS

They carry deoxygenated blood (impure), except the pulmonary vein.
Have thin, non-elastic walls
Have valves to prevent backflow
Blood flows under low pressure

161
Q

What makes up whole blood, in %’s?

A

55% PLASMA

45% Formed elements

162
Q

What are the formed elements in the blood?

A

ERYTHROCYTES: RBCs, transportation of oxygen that is bound to the protein hemoglobin.

LEUKOCYTES: WBCs. 5 types distinguished by size/appearance of nucleus/staining properties/presence or absence of visible cytoplasmic granules.

PLATELETS: active in the process of blood clotting. Pieces of cells.

163
Q

Which cell is active in phagocytosis?

A

WBCs: neutrophils (most abundant and “first responders” who live only a day so our bodies are constantly manufacturing) and monocytes.

164
Q

Which white blood cells are involved in antibody formation?

A

LYMPHOCYTES (T and B types)

165
Q

This contains approximately 10% proteins, ions, nutrients, waste products, and hormones, which are dissolved or suspended in water:

A

PLASMA

166
Q

What are the two circuits in the circulatory system?

A
  1. Pulmonary circuit: blood to lungs for oxygenation.

2. Systemic circuit: blood to the remainder of the body.

167
Q

Valves of heart from right to left:

A
  1. Tricuspid valve between right atrium and right ventricle.
  2. Semilunar valve in pulmonary trunk on way to lungs.
  3. Bicuspid valve from left atrium to left ventricle.
  4. Semilunar valve in aorta on way to body.
168
Q

What supplies blood to the heart (myocardium)?

A

Coronary arteries.

169
Q

How is the cardiac cycle measured?

A

The period from the end of one ventricular contraction to the end of the next ventricular contraction.

170
Q

What is SYSTOLE?

A

The CONTRACTION phase of the cardiac cycle is systole.

171
Q

What is DIASTOLE?

A

The “resting” phase of the cardiac cycle… more realistic is the phase when the chambers are filling with blood.

172
Q

What initiates the beating of the myocardium?

A

The SINOATRIAL node. It is transmitted along a conduction system through the myocardium. This wave of electrical activity is what is measured on an electrocardiogram (ECG).

173
Q

What are the smallest of vessels and where the exchanges take place between the blood and surrounding tissues called?

A

Capillaries.

Where water, nutrients, and wast products are exchanged.

174
Q

Where do the systemic arteries begin?

A

At the AORTA. This sends branches to all parts of the body. As the arteries get farther away from the heart, they become thinner and thinner.

175
Q

What are the SMALLEST arteries called?

A

ARTERIOLES.

The veins parallel the arteries and usually have the same names.

176
Q

What are the names of the large veins that empty into the right atrium of the heart?

A

Superior (anterior) Vena Cava (draining from the upper body)

Inferior (posterior) Vena Cava (draining from the lower body)

177
Q

HESI Hint: Deflections of the ECG don’t represent the systole and diastole of the heart chambers. Instead, they represent the electrical activity that precedes the contraction-relaxation events of the myocardium.

A

An analogy for this can be at a track meet when the starter’s gun is fired before the runners start to run. The sound initiates the action. In the heart, the action potential is similar to firing the gun. The contraction starts just after the action potential passes over the muscle cells.

178
Q

Most well-known disaccharide?

A

sucrose. Consists of a glucose and a fructose molecule.

Other disaccharides: lactose (glucose and galactose)
maltose (glucose and glucose)

179
Q

When 3 to 6 monosaccharides are joined together, it is called an ?

A

OLIGOsaccharide. Oligo- means “few”.

180
Q

More than 6 and up to thousands of monosaccharides joined together make a ?

A

POLYsaccharide. Which can be called a starch.

2 of the most common: cellulose (plants) and glycogen (animals). Both of these are repeating glucose units.

181
Q

What is the process called “oxidative phosphorylation”?

A

The Krebs cycle. After glycolysis (one molecule of glucose is broken down into two molecules of pyruvate (and 2 ATP), in aerobic cells, the pyruvate is further metabolized generating more molecules of ATP, water, and carbon dioxide.

