Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pathology > Therapeutic Agents For Cancer > Flashcards

Therapeutic Agents For Cancer Flashcards

1
Q

diagnosis of cancer relies most heavily

A

invasive tissue biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

3rd leading Tumor site under the age group 20-39 for in men and women

A 
Male = colorectal
Female = colorectal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Give in ascending order the tumor sites under ages 40-59 in both males and females

A

Males = esophagus, pancreas, liver, colorectal, lungs

Female = pancrreas, ovary, colorectal, breast, lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Goal of cancer treatment is

A

first to eradicate the cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

CANCER TREATMENTS Are divided into 2 main types:

A

Local treatments

Systemic treatments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Local treatments include

A

surgery, radiation therapy (including photodynamic therapy), and ablative approaches, including radiofrequency and cryosurgical approaches.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Systemic treatments include

A

chemotherapy (including hormonal therapy and molecularly targeted therapy) and biologic therapy (including immunotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Whar are Conventional “cytotoxic” chemotherapy agents

A

These agents mainly target DNA structure or segregation of DNA as chromosomes in mitosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are Targeted agents

A

Refer to small molecules or “biologics” designed and developed to interact with a defined molecular target important in maintaining the malignant state or expressed by the tumor cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Hormonal therapies

A

Capitalize on the biochemical pathways underlying estrogen and androgen function and action as a therapeutic basis for approaching patients with tumors of breast, prostate, and uterus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Biologic therapies

A

Are often macromolecules that have a particular target or may have the capacity to induce a host immune response to kill tumor cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Chemotherapy can be administered as an adjuvant, meaning?

A

attempts to eliminate clinically unapparent tumor that may have already disseminated

addition to surgery or radiation, even after all clinically apparent disease has been removed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Neoadjuvant chemotherapy refers to

A

administration of chemotherapy before any surgery or radiation to a local tumor in an effort to enhance the effect of the local treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

G1 to S phase (CDK4/6 INHINITOR) includes

A

Palbociclib
Abemaciclib
Ribociclib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

S phase specific drugs

A

Cytosine arabinoside
Hydroxyurea
Irinotecan
Topotecan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

S phase specific self-limiting

A

6-mercaptopurine

Methotrexate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

M phase specific drugs

A

Vincristine
Vinblastinr
Packitaxel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the six major types of alkylating agents are used in chemotherapy of neoplastic diseases

A

NANTED

Nitrogen mustards 
Alkyl sulfonates 
Nitrosoureas 
Triazenes 
Ethyleneimines
DNA-methylating drugs, including procarbazine, temozolamide, and dacarbazine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Chemotherapeutic alkylating agents have in common the property of

A

forming highly reactive carbonium ion intermediates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Alkylating agents cause Cytotoxic effects are due to

A

Mispair with thymine residues

Creates lability in the imidazole ring

Cross-linking of two nucleic acid chains or the linking of a nucleic acid to a protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

most widely used agent of this alkylating agents undergoes metabolic activation (hydroxylation) by CYP2B

A

Cyclophosphamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Alkylating agent activated in the liver by CYP3A4

Which Proceeds more slowly than activation of cyclophosphamide, with greater production of dechlorinated metabolites and chloroacetaldehyde

A

Ifosfamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Newest approved drug
this drug may derive from this purine-like structure; produces slowly repaired DNA cross-links, lacks cross-resistance with other classical alkylators, and has significant activity in chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) and large-cell lymphomas

A

Bendamustine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Transfers methyl groups rather than ethyl groups

Requires initial activation by hepatic CYPs through an Ndemethylation reaction.

In the target cell, spontaneous cleavage of the metabolite, metyhyl-triazeno-imidazolecarboxamide (MTIC), yields an alkylating moiety, a methyl diazonium ion.

A

Dacarbazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which include compounds such as

1,3-bis-(2-chloroethyl)-1nitrosourea (carmustine [BCNU]),

1-(2-chloroethyl)-3cyclohexyl-1-nitrosourea (lomustine [CCNU]), and its methyl derivative (semustine [methyl-CCNU]), as well as the

antibiotic streptozocin (streptozotocin)

Exert their cytotoxicity through the spontaneous breakdown to an alkylating intermediate, the 2-chloroethyl diazonium ion.

