Therapy of Acute Coronary Syndrome Flashcards

1
Q

A clot is composed of:

A

1) Fibrin
2) Platelets

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2
Q

What are the Acute Coronary syndromes?

A

1) Unstable angina (UA)
2) Myocardial Infarction

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3
Q

What are the short-term desired outcomes in a patient with ACS?

A

1) Early reperfusion therapy
2) Prevention of death and other MI complications
3) Prevention of coronary artery re-occlusion
4) Relief of ischemic chest discomfort
5) Resolution of ST-segment and T-wave changes on the ECG

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4
Q

How and when is early reperfusion done in ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI)?

A

Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) of the infarct artery in patients presenting within 12 hours of symptom onset.

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5
Q

What are the long-term desired outcomes in a patient with ACS?

A

1) Control of CV risk factors
2) Prevention of re-infarction, stroke, and HF
3) Improving the quality-of-life

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6
Q

All patients with STEMI and without contraindications should receive within the first day of hospitalization:

A

1) Intranasal oxygen (if oxygen saturation is low).

2) Sublingual (SL) nitroglycerin (NTG)

3) Aspirin

4) A P2Y12 (ADP receptor) inhibitor

5) Anticoagulation with bivalirudin, unfractionated heparin (UFH), Enoxaparin, or Fondaparinux.

6) A high-intensity statin should be administered prior to PCI (in patients >75 years old)

7) Oral β-blockers should be initiated (IV β-blockers and IV NTG should be administered cautiously)

8) An ACE inhibitor in STEMI who have either an anterior wall MI or LVEF ≤ 0.40 with no contraindications.

9) Morphine for refractory angina as an analgesic and a venodilator that lowers preload.

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7
Q

Which drugs are P2Y12 (ADP receptor) inhibitors?

A

1) Clopidogrel
2) Prasugrel
3) Ticagrelor

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8
Q

What is Bivalirudin?

A

Direct thrombin inhibitor

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9
Q

What may be considered if UFH is selected as the anticoagulant for patients undergoing primary PCI?

A

A glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor

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10
Q

Which drugs are glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors?

A

1) Abciximab
2) Eptifibatide
3) Tirofiban

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11
Q

Morphine __(hastens/slows) the absorption of oral antiplatelet agents due to __(increased/decreased) gastric motility.

A

Slows; Decreased

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12
Q

In the absence of contraindications, all patients with NSTE-ACS should be treated in the ED with:

A

1) Intranasal oxygen (if oxygen saturation is low)

2) SL NTG

3) Aspirin

4) An anticoagulant (UFH, enoxaparin, fondaparinux, or bivalirudin)

5) High-risk patients should proceed to early angiography, and may receive a GPI

6) A P2Y12 inhibitor in all
patients

7) A high-intensity statin prior to PCI

8) Oral β-blockers should be initiated (IV β-blockers and IV NTG should be administered cautiously)

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13
Q

All patients following MI, in the absence of contraindications, should receive indefinite treatment with:

A

1) Aspirin
2) β-blocker
3) Moderate-to-high intensity statin
4) ACEi

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14
Q

____ should be continued for at least 14 days, and ideally 1 year, in patients with STEMI treated with fibrinolytics.

A

Clopidogrel

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15
Q

A ____ should be continued for at least 12 months for patients undergoing PCI and for patients treated medically (without PCI or thrombolytics).

A

P2Y12 inhibitor

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16
Q

For all patients with ACS, treatment and control
of _____ are essential.

A

Modifiable risk factors

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17
Q

Ventricular Remodeling is characterized by:

A

1) Left ventricular (LV) dilation
2) Reduced pumping function of the LV
= Leading to HF

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18
Q

Which drugs can slow down or reverse ventricular remodeling?

A

1) ACE-inhibitors
2) ARBs
3) β-blockers
4) Aldosterone antagonists

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19
Q

Post-MI, patients may also need:

A

1) Bed rest for 12 hours in hemodynamically stable patients

2) Avoidance of the Valsalva maneuver (prescribe stool softeners routinely)

3) Pain relief

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20
Q

Antiplatelet Therapy in PCI and STEMI and NSTEACS:

A

1) Aspirin
2) P2Y12 inhibitor antiplatelet

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21
Q

Earlier discontinuation of the P2Y12 inhibitor can be reasonable in which patients?

A

1) High bleeding risk
2) With “overt bleeding”.

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22
Q

Administration of a fibrinolytic agent is indicated in which patients?

A

1) With STEMI who present within 12 hours of the onset of chest discomfort to a hospital NOT capable of primary PCI.

2) Who have no absolute contraindications to fibrinolytic therapy.

3) Who are NOT able to be transferred to undergo primary PCI within 2 hours of medical contact.

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23
Q

A door-to-needle time of less than ___ from the time of hospital presentation until start of fibrinolytic therapy is recommended.

A

30 minutes

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24
Q

Which drugs are fibrin-specific agents?

