Theories and 4 pillars of ethics Flashcards

1
Q

what is primitive consequtionalism

A

goes along the basis of.. - An action is good if its actual consequences is good
- An action is bad if its actual consequences are evil

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2
Q

what did Jeremy Bentham come up with

A

he came up with.a modified version of consequentialism called mordern consequentialism

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3
Q

what is modern consequentialism

A

does not rely to actual consequences but relies on intended consequences, you intended to do a good thing but your action is good regardless of the consequence

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4
Q

what did John Stuart Mill come up with

A

utilisation

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5
Q

describe utilisation

A

how do we know what makes an intended consequence an d intention good – criteria for what makes one intention good and one intention bad – an intended consequence is good if it maximises utility (utilisation)

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6
Q

define categorical imperative

A

categorical imperative says that you have a moral duty to abide by a law if you are willing to universalise the law, you don’t have a moral duty to abide by a law that your not willing to universalise

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7
Q

what is deontology

A
  1. Deontology – beauty based theory – immunal kant, german philosopher, - criteria for what is good and what is bad is not about consequences but about principles, action is good if it is good in itself, provided a criteria – for example lying could have different consequences and different intentions, Kant said – if you would like all people to not lie then you have a moral criteria – matter of principle and things need to be a universal principle
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8
Q

what did Kant come up with

A

Deontology

Categorical Imperative

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9
Q

what is virtue theory

A

if you want to know what the right thing is to do look at the virtuous person and see what they are doing then do what they do – problem is what makes someone virtuous,

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10
Q

what is casuistry theory

A

originally in catholic theory, which states if you want to know what the right thing is to do and you don’t know how to behave look for a similar case in what you already know what the right thing to do is, find a similar dilemma and draw from this to the case in question

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11
Q

what is the 4 principle approach

A
  • autonomy
  • beneficence
  • non-maleficent
  • justice
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12
Q

describe autonomy

A
  • First principle is autonomy and respecting the autonomy of the patient
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13
Q

describe beneficence

A
  • Second principle is beneficence – (not be confused with benevolence,) it means being good if this is what the patient wants
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14
Q

describe non-maleficence

A
  • Third principle is non-maleficence – (different from do no harm), it means don’t do any harm that the patient wants you to do, if the patient wants you to harm them harm them
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15
Q

describe the doctrine double effect

A

some actions have two consequences one good one bad, if the good effect outweighs the bad effect (how do we know?but presumpvely we can) and we only intended to have the good effect and had no intention of having the bad effect then the action is justified.

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16
Q

what is the conclusion of philosophy

A

Philosophy does not give a criterion for justifying good and evil but can justify what we want to justify

17
Q

what are the three conditions that make informed consent legal

A
  • patient has to have mental capacity
  • must be fully informed
  • patient has to be totally free and not coerced by anything
18
Q

what are the basis of compromise

A
  • Conflict of interest
  • Common ground
  • Do what the powerful group does if gap too big but if gap is too narrow – result in decline of one party or both, correct amount of gap
19
Q

describe mental capacity

A
  • the patient has to be competent and have mental capacity to make the informed consent, if patient has no mental capacity then cannot make consent – criteria would be if your over a certain age for example 18 and there is no reason to think you are not of sound mind and you have capacity – capacity is the ability to take responsibility of your choice, infer form age that people can take responsibility
20
Q

describe fully informed

A
  • the patient must be fully informed, and possess all the information regarding their decision making – doctor has a duty to give the patient information, all information about risks about the intervention in question – in reality patients are not totally informed
21
Q

describe totally free

A
  • patient has to be totally free – not coerced by anything this would invalidate your consent – any coercive intervention that occurs between doctor and patient and other person and patient that affects their decision would invalidate their consent, but if a patient can make a choice and received minimal information about the procedure then they are considered informed and if there is no obvious gun pointed to their head then they are not coerced