Using oxygen to completely oxidize glucose provides an organism with far more energy than any oxygen-deficient system.

182
Q

What do we call the metabolization of glucose by a chemical pathway in the body?

A

GLYCOLYSIS.

The net result is the breakdown of 1 molecule of glucose into 2 molecules of pyruvate; this also produces a net 2 molecules of adenosine triphosphate (ATP). ATP is the substance cells use for energy.

183
Q

When skeletal muscles are used in vigorous exercise, they use up their oxygen and begin using another type of glucose metabolism called ? glycolysis:

A

ANAEROBIC glycolysis.

This process converts glucose to lactate (an acid) instead of pyruvate.

184
Q

What is gluconeogenesis?

A

The liver can make glucose from other non-carbohydrate sources, such as proteins and parts of fats, using a process called gluconeogenesis.

The glucose produced can then enter the energy-producing cycles and undergo gycolysis. Glucose can also be stored as glycogen in animals or as cellulose in plants. Glucose can also be used to make other saccharides.

185
Q

Greek for “sugar”:

A

Saccharide.

186
Q

What are proteins made up of?

A

AMINO ACIDS.

An amino acid is a molecule composed of a carbon atom bonded with four groups:
an AMINE group (NH2)
a CARBOXYL group (COOH)
a hydrogen
and an R group. The R group is diff. for each amino acid, giving it its own ID and characteristics.

187
Q

A union of 2 amino acids using a peptide bond is called?

A

A DIPEPTIDE.

188
Q

A group of less than 30 amino acids are called ?

A

PEPTIDES or

POLYPEPTIDES

189
Q

A group of more than 30 amino acids is called ?

A

PROTEINS.

An important protein in blood is ALBUMIN, which contains 585 amino acid residues, and is considered a fairly small protein.

190
Q

In humans, how many amino acids are needed to make all the proteins necessary for life?

A

Only 20!!!

191
Q

What consists of a hydrocarbon chain with an acid group, the carboxyl group (COOH), at one end?

A

FATTY ACID

192
Q

What is an example of a “neutral fat”?

A

A triglyceride.

3 fatty acids generally joined to a glycerol or some other backbone structure.

193
Q

This type of lipid is similar to neutral fats but one of the 3 fatty acids is replaced by a phosphate group:

A

PHOSPHOLIPIDS.

Essential components of cell membranes.

194
Q

A 6 carbon sugar:

A

HEXOSE.

Glucose and fructose are both 6 carbon sugars.

195
Q

What is the word used to describe the emission of particles and/or energy from an unstable nucleus?

A

RADIOACTIVITY

3 Types:
Alpha - emission of helium nuclei (2 protons and 2 neutrons, causing them to have a charge of +2). Penetration can be stopped by a piece of paper.

Beta - Decomposition of a neutron or proton. High-energy electrons that began as neutrons/protons and have “decayed” to electrons.

Gamma - High energy electromagnetic radiation, similar to x-rays but with more energy. Most damaging.

196
Q

Nuclear chemistry: what is half life (T1/2)?

A

The amount of time it takes for half of the unstable isotope in a sample to decay.

The atom decays until it finds a stable nuclear configuration, usually by emitting radioactive particles.

Ex: ^131^I (Iodine-131) has a half-life of approx. 8 days, or every 8 days one-half of the radioactive particles will e emitted or decayed. This will happen over and over again until the ^131^I reaches a stable nuclear configuration.

197
Q

What system do these components belong to:

Nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs with their alveoli, diaphragm, and muscles surrounding the ribs?

A

The RESPIRATORY system.

Respiration is controlled by the respiratory control center in the medulla oblongata.

198
Q

This term refers to the exchange of gases between the atmosphere and the blood through the alveoli:

A

EXTERNAL respiration.

199
Q

This term refers to the exchange of gases between the blood and the body cells:

A

INTERNAL respiration.

200
Q

What needs to contract in order for respiration to occur?

A

The diaphragm. This enlarges the thoracic cavity and draws the air into the lungs.

201
Q

What do we call the passive process during which the lungs recoil as the respiratory muscles relax and the thorax decreases in size?

A

EXHALATION.

202
Q

What is most of the oxygen carried in the blood bound to?