A

1) Alteplase
2) Reteplase
3) Tenecteplase

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25
Which fibrinolytics are preferred and why?
Fibrin-specific agents, because they open a greater percentage of arteries.
26
Adverse effects of fibrinolytics?
1) Intracranial hemorrhage (ICH) 2) Major bleeding
27
The risk of Intracranial hemorrhage (ICH) is higher with: Streptokinase or fibrin-specific agents?
Fibrin-specific agents
28
The risk of systemic bleeding (other than ICH) is higher with: Streptokinase or fibrin-specific agents?
Streptokinase
29
How do you treat patients who who have a contraindication to fibrinolytics and PCI, or who do NOT have access to a facility that can perform PCI?
Anticoagulant for up to 8 days
30
What are some Absolute Contraindications to Fibrinolytic Therapy?
1) Active internal bleeding 2) Previous ICH at any time; ischemic stroke within 3 months (except acute ischemic stroke within ~4 hours) 3) Known intracranial neoplasm 4) Known structural cerebral vascular lesion (AVM) 5) Suspected aortic dissection 6) Significant closed head or facial trauma within 3 months 7) Intracranial or intraspinal surgery within 2 months 8) Severe uncontrolled hypertension (unresponsive to emergency therapy) 9) For streptokinase, prior treatment within the previous 6 months
31
Which anticoagulants should be given to patients undergoing primary PCI?
Either UFH or Bivalirudin
32
When is anticoagulation discontinued?
Immediately following the PCI procedures
33
Which anticoagulant would be preferred for patients with a history of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) undergoing PCI?
Bivalirudin
34
Which anticoagulants can be used for fibrinolysis and those who don't undergo reperfusion therapy?
1) UFH (48 hrs) 2) Enoxaparin (8 days) 3) Fondaparinux (8 days)
35
Reducing the heart rate ___(prolongs/shortens) diastole.
Prolongs
36
What do beta-blockers do?
1) Reduce heart rate (HR), myocardial contractility, and blood pressure (BP) 2) Decrease myocardial oxygen demand 2) Improve ventricular filling 3) Improve coronary artery perfusion
37
Beta-blockers reduce the risks and occurrences of what hours and days after an MI?
1) Recurrent ischemia 2) Infarct size 3) Re-infarction 4) Ventricular arrhythmias
38
Initiating IV followed by oral β-blockers early in the course of STEMI was associated with:
An early risk of cardiogenic shock
39
Cardiogenic shock caused by b-blockers is mostly found in patients presenting with:
Pulmonary congestion or systolic BP less than 120 mm Hg
40
___(IV/Oral) beta blockers are preferred in the management of ACS.
Oral
41
Initiation of β-blockers should be limited to patients who:
1) Present with HTN 2) Have ongoing signs of MI 3) Do NOT demonstrate any signs or symptoms of acute HF
42
What should we look for following β-blocker initiation and prior to any dose titration?
Signs of hypotension and HF
43
The most serious adverse effects early in ACS are:
1) Hypotension 2) Acute HF 3) Bradycardia 4) Heart block
44
β-blockers should be initiated __(before/after) hospital discharge in most patients following treatment of acute HF.
Before
45
A high-intensity statin should be administered to which patients?
All patients without contraindications prior to PCI to reduce the frequency of peri procedural MI following PCI.
46
One SL NTG tablet should be administered every ___ for up to _ doses in order to relieve myocardial ischemia.
5 minutes; 3
47
IV NTG should be continued for approximately ___ after ischemia is relieved.
24 hours
48
Venodilation lowers __(afterload/preload) and myocardial oxygen demand.
Preload
49
What is the mortality benefit of nitrates?
NONE
50
The most significant adverse effects of nitrates are:
1) Tachycardia 2) Flushing 3) Throbbing headache 4) Hypotension
51
Nitrate administration is contraindicated in patients who:
Have received oral phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors within the last 24 hours, and Tadalafil within the last 48 hours.
52
Which drugs are phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors?
1) Sildenafil 2) Vardenafil
53
Calcium channel blockers are used for relief of ischemic symptoms only in patients who:
Have certain contraindications to β-blockers
54
Which Calcium Channel Blockers lower heart rate?
1) Diltiazem 2) Verapamil
55
When do we use Amlodipine or Felodipine?
When the patient has: 1) LV systolic dysfunction 2) Bradycardia 3) Heart block
56
Why should Nifedipine be avoided in ACS?
1) Reflex sympathetic stimulation 2) Tachycardia 3) Worsened MI
57
Which calcium channel blocker should not be given in ACS?
Nifedipine
58
Is fibrinolytic therapy indicated in patients with NSTE-ACS? Why or why not?
NO; because it is associated with increased mortality.
59
All NSTE-ACS patients should receive:
1) Anticoagulants 2) Low-dose aspirin (± Clopidogrel) 3) Short-acting SL NTG or NTG spray
60
For NSTE-ACS patients managed with conservative strategy but who experience recurrent ischemia, HF, or arrhythmias after initial medical therapy necessitating a change in strategy to angiography and revascularization, what must be done?
Add Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa Receptor Inhibitors (GPI) to aspirin and clopidogrel prior to the angiogram
61
β-blockers should be used in patients with a:
Previous MI
62
ACE Inhibitors should be initiated in all patients following:
MI
63
Adverse effects of ACEi?
1) Hypotension 2) Cough 3) Acute renal failure 4) Hyperkalemia 5) Angioedema
64
Aldosterone plays an important role in HF and in MI because it promotes:
1) Vascular and myocardial fibrosis 2) Endothelial dysfunction 3) HTN 4) LV hypertrophy 5) Sodium retention 6) Potassium and magnesium loss 7) Arrhythmias
65
Which drugs are aldosterone antagonists?
1) Spironolactone 2) Eplerenone
66
To reduce mortality, _____ should be considered within the first 7 days following MI in all patients who are already receiving an ACE inhibitor (or ARB) and a β-blocker and have an LVEF ≤ 0.40 and either HF symptoms or DM.
Aldosterone antagonists
67
___ decreases all-cause mortality in patients with stable severe HF.
Spironolactone
68
Treatment for smoking cessation?
1) Behavioral therapy + 2) Nicotine replacement ± a) Bupropion b) Varenicline
69
What is Bupropion?
An antidepressant that decreases cravings and withdrawal symptoms of nicotine
70
What is Varenicline?
A partial agonist of the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor, used to treat smoking addiction