A

Nitrosoureas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Pharmacologic Actions of alkylating agents include

A

interfere with DNA integrity and function and to induce cell death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

certain alkylating agents may have damaging effects on tissues with

A

normally low mitotic indices (e.g., liver, kidney, and mature lymphocytes); effects in these tissues usually are delayed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Lethality of DNA alkylation depends on

A

recognition of the adduct, the creation of DNA strand breaks by repair enzymes, and an intact apoptotic response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

In nondividing cells, DNA damage activates a checkpoint that depends on the presence of

A

p53 gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Malignant cells with mutant or absent p53 fail to suspend cellcycle progression undergo__________, and can exhibit resistance to __________

A

do not undergo apoptosis, and can exhibit resistance to alkylating drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Resistance to an alkylating agent develops rapidly when it is used as

A

single agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Mechanisms of Resistance of Alkylating agents

A

Decreased permeation of actively transported drugs

Increased intracellular concentrations of nucleophilic substances

Increased activity of DNA repair pathways

Increased rates of metabolic degradation of the activated forms of cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide to their inactive keto and carboxy metabolites

Loss of ability to recognize adducts

Impaired apoptotic pathways, with overexpression of bcl-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Toxicities produced by Alkylating agents

A

Bone Marrow Suppression

Immunosuppression

Mucosal Toxicity

Neurotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

suppresses all blood elements, particularly stem cells, and may produce a prolonged and cumulative myelosuppression lasting months or even years. For this reason, it is used as a preparative regimen in allogenic bone marrow transplantation.

A

Busulfan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Cause delayed and prolonged suppression of both platelets and granulocytes, reaching a nadir 4–6 weeks after drug administration and reversing slowly thereafer.

A

Carmustine and other chloroethylnitrosoureas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

has lesser effects on peripheral blood platelet counts than do the other agents

A

Cyclophosphamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

nadir of the peripheral blood granulocyte count at_____________ and recovery in _____________

A

6–10 days

14–21 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

alkylating agents are Reversible at usual doses but can cause _______________ with extended treatment.

A

opportunistic infections such as:

Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia
Fungal infections
Reactivation of hepatitis B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Alkylating agents are highly toxic to dividing mucosal cells and to hair follicles, leading to

A

oral mucosal ulceration, intestinal denudation, and alopecia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Nausea and vomiting commonly follow administration of

A

nitrogen mustard or BCNU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

most neurotoxic of the alkylating agents and may produce altered mental status, coma, generalized seizures, and cerebellar ataxia.

A

Ifosfamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

cause seizures; in addition, it accelerates the clearance of phenytoin, an antiseizure medication

A

High-dose busulfan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

is well-absorbed orally and is activated to the 4-hydroxy intermediate

A

Cyclophosphamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Cyclophosphamide appears to be saturable at concentrations of the parent compound greater than

A

150 μM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

4-Hydroxycyclophosphamide and its tautomer, aldophosphamide, travel in the circulation to tumor cells, where aldophosphamide cleaves spontaneously, generating stoichiometric amounts of

A

phosphoramide mustard and acrolein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Phosphoramide mustard is responsible for ____________

While acrolein causes ___________________

A

antitumor effects

hemorrhagic cystitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Cystitis can be reduced in intensity or prevented by the parenteral coadministration

A

mesna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Brisk hematuria in a patient receiving daily oral therapy should lead to immediate

A

drug discontinuation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Cyclophosphamide can be used in full doses in patients with

A

renal dysfunction because it is eliminated by hepatic metabolism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Cyclophosphamide can be Can be administered Via

A

IV or PO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Maximal plasma concentrations of Cyclophosphamide are achieved about _____ after oral administration;

the t 1/2 of parent drug in plasma is about________.

A

1 h

7 h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

an essential component of many effective drug combinations for non-Hodgkin lymphomas, other lymphoid malignancies, breast and ovarian cancers, and solid tumors in children.

A

Cyclophosphamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Complete remissions and presumed cures have been reported when cyclophosphamide was given as a single agent for

A

Burkitt lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Cyclophosphamide is frequently is used in combination with________ and a_______ as adjuvant therapy after surgery for breast cancer

A

doxorubicin

taxane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Cyclophosphamide DOSAGE:

As a single agent

A

daily oral dose of 100 mg/m 2for 14 days has been recommended for patients with lymphomas and CLL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Cyclophosphamide DOSAGE:

in combination with other drugs in the treatment of breast cancer and lymphomas

A

Higher doses of 500 mg/m 2IV every 2-4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

lower limit for dosage adjustments in prolonged therapy of cyclophosphamide

A

neutrophil nadir of 500-1000 cells/mm 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

In regimens associated with bone marrow or peripheral stem cell rescue, cyclophosphamide may be given in total doses of

A

5-7 g/m 2over a 3-5 day period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

GI ulceration, cystitis (counteracted by mesna and diuresis) and less commonly, pulmonary, renal, hepatic, and cardiac toxicities (a hemorrhagic myocardial necrosis) may occur after high-dose therapy with high-dose therapy with total doses

A

> 200 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

approved for treatment of patients with relapsed germ cell testicular cancer and is frequently used for first-time treatment of pediatric or adult patients with sarcomas.

