Theft Essay Flashcards
Where is appropriation defined
S 1(3) TA is this too broad, is the interpretation too wide?
What did Morris say appropriation was?
HL concludes appropriation takes place where D assumes any of the rights of the owner
How was Morris justified
Morris has been justified by a reference to a right to in S 3(1) although arguably this was not the intended meaning of Parl
Who argues that the meaning of appropriation has been stretched and that the meaning given in Morris can not be that intended by Parl
Melissaris: argues that Morris represents the incorrect interpretation of the TA and appropriation can only accord on the assumption of all the rights of the owner.
Why is the stretched meaning of appropriation too wide?
It allows a wide range of offences from merely picking up an item in a supermarket to destroying
How highlights the issue of the wide range of offences
Shute: it will apply to merely preparatory acts which suggest little wrong doing such as touching an item without the requisite MR can technically be appropraition
What does the TA say about appropriation and consent
The TA does not expressly limit appropriation to cases of consensual taking however in light of Morris consent is irrelevant
Which case took the contrary view to Lawerence
Morris said that appropriation is an adverse interference or usurpation of the rights of the owner, it does not include appropriation by an act expressly or impliedly granted by the owner.
Where was the uncertainty resolved
Gomez reaffirmed the decision in Lawerence. Held that Lawerence was a clear decision that stood for 12 years so there was no need to doubt it now
Was Lawerence actually a clear decision?
Not a clear decision: Skipp, Meech, Eddy and Ninman all of which took the same approach as Morris: however only Skipp has been directly overruled.
Who dissented
Lord Lowry dissented: argued if there is consent even if obtained by deception there is no apparition otherwise the TA becomes too wide and includes offences that should be dealt with by deception.
What does appropriation and consent reflect
PP at the expense of LP
What is the effect of removing consent from appropriation
the effect of removing is that it removes any fault from AR leaving the MR to decide who is deserving of criminalisation.
What does Shute argue is the issue by removing the distinction between consent and non-consent
it creates issues of inappropriate and unfair labelling
Who argues removing consent is not actually that problematic
Gardner: argues that the overlap between this and deception offences is unproblematic because it protects vulnerable V where deception may be difficult to prove
Why is Gardner’s argument less persuasive now
Because the refrom of the Fraud Act has removed the need to prove fault