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year 2 fun > things i have learnt > Flashcards

things i have learnt Flashcards

1
Q

what is a Pleomorphic adenoma?

A

benign parotid gland tumour. Of salivary tumours 80% are in the parotid gland, 80% of them are benign and 80% are pleomorphic adenomas

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2
Q

what is rinnes and webber test and there results

A

rinnes the rod is held in from of the ear and placed behind. in a normal hear and sensory neural hearing loss if is heard better in the front, in conductive heard better on bone.

webbers test it is placed in the midline and normally is heard in the middle. in conductive hearing loss it is heard in the effected ear. in sensory neural it is held on the good ear

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3
Q

otosclerosis
IgA neuropathy

A

learn

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4
Q

what are the two hormones produced by the posterior pituitary gland

A

oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (also known as vasopressin)

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5
Q

what is the first line medical management of acromegaly

A

Somatostatin receptor ligands (SLR) such as Octreotide

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6
Q

what are the cut offs for a diagnosis of diabetes meilitus

A

If symptomatic one of the following results is sufficient:

Random blood glucose =11.1mmol/l
Fasting plasma glucose =7mmol/l
2 hour glucose tolerance =11.1mmol/l
HbA1C =48mmol/mol (6.5%)​
If the patient is asymptomatic two results are required from different days.

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7
Q

what drug can cause both hypo and pyper thyroidism

A

amiodarone

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8
Q

…gliflozin is the ending to which group of diabetic drugs

A

SGLT2 inhbitors

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9
Q

what is the most common cause of microbiological otitis externa?

A

pseudomonis aergunosa - a gram -ve rod

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10
Q

what endocrine disease can amiodarone cause?

A

thyrotoxicosis due to the high iodine content

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11
Q

what drug can cause gout

A

thiazide diuretics (benzoflumethiazide), ACE inhibitors and aspirin

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12
Q

what is Felty’s Syndrome

A

A triad of Rheumatoid arthritis, neutropenia and splenomegaly.

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13
Q

what type of hip dislocation presents as a shortened, internally rotated, adducted leg?

A

posterior (complication of hip replacement)

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14
Q

what presents as a shortened, abducted and externally rotated leg

A

hip fracture

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15
Q

what is perthes disease?

A

Perthes disease is a rare childhood (boys age 4-9, short stature, very active) condition that affects the hip. It occurs when the blood supply to the rounded head of the femur (thighbone) is temporarily disrupted. Without an adequate blood supply, the bone cells die, a process called avascular necrosis.
prevents with loss of internal rotation and eventually positive trendelenburg due to gluteal weakness.

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16
Q

what is Spondylosis in regards to back pain

A

the intervertebral discs lose water content with age resulting in less cushioning and increased pressure on the facet joints leading to secondary OA.

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17
Q

what is the tight band of fascia forming the roof of the tunnel called in cubital tunnel syndrome

A

known as Osborne’s fascia

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18
Q

what is gibbus deformity?

A

defined by the collapse of one or more vertebral bodies, which results in kyphosis

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19
Q

is lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) the flexor or extensor muscle tendiopathy

A

extensor muscles (cozens test)

medial epicondylitis (golfers elbow) is the flexor muscles

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20
Q

what antiboitics can predispose someone to an achillies tendon rupture?

A

fluroquinlone antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin

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21
Q

is the recurrent laryngeal nerve responsible for abduction or adduction of the vocal chords?

A

both

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22
Q

what is the exception of the nerve supplying the muscles of the vocal chords

A

all are supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve apart from the cricotyroid which is supplied by the external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve

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23
Q

what causes a budge on the anterior aspect of the arm

A

rupture of the long head of bicepts

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24
Q

what are the ottowa ankle rules and what are they used for?

A

determining if an xray is necessary on injury to the ankle

Bone tenderness at the posterior edge or tip of the lateral malleolus
Bone tenderness at the posterior edge or tip of the medial malleolus
Inability to bear weight both immediately and in emergency department for four steps.

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25
Q

what is complex regional pain syndrome characterised by?

A

pain, abnormal blood flow, trophic changes to the skin, sensory disturbance and autonomic features

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26
Q

what drugs can cause Gynaecomastia

A

spironolactone, GnRH agonists, some chemotherapy agents, ketoconazole

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27
Q

what is Klinefelter’s syndrome

A

the presence of an extra x chromosome in males
symptoms include:
Low sperm count or no sperm.
Small testicles and penis.
Low sex drive.
Taller than average height.
Weak bones.
Decreased facial and body hair.
Less muscular compared with other men.
Enlarged breast tissue.