A

Ifosfamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

It is a common component of highdose chemotherapy regimens with bone marrow or stem cell rescue

A

Ifosfamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

toxicity of ifosfamide is thought to result from a metabolite

A

chloroacetaldehyde

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

In nonmyeloablative regimens, ifosfamide is infused intravenously over at least ________ at a dose ___________

A

30 min at a dose of ≤ 1.2 g/m/d for 5 days

64
Q

The parent compound, ifosfamide, has an elimination t1/2 in plasma of ___________ after doses ___________

A

~1.5 hours after doses of 3.8-5 g/m 2

65
Q

have broad antineoplastic activity and have become the foundation for treatment of ovarian, head and neck, bladder, esophagus, lung, and colon cancers.

A

Platinum coordination complexes

66
Q

Cisplatin, carboplatin, and oxaliplatin enter cells by

A

high-affinity Cu 2+transporter CTR1

67
Q

After intravenous administration, cisplatin has an initial plasma elimination t 1/2of

A

25–50 min

68
Q

More than_____ of the platinum cisplatin in the blood is covalently bound to plasma proteins.

A

90%

69
Q

High concentrations of cisplatin are found in

A

kidney, liver, intestine, and teste

70
Q

by 24 h, up to_____ is excreted, and by 5 days, up to ______of the administered cisplatin dose is recovered in the urine, mostly covalently bound to protein and peptides.

A

25%

43%

71
Q

usual dosage of cisplatin in days, weeks, and month

A

20 mg/m/day 2for 5 days, 20-30 mg weekly for 3-4 weeks, or 100 mg/m 2 given once every 4 weeks.

72
Q

appropriate amount of cisplatin then is diluted in a solution containing dextrose, saline, and mannitol and administered intravenously

A

over 4–6 h

73
Q

inactivates cisplatin

A

aluminum

74
Q

Toxicities of cisplatin

A

Cisplatin-induced nephrotoxicity

Ototoxicity is manifested by tinnitus and high-frequency hearing loss.

Progressive peripheral motor and sensory neuropathy (higher doses)

Mild-to-moderate myelosuppression

Electrolyte disturbances, including hypomagnesemia, hypocalcemia, hypokalemia, and hypophosphatemia, are common.

75
Q

much less reactive than cisplatin, the majority of drug in plasma remains in its parent form, unbound to proteins.

A

Carboplatin

76
Q

Most carboplatin is eliminated via renal excretion, with a t 1/2 in plasma of

A

~2 hours.

77
Q

A small fraction of carboplatin binds irreversibly to plasma proteins and disappears slowly, with a t 1/2 of

A

≥ 5 days.

78
Q

Carboplatin toxicities

A

Less nausea, neurotoxicity, ototoxicity, and nephrotoxicity than cisplatin

More Myelosuppression

hypersensitivity reaction

79
Q

like cisplatin, has a very brief t 1/2in plasma, probably as a result of its rapid uptake by tissues and its reactivity.

A

Oxaliplatin

80
Q

No dose adjustment for oxaliplatin is required for patients with a CrCl

A

≥20 ml/min

81
Q

Oxaliplatin’s effectiveness in colorectal cancer is perhaps due to its

A

MMR- and HMG-independent effects.

82
Q

Oxaliplatin in combination with 5-FU, it is approved for treatment of patients with

A

colorectal cancer.

83
Q

an essential dietary factor that is converted by enzymatic reduction to a series of tetrahydrofolate (FH)4 cofactors that provide methyl groups for the synthesis of precursors of DNA (thymidylate and purines) and RNA (purines).

A

Folic acid

84
Q

primary target of methorexate is

A

enzyme DHFR

85
Q

toxic effects of methotrexate may be terminated by administering

A

leucovorin

86
Q

dihydrofolic acid polyglutamates that accumulate in cells in behind the blocked DHFR reaction also acts as inhibitors

A

TS and other enzymes

87
Q

Methotrexate is readily absorbed from the GI tract at doses of

A

<25mg/m

88
Q

Approximately______ of methotrexate binds to plasma proteins.

A

50%

89
Q

Methotrexate has been used in the treatment of_________

A

severe, disabling psoriasis

90
Q

Methotrexate has been used in the treatment of severe, disabling psoriasis in doses of

A

2.5 mg orally for 5 days, followed by a rest period of at least 2 days, or 10-25 mg intravenously weekly.

