The Lower Urinary Tract Flashcards

1
Q

What organs make up the urinary tract?

A
  • The Kidney
  • Ureters
  • Urinary Bladder
  • Urethra
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2
Q

Explain how urine moves from the kidney o the ureter

A
  • Tubular fluid exits collecting duct at the tip of renal pyramid - also known as the renal papilla
  • Minor and major calyces lead to the renal pelvis
  • Fluid deposition into renal pelvis stretches the smooth muscle
  • Distension triggers peristaltic contractions at the hilus (ext of the kidney entrance to the ureter)
  • Fluid moves down ureter in pulses towards bladder for storage and controlled release
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3
Q

Describe the structure of the ureter

A
  • Tubes approximately 30 cm long
  • Mucosal layer: transitional epithelium

-3-8 cells thick, impermeable to urine

• Supported by layers of smooth muscle:

  • inner: longitudinal muscle (L)
  • outer: circular/spiral muscle (C)
  • extra outer layer of longitudinal muscle
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4
Q

What is the function of the Ureters?

A
  • Dilation of renal pelvis generates action potential from pacemaker cells in hilum
  • Peristaltic waves generated – between

1 to 6 per minutes

  • no. of contractions can be modulated by the nervous system:
  • PNS: enhanced
  • SNS: inhibited
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5
Q

How is urine moved down the ureter?

A
  • through peristaltic movements as seen in the GI tract
  • longitudinal muscles contracts first followed by circular muscle relaxation
  • The longitudinal muscle then starts to relax allowing a bolus to form followed by circular muscle contraction which pushes against the bolus
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6
Q

How does the ureter attach to the urinary bladder?

A
  • Ureters attach to the posterior wall of the urinary bladder
  • Pass-through bladder wall at an oblique angle for 2-3 cm into the bladder: ureteral openings are slit-like rather than rounded
  • this prevents backflow of urine up ureters during contraction of the bladder
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7
Q

Describe the structure of the Urinary Bladder

A
  • A hollow muscular organ, consisting of fundus (body) and neck
  • Outer “Detrusor” Muscle layer: consists of longitudinal, circular/spiral muscles
  • Inner Mucosal layer:
  • transitional epithelium
  • folded into “rugae” when bladder empty
  • highly elastic – expands as the bladder fills

The Trigone

  • the triangular area bounded by openings of ureters and the entrance to the urethra: acts as a funnel to channel urine to the neck of the bladder
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8
Q

What is the function of the urinary bladder?

A
  • temporary store of urine up to 1 litre
  • contraction stimulated by the PNS
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9
Q

What are the two sphincters that guard the exit of urine from the urinary bladder and how do they work?

A

Internal Urethral Sphincter

  • Loop of smooth muscle
  • Convergence of detrusor muscle
  • Under involuntary control

normal tone keeps the neck of the bladder and urethra free of urine

External Urethral Sphincter

  • Circular band of skeletal muscle where urethra passes through the urogenital diaphragm
  • Acts as a valve with a resting muscle tone
  • Under voluntary control
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10
Q

Explain the elimination of Urine in women.

  • give two possible complications
A
  • Opens via external urethral orifice located between clitoris and vagina
  • A shorter urethra in females -> more susceptible to UTIs
  • If the external sphincter is not as well developed -> incontinence following childbirth due to injury
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11
Q

Explain the elimination of urine in men.

give two possible complications

A
  • The urethra passes through the prostate gland and through urogenital diaphragm and penis
  • Longer urethra compared to females provide some protection against UTIs
  • Prostate gland enlarges in 50% of males >60 yrs (along with hypertrophy of detrusor muscle)
  • may require surgical or hormone treatment
  • Prostate cancer – one of the commonest cancers affecting older men (death rate ~ 3%)
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12
Q

How is Micturition controlled?

A

it is an autonomic reflex

Inhibited by: Higher centres in the brain

  • stimulate continual tonic contraction of the external sphincter

Facilitated by: Cortical centres in the brain

  • intimates the micturition reflex and relaxing the external sphincter
  • the internal sphincter relaxes at the same time and urination occurs*
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13
Q

What does this graph tell you about bladder filling?

A

Red solid lines: normal intrinsic tone of the bladder wall

Red broken lines: pressure peaks (micturition contractions/waves)

  • In a partially full bladder: contractions relax spontaneously after a few seconds
  • In an Increasingly full bladder: contractions are more frequents, intense and last longer
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14
Q

What innervates the bladder and the sphincter?

A
  • the Hypogastric Nerve (sympathetic invol. from L2) and Paudendal Nerves (Somatic vol. from S2+3) inhibit micturition
  • the Pelvic nerves (parasympathetic invol. from S2+3) facilitate micturition
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15
Q

How does the Guarding Reflex promote continence

A
  • Progressive bladder distension stimulates the pelvic nerve via activation of stretch receptors in the bladder wall and the internal sphincter (1)
  • Activation of the pelvic nerve leads to stimulation of the hypogastric nerve
  • Hypogastric nerve stimulation causes:

(i) relaxation and reduced excitability of the bladder detrusor muscle(2)
(ii) constriction of the internal sphincter (3)

• Also, the external sphincter is held closed by the pudendal nerve(4)

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16
Q

What does the stimulation of the Pelvic Nerve also result in when stretch receptors in the bladder stimulate it during continues filling of urine?