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28
Q

what is the most important thing to watch out for when on carbimazole?

A

agranulocytosis which can lead to neutropenia and sever sepsis. early but non specific sign includes a sore throat

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29
Q

when a carcinoid tumour (often found in intestine or appendix) secretes serotonin what sort of symptoms would this present as?

A

abdominal pain, flushing, diarrhoea and wheeze

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30
Q

what is conns syndrome?

A

Primary Aldosteronism, too much aldosterone which retains sodium and releases potassium so present with high bp and hypokalemia

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31
Q

what is the medical management of cushings disorder?

A

Metyrapone: competitive inhibitor of 11β-hydroxylation in the adrenal cortex; the resulting inhibition of cortisol

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32
Q

what is kallmanns

A

cause of secondary hypogonadism (low and low) in men, could have one kidney, no sense of smell, cleft palate, red green colour blindness, gylactosomnia

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33
Q

what are the three levels of ureteric constriction that stones can get caught?

A

The first at the pelvi‐ureteric junction, the second at the pelvic brim where it crosses the iliac vessels, and finally at the uretero‐vesical junction

34
Q

what is the blood supply to the penis and the scrotum?

A

Blood supply to penis from internal pudendal arteries (from internal iliac)

Blood supply to scrotum from branches of internal pudendal + external iliac

35
Q

what type of renal calculi tend to for staghorn calculi

A

struvite- aso known as triple phosphate calculi

36
Q

what are the effects of ace inhibitors on the GFR and the RPF

A

dilate the efferent arterioles so blood whooshes through glomerulus faster. therefore increases RPF but because not in the glomerulous for very long it decreases the GFR

37
Q

what are the effects of too much urea on the body?

A

encephalopathy, nauesea, anorexia, pericarditis

38
Q

what are the 5 principle features of kawiaki disease?

A

need a fever for 5 days and 4/5 of the following: bilateral conjuctival infection, oral changes, cervical lymphadenopathy, extremity changes, polymorphous rash

39
Q

what is the most common cause of croup?

A

parainfluenza virus

40
Q

what are the criteria for starting dialysis?

A

Hyperkalaemia > 7 or resistant to Rx
Severe acidosis (PH <7.15)
Fluid overload
Urea > 40

41
Q

what is kernicterus

A

encephalopathy caused by too much unconjugated bilirubin

42
Q

what causes muddy brown casts?

A

acute tubular necrosis

43
Q

what is type 1 renal acidosis?

A

the distal tubule is unable to secrete hydrogen ions

would have hypokalaemic blood
high urine pH
and a metabolic acidosis

treat with oral bicarbonate

44
Q

what is a type 4 renal acidosis?

A

reduced aldosterone cause by adrenal insufficiency so there is lack of reabsorption of hydrogen ions in the distal tubule

would have hyperkalemic blood
high chloride
metabolic acidosis
high urine pH

treat with mineralcorticoid replacement= fludrocortisone, and sodium bicarbonate (may be hyperkalemia treatment)

45
Q

what is the 1st line management of someone with anemia caused by CKD

A

subcutanious erythropoietin injections (to replace the erythroipoietin that the kidneys are failing to make that makes RBC)

46
Q

what is the scoring system for prostate cancers called which allow you to take into accound that prostate cancers often have numerous morphologies?

A

gleason scoring, best bit and worst bit 1-5 and add them together

1 and 2 arent cancerous.

47
Q

what is the scoring chart used in BPH

A

international prostate symptom scoring (IPPS)

determines mild moderate or severe

48
Q

Which renal cancer is described as mahogany brown with a central stellate scar?

A

onocytome

49
Q

describe the following renal tumours on histological apperance…

clear cell
chromophobe
collection duct carcinoma

A

Clear cell carcinoma = partly cystic, heterogenous surface, bright yellow like Homer Simpson

Chromophobe = raisonoid (wrinkly) nuclei and perinuclear haloes

Collecting duct carcinoma = high grade, very desmoplastic stroma

50
Q

what order do ecg changes happen in hyperkalaemia?

A

tall tented T waves → flat P waves → prolonged QRS → sine wave

51
Q

what diretics block which co transporters?

A

Na+/H+ exchange is blocked by carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

Na+/K+ exchange is blocked by potassium sparing diuretics

Na+/K+/2Cl- co transport is blocked by loop diuretics

Na+/Cl- co transport is blocked by thiazide diretics

52
Q

When SLE is more active the level of anti-DNA binding antibody is likely to rise?