91
Q

Methotrexate is a critical drug in the management of

A

acute lymphoblastic anemia (ALL) in children.

92
Q

primary toxicities of antifolates affect the bone marrow and the intestinal epithelium and correct within

A

10-14 days

93
Q

_______ requires enzymatic conversion to the nucleotide status (ribosylation and phosphorylation) in order to exert its cytotoxic activity.

A

5-FU

94
Q

________ inhibits TS and blocks the synthesis of TTP, a necessary constituent of DNA.

A

FdUMP

95
Q

administered parenterally, because absorption after oral ingestion of the drug is unpredictable and incomplete

A

5-FU

96
Q

5-FU Given by continuous intravenous infusion for

A

24-120 hours.

97
Q

5-FU in combination with leucovorin and oxaliplatin or irinotecan in the adjuvant setting is associated with a survival advantage for patients with

A

colorectal cancers.

98
Q

Cytarabine (1-ß-D-arabinofuranosylcytosine; Ara-C) is the most important antimetabolite used in the therapy

single most effective agent for induction of remission in this disease.

A

AML

99
Q

Ara-C activates the transcription factor______ and stimulates the formation of________, a potent inducer of apoptosis.

A

AP-1

ceramide

100
Q

after oral Ara-C administration, only ______ of the drug reaches the circulation

A

~20%

101
Q

This drug must be given intravenously.

A

CYTARABINE

102
Q

Half life of CYTARABINE

A

t ½of 10 minutes

103
Q

Two dosage schedules are recommended for administration of cytarabine

Rapid intravenous infusion
Continuous intravenous

A
  1. Rapid intravenous infusion of 100 mg/m 2every 12 hours for 5-7 days, or
  2. Continuous intravenous infusion of 100-200 mg/m/day2 for 5-7 days.
104
Q

A difluoro analog of deoxycytidine, has become an important drug for patients with metastatic pancreatic; non-squamous, non-small cell lung; ovarian; and bladder cancer.

A

GEMCITABINE

105
Q

standard dosing schedule for gemcitabine (GEMZAR) is

A

30-minute IV infusion of 1-1.25 g/m 2on days 1, 8, and 15 of each 21- to 28-day cycle, depending on the indication.

106
Q

principal toxicity of gemcitabine is

A

myelosuppression

107
Q

are approved agents for human leukemias and function as analogs of the natural purines, hypoxanthine and guanine

A

6-Mercaptopurine (6-MP) and 6-Thioguanine (6-TG)

108
Q

incorporated into DNA, where it induces strand breaks and base mispairing. Strand breaks depend on the presence of an intact MMR system, the absence of which leads to resistance.

A

6-Thioguanine

109
Q

Absorption of mercaptopurine is incomplete (10-50%) after oral ingestion; the drug is subject to first-pass metabolism by___________ in the liver.

A

xanthine oxidase

110
Q

Oral bioavailability is increased when mercaptopurine is combined with high-dose

A

methotrexate

111
Q

principal toxicity of 6-MP is

A

bone marrow depression.

112
Q

are cell-cycle-specific agents and, in common with other drugs such as colchicine, podophyllotoxin, the taxanes, and the epothilones, block cells mitosis

A

VINKA ALKALOIDS

113
Q

biological activities of the vincas can be explained by their ability to bind specifically to ________ and to block its polymerization with a tubulin into microtubules

A

B tubulin

114
Q

limited myelosuppressive action of__________ makes it a valuable component of several combination therapy regimens for leukemia and lymphoma,

A

vincristine

115
Q

lack of severe neurotoxicity of____________ is a decided advantage in lymphomas and in combination with cisplatin against testicular cancer.

A

vinblastine

116
Q

employed in treating bladder cancer, testicular carcinomas and Hodgkin’s disease.

A

Vinblastine

117
Q

In patients with hepatic dysfunction (bilirubin >3 mg/dL), a ________reduction in dose of any the vinca alkaloids is advisable

A

50-75%

118
Q

pharmacokinetics of each of the 3 drugs are similar, with an elimination

t 1/2 of ___ hours for vincristine,

____hours for vinblastine, and

____hours for vinorelbine.

A

20
23
24

119
Q

given intravenously; special precautions must be taken against subcutaneous extravasation, because this may cause painful irritation and ulceration.

A

Vinblastine sulfate (VELBAN, others)

120
Q

In regimens designed to cure testicular cancer, vinblastine is used in doses of

A

0.3 mg/kg every 3 weeks.

121
Q

After a single dose of 0.3mg/kg of body weight of vinblastine myelosuppression reaches its maximum in

A

7-10 days.