A

HEMOGLOBIN in the RBCs.

Oxygen is released from hemoglobin as the concentration of oxygen drops in the tissues.

203
Q

What is the function of CARBONIC ANHYDRASE in the RBCs?

A

Carbonic anhydrase converts most of the carbon dioxide in our blood into bicarbonate ions.

This reaction also releases hydrogen ions… which is why carbon dioxide is a regulator of our blood pH.

FYI: the CO2 that isn’t converted by carbonic anhydrase is carried in solution or bound to blood proteins.

204
Q

What is the ALIMENTARY canal?

A

The digestive tube consisting of the mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum, and anus.

205
Q

What are the accessory organs of the digestive system?

A

Liver
Pancreas
Gallbladder

206
Q

What are the 3 pairs of salivary glands?

A

Sublingual Salivary Gland

Submandibular Salivary Gland

Parotid Gland

207
Q

What is the name of the enzyme in our saliva?

A

AMYLASE.

This starts the digestion of complex carbohydrates.

208
Q

What forces the bolus into the upper portion of the esophagus for swallowing?

A

The constrictive muscles of the PHARYNX.

209
Q

What are the 4 main layers (from inner to outer) of the digestive tract?

A

1) The Mucous Membrane
2) The Submucous Layer
3) The Muscular Layer
4) The Serous Layer

210
Q

Which acid is secreted in the stomach?

A

HYDROCHLORIC acid.

211
Q

Where does digestion and absorption occur?

A

Small intestine. Nutrients are absorbed through the walls. The AMINO ACIDS and SIMPLE SUGARS (that were derived from the proteins and carbohydrates) are absorbed directly into the blood.

In the small intestine, the food (chyme) is acted on by many enzymes from the small intestine, pancreas, and bile from the liver.

The pancreas also contributes water to dilute the chyme and bicarbonate ions to neutralize the acid from the stomach.

212
Q

What are the 3 major regions of the small intestine?

A

1) Duodenum
2) Jejunum
3) Ileum

213
Q

What happens to most of the fats in the small intestine?

A

They are absorbed into the lymph by the lacteals.

Eventually these are added to the bloodstream.

214
Q

ALL nutrients that have been absorbed by the small intestine go where?

A

They enter the HEPATIC PORTAL VEIN to be routed to the liver for decontamination.

The villi present greatly increase the surface area of the intestinal wall.

215
Q

What does the LARGE INTESTINE absorb?

A

Water. It also stores and eliminates undigested food.

Here also are abundant bacteria, the intestinal flora.

216
Q

What are the 5 portions of the LARGE INTESTINE?

A 
1- Ascending colon
2- Transverse colon
3- Descending colon
4- Sigmoid colon
5- Rectum
217
Q

What are the 11 organ systems?

A 
1- Integumentary
2- Cardiovascular
3- Skeletal
4- Nervous
5- Muscular
6- Endocrine - hormones for reg. of all systems

7- Respiratory
8- Lymphatic - immune system

9- Digestive
10- Urinary
11- Reproductive

218
Q

The serous membrane (or serosa) is a double-layered membrane made up of 2 parts:

A

1) Parietal serosa: lines the cavity walls.
2) Visceral serosa: covers the organ.

In between these 2 layers is a fluid: serous fluid, which is secreted by both membranes.

Typically, they are named according to the cavity and organ they are associated with. Ex: Parietal pericardium lines the pericardial cavity (heart).

219
Q

Posterior body cavity contains ?

A

Cranial cavity and Vertebral canal.

Cranial cavity: contains brain.
Membrane: meninges

Vertebral canal: contains spinal cord.
Membrane: meninges.

220
Q

Anterior body cavity contains ?

A

1) Thoracic cavity.
2) Abdominopelvic cavity.

These are separated by the diaphragm.

221
Q

What does the Thoracic Cavity contain?

A

1) Pleural cavity: lungs, serous fluid.
Membrane: Parietal pleura and Visceral pleura

2) Pericardial cavity: heart, serous fluid.
Membrane: Fibrous pericardium and parietal pericardium as well as the Visceral pericardium (epicardium).

222
Q

What is the mediastinum?

A

The tissue mass between the lungs. Containing all of the thoracic viscera except the lungs.

223
Q

What does the Abdominopelvic Cavity contain?

A

1) Abdominal cavity: digestive organs, liver, kidneys.
Membrane: Parietal peritoneum, Visceral peritoneum.

2) Pelvic cavity: Reproductive organs, bladder, rectum.
Membrane: Parietal peritoneum, Visceral peritoneum.

224
Q

What 6 elements make up 98% of living matter?

A 
Carbon
Hydrogen
Oxygen
Nitrogen
Sulfur
Phosphorus
225
Q

What is a periosteum?

A

The tough, fibrous, connective tissue covering bone.

This is continuous with ligaments and tendons. It contains blood vessels that enter the bone and supply its cells.

226
Q

In infants, blood cells are formed in the red marrow. In adults, RBC formation (hematopoiesis) occurs in the spongy bone of ?

A 
Skull
Ribs
Sternum
Vertebrae
Epiphysis of long bones
227
Q

What’s another word for spongy bone?

A

CANCELLOUS bone

228
Q

What does the urinary system consist of?

A

2 kidneys, 2 ureters, a urinary bladder, and the urethra.

229
Q

What do the kidneys do?

A

Filter the blood.

230
Q

What are the functional units of the kidney?

A

NEPHRONS.

These small coiled tubes filter waste material out of blood brought to the kidney by the renal artery. The actual filtration process occurs throught the glomerulus in Bowman’s capsule of the nephron. Filtration of the blood occurs through the glomerulus under the force of blood pressure.

As the glomerular filtrate passes through the nephron, components needed by the body, such as water, glucose, and ions, leave the nephron by diffusion and reenter the blood. Water is reabsorbed at the tubules of the nephron. The final product produced by the millions of nephrons per kidney is urine.

231
Q

What are the 2 functions of the reproduction system?

A

1) Production of gametes.
2) Production of hormones.

These activities are under the control of tropic hormones from the pituitary gland. Female is cyclic, Men are constant. Gametes are formed by meiosis.

232
Q

What develops within the seminiferous tubules?

A

Spermatozoa. The seminiferous tubules are in each testis.

233
Q

What do the interstitial cells between the seminiferous tubules produce?

A

Testosterone.

This male hormone influences sperm cell development and also produces the male secondary sex characteristics such as body hair and deep voice.

234
Q

Once the sperm are mature, where are they stored?

A

In the EPIDIDYMIS of each testis.

235
Q

What is the pathway for ejaculated sperm?

A

Vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, and urethra.

Along the way are glands that produce the transport medium or semen.

236
Q

What are the glands that produce the semen?

A

Seminal vesicles
Prostate gland
Bulbourethral (Cowper’s) glands

237
Q

What controls testicular activity?

A

They are under the control of 2 anterior pituitary hormones.

FSH regulates sperm production.

Interstitial cell-stimulating hormone (ICSH) or LH stimulates the interstitial cells to produce testosterone.

238
Q

Each month, under the influence of FSH, several eggs ripen within the ovarian follicles in the ovary. What hormone, produced by the follicle, initiates the preparation of the endometrium of the uterus for pregnancy?

A

ESTROGEN.

At about day 14 of the cycle, a surge of LH is released form the pituitary, which stimulates ovulation and the conversion of the follicle to the corpus luteum.

239
Q

What 2 hormones does the corpus luteum secrete to further stimulate development of the endometrium?

A

PROGESTERONE and ESTROGEN.

If fertilization occurs, the corpus luteum remains functional. If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum degenerates and menstruation begins.

240
Q

What is the pathway of an egg?

A

After ovulation, the egg is swept into the oviduct (fallopian tube).

If fertilized: occurs while the egg is in the oviduct. The fertilized egg (zygote) travels to the uterus and implants itself within the endometrium.

During pregnancy, hormones from the placenta maintain the endometrium and prepare the breasts for milk production.

241
Q

What do we call sweat glands?

A

Sudoriferous glands.

Coiled tubule.
Apocrine and Eccrine both secrete by exocytosis.

Apocrine secrete into hair follicle, Eccrine onto the skin.

HESI (1 decks)

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