A

true

53
Q

What degree of fixed flexion deformity is required at the MCPJs for a patient to fail the Hueston Table Top Test?

A

greater than 30 degrees

54
Q

what do the 5 main types of cartilage do?

A

Type I. This type makes up 90% of your body’s collagen. Type I is densely packed and used to provide structure to your skin, bones, tendons and ligaments. hair and nails

Type II. This type is found in elastic cartilage, which provides joint support.

Type III. This type is found in muscles, arteries and organs. (CV health)

Type IV. This type is found in the layers of your skin.

Type V. This type is found in the cornea of your eyes, some layers of skin, hair and tissue of the placenta.

55
Q

what is the salter harris classification?

A

type of classification of fractures in children that effect the epiphysis (growth plate)

56
Q

what are the classification for salter harris fracture?

A

SLATR

type I: slipped, through the growth plate, not involving bone

type II: above, fracture passes across most of the growth plate and up through the metaphysis

type III: lower, fracture plane passes some distance along with the growth plate and down through the epiphysis

type IV: through or transverse or together, fracture plane passes directly through the metaphysis, growth plate and down through the epiphysis

type V: rammed, crushing injury

57
Q

what nerve is more likely damaged in a colles fracture?

A

median nerve due to strech

58
Q

what does Waldeyer’s tonsillar ring consist of?

A

lingual tonsils, adenoids, palantine tonsils and the tubual tonsils

59
Q

what is the most common cause of otitis externa?

A

staph aureus

60
Q

what is the most common cause of otitis media?

A

haemophilius influenze

61
Q

what are the symptoms of anterior uveitis? (inflamation of anterior compartment of eye)

A

pain, redness and photophobia

62
Q

what is endopthalmitis?

A

Definition
Endophthalmitis is infection of the intraoccular fluids of the eye inside the globe and most commonly occurs after surgery (although rarely endogenous infections can seed to the eye).
presents a few days after the surgery but may present greater than 6 weeks later
treated with intravitreal vancomycin as the most common causative bugs are gram positive

63
Q

what nerves run through the cavernous sinus?

A

CN3, 4, V1 and V3, 6

64
Q

Pituitary hormone production classically disappears in a set order. what is it?

A

first= growth hormone, then gonadotropens, then TSH, then ACTH, then prolactin.

there is a different order for replacing then as cortisol and testosterone is more important than GH

65
Q

what rheumatology condition is aortic anerysums associated with?

A

giant cell arthritis

66
Q

the 4 main symptoms of anti-phospholipid syndrome?

A

C- clots
L- Livedo reticularis - A mottled, lace-like appearance of the skin on the lower limbs.
O- obstetric loss
T- thrombocytopenia

67
Q

what are some feature of limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis

A

C= Calcinosis
R= Raynaud’s phenomenon
E= oEsophageal dysmotility - dysphagia/GORD
S= Sclerodactyly - bright shiny skin of hands and feet consistent with sclerodactyly. Fingers can be swollen and painful with reduced mobility and function. Patients are unable to put palm to palm in prayer sign.
T= Telangiectasia.

68
Q

what is Hypertrichosis

A

Hypertrichosis is defined as excessive hair growth anywhere on the body in either males or females

69
Q

at what vertibrae level does the renal arteries branch

A

L2

70
Q

at what level is the bifurcation if the aorta

A

L4

71
Q

what are the 4 C antibiotics?

A

co-amoxiclav, cephalosporin, fluoroquinolone eg ciprofloxacin, clindamycin

72
Q

what are the two muscles around your kidneys

A

psoas major muscle and your quadratus lumborum muscle

73
Q

what are the only cells in the body with the entire vitamin D metabolic pathway

A

Keratinocytes are the only cells in the body with the entire vitamin D metabolic pathway

74
Q

what type of alopecia involve exclamation marks, circular patches

A

alopecia areata

75
Q

what order do the dyspastic cell types happen

A

metaplasia then dysplasia then neoplasia

76
Q

what is Alendronic acid

A

an oral bisphosphonate

77
Q

most common cause of prosthetic joint infections?

A

staph aureus

78
Q

what is the first line treatment for prolactinomas?

A

cabergoline

79
Q

Which syndrome is due to reactivation of varicella-zoster virus in the geniculate ganglion of CN VII?

A

Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

80
Q

what is the test of choice for diagnosing adrenal insuficency

A

synthactin stimulation test

year 2 fun (1 decks)

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