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Learn this stuff! > Things I have missed on practice tests > Flashcards

Things I have missed on practice tests Flashcards

1
Q

A dog has a pH of 7.21, a pCO2 of 55mmHg and an HCO3 of 29mEq/L. What is his acid-base status?

A

Respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation. (explain here)

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2
Q

What induction agent enhances GABA, is rapidly metabolized in the liver, and causes minimal respiratory depression?

A

Alfaxalone

Keyword was respiratory - minimal = less than propofol but some so not etomidate

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3
Q

What induction agent enhances GABA, is rapidly metabolized in the liver, causes minimal cardiovascular depression, but can cause adrenal suppression for up to 6 hours after surgery?

A

Etomidate

Keyword was CV suppression as well as the adrenals

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4
Q

An angle created by the position of the femoral head with respect to the diaphysis in the transverse plane is known as what?

A

Anteversion transverse = anTeversion

Frontal = inclination

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5
Q

What type of non-erosive IMPA is associated with neoplasia (paraneoplastic arthritis)?

A

Type IV

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6
Q

Your patient has a cranial intrathoracic esophageal perforation that needs surgery. What side and which intercostal space will you make your approach?

A

Right 3rd/4th

Look up why?

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7
Q

Casein is a hygroscopic substance that swells as it slowly absorbs body fluids, reducing the ameroid constrictor’s internal diameter by what %?

A

32%

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8
Q

True or false? Right sided CHF increases parietal capillary hydrostatic pressure and thereby increases pleural fluid formation?

A

True

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9
Q

Renal artery occlusion time should be limited to what?

A

20 minutes (Look up table)

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10
Q

Prostaglandins have what effect on kidney solutes?

A

Increase potassium excretion

Do NOT increase sodium resorbtion

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11
Q

The shelf life of double-wrapped non-woven paper is what?

A

6 months

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12
Q

What % of patients will improve after surgery for cervical spondylomyelopathy?

A

80%

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13
Q

What % of patients will improve after medical management of cervical spondylomyelopathy?

A

50%

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14
Q

Which band of the tarsal medial collateral ligaments is most substantial?

A

Calcaneofibular

Remember calcaneus is big bone = substantial

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15
Q

Which band of the tarsal lateral collateral ligaments is most substantial?

A

Tibiotalar

taLar is large

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16
Q

Metastatic nodules must be how big to be seen on plain film radiographs?

A

7-9mm ** some sources say >6mm

(CT is 1mm)

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17
Q

Fluid lactate to blood lactate difference > than how many mmol/L is diagnostic for septic peritonitis?

A

> -2mmol/L

**just like 20mg/dL in glucose starts with 2

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18
Q

What cranial nerves are involved in the oral phase of deglutition?

A

5, 7, 12

(5+7=12)

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19
Q

What cranial nerves are involved in the pharyngeal/pharyngeoesophageal phase of deglutition?

A

9 and 10

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20
Q

In the McPhail carprofen article, in what timeframe was the toxicosis seen?

How many of the 21 study dogs died?

A

5-30 days

4 of 21 died

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21
Q

Protein C levels >70% are consistent with which liver issue?

A

MVD

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22
Q

Where do you perform a thoracotomy for access to the thoracic duct?

A

10th intercostal space. Right dog/left cat

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23
Q

Which acute phase protein is not highly responsive in cats?

A

C-reactive protein

cats = C

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24
Q

The shelf life of double-wrapped linen is what?

A

24 months (96 weeks is 24 months)

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25
Q

The shelf life of polypropylene peel pouches is what?

A

12 months

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26
Q

The width of a ventral slot should be no more than what % of a vertebral body?

A

50%

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27
Q

Disc-associated cervical spondylomyelopathy is very common in which breed?

A

Doberman pinscher

28
Q

What % of dogs with cervical spondylomyelopathy present with non-ambulatory tetraparesis?

A

15%

29
Q

The sarcomere border is delineated by what?

A

The Z band (Z is the end)

30
Q

The central region of the sarcomere is composed of conjoined tails of myosin proteins is the?

A

A band (Myosin in the middle/centrAl)

31
Q

The terminal portion of the actin filaments of adjacent sarcomeres is the?

A

I band (actIn)

32
Q

What % of body weight of fluid can the peritoneum absorb per hour?

A

3-8%

33
Q

What side is cryptorchid more common on?

A

Right
cRyptorchid

34
Q

True or False? A right shift on the O2/HgB dissociation curve will cause a higher affinity for oxygen to hemoglobin?