122
Q

Doses of vinblastine should not be reduced by 50% for patient with plasma bilirubin level of

A

> 1.5mg/dL.

123
Q

nadir of the leukopenia that follows the administration of vinblastine usually occurs within______ days, after which recovery ensues within____ days.

A

7-10

7

124
Q

used together with glucocorticoids is the treatment of choice to induce remissions in childhood leukemia and in combination with alkylating agents and anthracycline for pediatric sarcomas

A

Vincristine sulfate

125
Q

the common intravenous dosage for vincristine is

A

2 mg/m 2 of body surface area at weekly or longer intervals.

126
Q

clinically toxicity of vincristine is mostly

A

neurological, early sensory changes do not warrant dose reduction.

127
Q

________ occurs in ~20% of patients given vincristine is is reversible

A

Alopecia

128
Q

This drug has a unique ability to promote microtubule formation at cold temperature and in the absence of GTP

A

PACLITAXEL

129
Q

Paclitaxel is administered as 3-hour infusion of

or as a weekly 1-hour infusion of

A

135-175 mg/m 2every 3 weeks

80-100 mg/m.

130
Q

Paclitaxel exerts its primary toxic effects on

A

bone marrow.

131
Q

Paclitaxel exerts its primary toxic effects on bone marrow.

Neutropenia usually occurs ______

and reverses rapidly by days ______

A

8-11 days after

And days 15-21.

132
Q

have a tetracyclic ring structure attached to an unusual sugar, daunosamine.

A

ANTHRACYCLINES

133
Q

ANTHRACYCLINES can intercalate with DNA, directly affecting

A

transcription and replication.

134
Q

ANTHRACYCLINES has the ability to form a tripartite complex with

A

topoisomerase II and DNA.

135
Q

recommended dose of Doxorubicin is __________

Administered as a single rapid intravenous infusion that is excreted after_____ days.

A

60-75 mg/m2

21

136
Q

Doxorubucin is effective in malignant

A

lymphomas

137
Q

most important long-term toxicity of doxorubicin

A

Cardiomyopathy

138
Q

What is the major dose-limiting complication of doxorubicin, with leukopenia usually reaching a nadir during the_______ week of therapy and recovering by the________ week

A

Myelosuppression

second

fourth

139
Q

What do you call the Erythematous streaking near the site of infusion by allergic reaction with doxorubicin

A

ADRIAMYCIN flare

140
Q

Cells in the S and G 2phases of the cell cycle are most sensitive to

A

etoposide and teniposide.

141
Q

intravenous dose of etoposide (VEPESID, others) for testicular cancer in combination therapy is_____________, or ___________on alternate days for three doses

A

50-100 mg/m 2 for 5 days

100 mg/m 2

142
Q

When given intravenously, etoposide should be administered slowly over a _______minute period to avoid hypotension and bronchospasm

A

30- to 60

143
Q

disturbing complication of etoposide therapy has emerged in long-term follow-up of patients with childhood acute lymphoblastic leukemia, who develop an unusual form of acute nonlymphocytic leukemia with a translocation in chromosome

A

11q23

144
Q

dose-limiting toxicity of etoposide is leukopenia, with a nadir at ______ and recovery by ____ weeks.

A

10-14 days

3

145
Q

unique group of DNA-cleaving antibiotics.

A

BLEOMYCIN

146
Q

BLEOMYCIN is Administered IV, IM, or SC, or instilled into for local treatment of

A

bladder cancer.

147
Q

BLEOMYCIN have Elimination half time:

A

~3hrs

148
Q

About ____ of bleomycin is excreted intact in urine

A

⅔

149
Q

After IV administration of bolus dose of 15 mg/m2, peak concentrations of bleomycin of about ______ are achieved in plasma.

A

1-5 mg/mL

150
Q

Decreased doses of bleomycin if CrCl

A

<60 mL/min

151
Q

Recommended dose of bleomycin is _______ given weekly or twice weekly by IV, IM, or SC.

A

10-20 units/m 2

152
Q

BLEOMYCIN is Highly effective against germ cell tumors of

A

testis and ovary.

153
Q

Bleomycin causes constellation of cutaneous toxicities, these are

A

Hyperpigmentation
Hyperkeratosis
Erythema
Ulceration

154
Q

Most serious adverse reaction of bleomycin

A

Pulmonary Toxicity

155
Q

Other toxic reactions of bleomycin

A

Hyperthermia, Headache, Nausea and Vomiting, Peculiar acute fulminant reaction observed in patients with lymphomas.

Pathology (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions