things I get wrong Flashcards

1
Q

what complex doesn’t pump protons in the electron transport chain

A

complex II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what ability must a cell have to store glucose- 6 -phosphatase?

A

the ability to store glycogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the carrier molecule for transporting fatty acids through the inner mitochondrial membrane?

A

Carnitine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what mechanisms is used for ATP synthesis in the glycolytic pathway?

A

Substrate phosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is a karyotype

A

A karyotype is a preparation of the complete set of metaphase chromosomes in the individuals cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

do oncogenes act in a dominant manor

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what causes ‘pseudomembranous colitis’

A

clostridium difficile, yellow plaques that can easily be dislodged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what makes chocolate agar plate

A

haemophilus influenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

where do the anterior, middle and posterior cerebral arteries supply?

A
anterior = F and P
middle= F+T+P
posterior= O
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

when is plasma urea high

A

in people with upper GI bleeds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how do ticagrelor and clopidogrel work?

A

they are anti platelets and work by stopping ADP binding the platelet receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is a TIPS procedure

A

trans jugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt, connects the hepatic and portal vien, recommended in recurrent vatical haemorrhage despite optimal treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is Gilberts syndrome?

A

low UDP glucuronosytransferse (which conjugates bilirubin in the liver) presents as jaundice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are telomeres

A

a region of repetitive DNA sequences at the end of a chromosome. Telomeres protect the ends of chromosomes from becoming frayed or tangled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what happens to telomere in each round of replication

A

it gets shorter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the FC region of an immunoglubulin

A

the constant chain that binds to the immune cell receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is digoxins mechanism of action?

A

blocks the Na+/K+ ATPases which is responsible for restoring the resting membrane potential, results in sodium not getting in so more calcium coming in hence greater contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Omeprazole lowers stomach pH because it…

A

Irreversibly inhibits the H+-K+-ATPase pump in parietal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the mechanism of action of H2 receptors antagonists

A

Blocks access to the H2 receptor on the parietal cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is salmonela

A

a rod-shaped anaerobe with flagella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what appears golden on blood agar plates?

A

staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what has Extended spectrum beta lactamase (ESBL) acquired resistance to?

A

acquired resistance to all penicillins, resistance extends to 3rd generation cephalosporins and monobactams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

why are RNA virus vaccines more difficult to make than DNA

A

RNA viruses have a higher mutation rate than DNA viruses; this is due to the absence of proofreading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is commonly more peripheral in the lungs, adenocarcinoma or squamous cell carcinoma?

A

adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

which lung cancer causes SIADH (high sodium)

A

SIADH is a paraneoplastic feature of small cell lung cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

which lung cancer causes hypercalcaemia (release of PTH-related peptide),

A

squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

when is a tumor T1/ T2/ T3

A
T1= less than 2cm
T2= greater than 2 cm but less than 5
T3= greater than 5 cm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what type of hypersensitivity reaction is sarcoidosis

A

type VI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

where does collegen deposit in asthma

A

the submucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what types of pneumonia are more common in patients with COPD

A

H. influenzae is most common for COPD exacerbation, along with S.pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what immune cell targets intracellular pathogens by inserting a perforin protein into the membrane of the target cell causing cell lysis

A

natural killer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is angiogenesis

A

the formation of new blood vessles (cancer cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

true or false; Foetal haemoglobin has gamma subunits instead of beta subunits, causing it to have a higher affinity for oxygen than adult haemoglobin

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what acts on muscarinic receptors

A

acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what immunoglobulins work in dimers? pentamers?

A

dimers= IgG pentamer= IgM

36
Q

define neo-adjuvant treatment

A

Treatment given before surgery to shrink the tumour for surgical removal

37
Q

define neoplastic

A

New growth which is not in response to a stimulus

38
Q

define some features of nuclei in skeletal muscle cells

A

presence of multiple, elongated nuclei found at the periphery of muscle fibres

39
Q

does vagal stimulation have a negative inotropic effect?

A

no it has a negative chronotropic effect (rate) but parasympathetic stimulation doesn’t have a role in contraction.

40
Q

what cell is responsible for the destruction of large parasites which cannot be phagocytosed in the body

A

mast cells

41
Q

What is important in the activation of the complement system via the classical pathway?

A

IgG

42
Q

Barrett’s oesophagus is an example of which type of pathophysiological process

A

metaplasia

43
Q

faecolith is the most common cause of acute appendocytis?

A

true

44
Q

define an afferent cranial nerve. efferent.

A

afferent nerves relay sensory information to the brain and efferent takes motor information from the brain to the muscles.