A

False
Shifting the curve to the right Reduces affinity of HgB for oxygen

“Right reduces”

35
Q

True or False? A left shift on the O2/HgB dissociation curve will cause a higher affinity for oxygen to hemoglobin?

A

True

36
Q

True or False? A right shift on the O2/HgB dissociation curve will cause less oxygen at the tissue level?

A

False
Because “Right shift Reduces” affinity, MORE oxygen is left in tissues

37
Q

Generation of fibrin polymers that stabilize the platelet plug into a mature thrombus is called what?

A

Secondary hemostasis (it is the cascade)

38
Q

True or false? Antithrombin inhibits neutrophil adherence and has potent anti-inflammatory effects.

A

True

39
Q

What diseases can you treat with FFP?

What should you not treat with FFP?

A

Yes FFP = coag factor abnormalities, vWD (though not as good as cryoprecipitate), hypoproteinemia

No = fibrinogen abnormalities, heparin related bleeding (the antithrombin in the plasma will be activated by the heparin in circulation)

40
Q

What are the three components of Virchow’s Triad?

A

Endothelial injury
Vascular stasis
Hypercoagulability

Eddie Van Halen (EVH)

41
Q

For each additional hour of anesthesia time the infection rate is increased by?

A

30%, just like for each person I guess?

42
Q

Fabric that is tightly woven (280 threads per inch) and has water resistant coating will lose it’s barrier properties after how many laundry cycles?

A

75

43
Q

A vessel sealing device that limits temperature to 100 degrees and thermal spread to 2mm is which one?

A

The Enseal

(I guess the harmonic scalpel is not a “vessel sealing device” of that it has even less spread).

44
Q

Arterioles to the skin are closed off when sub-bandage pressures exceed what level?

A

30mmHg

45
Q

The sensory-discriminative aspect of pain is produced in the ______thalamocortical system?

A

Lateral

46
Q

The motivational and affective aspect of pain is produced in the ______thalamocortical system?

A

Medial

Motivation is Medial

47
Q

Which breed of dog has higher resting vagal tone and benefits from premedication with an anticholinergic?

A

French Bulldogs

48
Q

Which patient age group most benefits from anticholinergics as premeds prior to elective procedures?

A

Pediatric animals

49
Q

Although there is no actual reversal for acepromazine induced sedation, what medication can be given to reduce the sedation?

A

Doxapram

Ace ate the dopa, so give some dox!

50
Q

What is the max insufflation pressure in laparoscopy (above which renal blood flow is compromised?

A

14mmHg

51
Q

What is the normal range of insufflation pressures for laparoscopy?

A

8-10mmHg

52
Q

What is the MOA of phenoxybenzamine?

A

Alpha-1 antagonist

53
Q

A cerclage is loose if it’s tension is less than ____ newtons?

A

30 newtons

54
Q

What is the % non-healing rate of ILN due to rotational instability?

A

14%

55
Q

A 1.5mm screw has a thread pitch of how many mm?

A

0.6mm

56
Q

The cortex screw diameter should not exceed what % of the bone diameter?

A

40%

57
Q

What diagnostic tool can be used to differentiate live bone from non-viable bone?

A

scintigraphy

58
Q

What is the most common joint for bacterial arthritis?

A

Stifle

59
Q

What breed of dog gets gastroesophageal intussusceptions?

At what age?

A

German Shepherds
At < 3 months age

GEs = GSD

60
Q

What breed gets congenital hypertrophic pylorogastropathy?

A

French Bulldogs

OF COURSE it’s Frenchie’s - like Hattie

61
Q

Delayed gastric emptying/ outflow obstruction is suggested when repeat films confirm retention of gastric contents after fasting how many hours?

A

8 hours

62
Q

In one study, at risk dogs that were gastropexied had a ____ fold decrease in mortality compared to those who were not?

A

29 fold decrease

63
Q

What % of insulinomas are carcinomas?

A

60%

64
Q

Cats undergoing renal transplant are screened for what infectious diseases? (There are 3)

A

FIV
FeLV
Toxoplasma gondii

65
Q

What are the two major post-op complications seen 24-72 hours after renal transplant?

A

Hypertension
Seizures

66
Q

What complication of immunosuppressive therapy are cats that had a renal transplant 5.45 times more likely to develop than other cats with renal disease?

A

Diabetes

67
Q

What % of thyroid tumors are considered functional?

A

10%

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