45
Q

what 3 cranial nerves are involved in eye movement

A

oculomotor (3)
trochlear (4)
abducent (6)

46
Q

define an exudate and a transudate

A

a protein level of less than 30 g/l is a transudate and a protein level of more than 30 g/l is an exudate

(people know they are trans before they are 30)

47
Q

causes or transudates

A

Congestive heart failure
Liver cirrhosis
Severe hypoalbuminemia
Nephrotic syndrome

48
Q

causes of exudates

A
Malignancy
Infection (e.g. empyema due to bacterial pneumonia)
Trauma
Pulmonary infarction
Pulmonary embolism
49
Q

are the Islets of Langerhans have an exocrine or endocrine on the pancreas

A

endocrine- insulin, glucagon and somatostatin – secreted to blood

50
Q

what is the difference between a co enzyme and a co factor?

A

both are things that some enzymes require in order to function properly

  • co factors are normally metal ions
  • co enzymes are a subtype of co factor that are organic carrier molecules (carbon based) that hold onto something useful for the reaction eg NAD+ holds onto electrons in the crebs cycle.
51
Q

what is a holoenzyme?

A

an enzyme with its cofactor

52
Q

what is an apoenzyme

A

when an enzymes co factor has been removed

53
Q

what is the random restrictive lung condition that often nursery teachers get?

A

Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

54
Q

what hormone does the hear produce under streched conditions

A

B type naturitic peptide (BNP)

55
Q

what pathogen is present in rheumatic fever

A

group A Streptococcus/

Rheumatic fever develops following an immunological reaction to recent (2-6 weeks ago) Streptococcus pyogenes infection.

56
Q

what artery supplies the gall bladder?

A

the Cystic artery (branch of Right hepatic artery)

57
Q

when gibbs free energy is negative is it spontaneous or non spontaneous

A

it would be spontaneous and exergonic

58
Q

in genetic trees what is the symbol for males and what is the symbol for females

A

males is squares and women are circles

59
Q

how do you tell the difference between staph and strep

A

catalase test and it is -ve is strep and + in staph

60
Q

what condition is Familial adenomatous polyposis due to

A

adenomatous polyposis coli gene (APC)

61
Q

what is a key features in the development of steatorrhoea which typically consists of pale and offensive stools that are difficult to flush away.

A

Loss of lipase

62
Q

what drug is given for medical propholaxis in risk of oesophageal bleeds

A

propanalol (non cardio selective bblocker)

63
Q

what test must be done before starting azathioprine

A

thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT), if too low makes them lower, gets sepsis

64
Q

what Ig should you also check when checking anti-TTG

A

check IgA when checking anti-TTG, because if the IgA is too low then it will mask TTG

65
Q

what is the route of the right reccurent laryngeal nerve?

left?

A

the right comes off the right vagus nerve and loops under the subclavian artery
the left comes off the left vagus nerve and loops under the arch of the aorta

66
Q

phrenic run on the anterious aspect of the pericardium?

A

vagus runs at sides?

67
Q

what are granulomas

A

A granuloma is an aggregation of macrophages that forms in response to chronic inflammation. This occurs when the immune system attempts to isolate foreign substances that it is otherwise unable to eliminate.

68
Q

what would the increasing the venomotor tone do to the preload?

A

would increase the pre load by increasing the venous return to the heart

69
Q

why does morphine cause constipations?

A

it leads to increased fluid absorption

70
Q

what coloured granuals do basophils have? eosinophils?

A
basophils= purple/blue
eosinophils= pink colour
71
Q

what is the first line treatment for H pylori? if penicillin allergic?

A

omeprazol+ amoxacillin+ metronidozole (or clarythromicin)

in penicillin allergic omeprazole+ clarythromicin+ metronidozole

72
Q

what is the neurotransmitter for the post ganglionic sympathetic

A

noradrenaline

73
Q

where is the most likely place for an aspiration pneumonia to end up?

A

the right lower lobe

74
Q

what disease would be murphys sign positive

A

acute cholecystitis (infected gall bladder due to bile stasis as a result of obstruction)

75
Q

an example of when would charcot’s triad be positive?

A

Ascending cholangitis -> stones in the common bile duct leading to infection of the biliary tree
Charcot’s triad of jaundice, RUQ pain and fever.

76
Q

which biliary condition would an itch be present?

A

Primary Biliary Cholangitis, autoimmune condition in which AMA antibodies are positive, middle aged lady complaining of fatigue and itch and RuQ pain.

77
Q

what is Primary sclerosing cholangitis

A

Cholestatic liver disease characterised by inflammation and fibrosis of intrahepatic/ extrahepatic bile ducts mainly affecting large bile ducts, common in UC

78
Q

where are lipids produced

A

SER

79
Q

what is the normal position of the appendix

A

retrocecal

80
Q

what enzyme transcribes genetic matierial?

A

RNA polymerase, rna anytime it is to do with transcription and translation

81
Q

what are transcription factors and what are the type in humans?

A

proteins that bind to DNA and help make mRNA. TF2D

82
Q

what are allosteric enzymes

A

bind to a different point of the enzyme

83
Q

what has an effect on the volume halflife?

A

clearance and the volume of distribution

84
Q

what is pinocytoses

A

the ingestion of extracellular fluid by cells

85
Q

what is the microbiome?

A

the collection of all microbes, such as bacteria, fungi, viruses, and their genes, that naturally live on our bodies and inside us