A
  • contraction of the detrusor muscle
  • relaxation of the internal sphincter
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17
Q

Explain 3 major ways Micturition can be neurally disrupted.

A

Paraplegia: the complete severing of nerve inputs from the cerebral cortex (1)

– Mictuiation reflexes return, but without cortical control

– Periodic but unannounced bladder emptying – “Automatic bladder”

Partial spinal cord damage with loss of inhibitory descending signals(2)

– Frequent urination as excitatory impulses from cerebral cortex remain unopposed

– aka “Uninhibited bladder”

Crush injury of dorsal roots (3)

– Afferent nerve destruction - micturition reflexes lost despite having a complete efferent system

– Bladder fills to capacity and overflows dropwise - “overflow incontinence”

– aka “Atonic bladder”

Infants lack voluntary control over urination until corticospinal connections are established

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18
Q

What are the 3 main types of Urinary Incontinence?

A

Loss of sensory nerves due to injury:

  • the bladder fills to capacity
  • no signals from stretch receptors in the bladder
  • overflow incontinence occurs (atonic bladder)

Involuntary bladder contractions due to injury:

  • urge incontinence or increased frequency

Heightened urge incontinence- sensitive bladder:

  • Spicy food (capsaicin)
  • Caffeine/ chocolate (xanthines)
  • Citrus fruits (citric acid)
  • Carbonated beverages
  • Excitement or even laughter
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19
Q

What does the Pelic Nerve release to promote Micturition?

A
  • ACh
  • this causes detrusor muscle to contract
  • and involuntary internal sphincter relaxation
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20
Q

What drugs are used to prevent Micturition?

A

Anticholinergics (muscarinic ACh receptor antagonists):

  • Action: inhibit bladder contractions, facilitates involuntary contraction of internal bladder sphincter
  • Examples: Oxynitinin, Tolterodine, Flavooxate (fewer side effects, less effective)

Tricyclic antidepressants

  • Action: anticholinergic, direct muscle relaxant effects on the bladder but also inhibits the reuptake of noradrenaline and serotonin increasing their levels
  • Examples: Impipramine (children), Duloxetine, Desmopressin (children), Mirabegron
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21
Q

What are some unwanted effects of Anticholinergics used for continence treatment?

A
  • Dry mouth,
  • Blurred vision,
  • Palpitations,
  • Drowsiness,
  • Facial flushing (Atropine-like)
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22
Q

What is the treatment for acute and chronic urinary retention?

A

Acute

  • Catheterisation
  • Surgery

Chronic

  • Pharmacological intervention
  • Surgery
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23
Q

What is the effect of Noradrenaline on the bladder?

A
  • released by the Hypogastric Nerve
  • reduces micturation
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24
Q

What are alpha-adrenergic blocking drug? give the following:

  • Actions
  • Examples
  • Unwanted effects
A

Drugs used to prevent urinary retention

Action

  • Antagonist action at alpha-1A adrenoceptors in the bladder neck
  • Relaxes smooth muscle at the bladder neck and increases the urine flow rate

Examples

  • Alfuzosin, Doxazosin, Indoramin, Prazosin, Tamsulosin, Terazosin

Unwanted effects

  • hypotension
  • drowsiness
  • depression
  • headaches
  • dry mouth
  • GI disturbances
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25
Q

What are Parasympahteomimetics?

A

Choline Esters to prevent urinary retention

Actions:

  • Agonist action at muscarinic ACh receptors
  • Increases contraction of the bladder detrusor muscle
  • Limited role in the relief of urinary retention – now superseded by catheterisation

Examples:

  • BETHANECOL

Cautions:

  • Use with care or avoid using in patients with the cardiac disorder (e.g. arrhythmias)
  • Avoid in cases involving GI ulceration, asthma, hypotension, epilepsy, Parkinsonism, pregnancy

Unwanted effects:

  • Nausea, vomiting, intestinal colic, bradycardia, blurred vision,

sweating

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26
Q

What are the consequences of high occurrences of UTIs?

A
  • Uncontrolled infection / sepsis
  • Renal damage in young children
  • Preterm birth
  • Recurrent courses of AB contribute to antimicrobial resistance and risk of CDI (C. difficile infection)
27
Q

How are UTI’s classified?

  • give examples
A

Complicated ‘Lower’ UTI

  • Cystitis
  • Urethritis, prostatitis, epididymo-orchitis

Uncomplicated ‘Upper’ UTI

  • Acute pyelonephritis

Uncomplicated: no anatomical or neurological abnormalities of the urinary tract

28
Q

What are the risk factors for Uncomplicated UTI’s?

A
  • Female gender
  • Older age
  • Younger age
29
Q

What are the risk factors for Complicated UTI’s?

A
  • Indwelling catheters
  • Immunosuppression
  • Urinary Tract abnormalities
  • Antibiotic exposure
30
Q

What are the most common pathogens to cause Uncomplicated UTIs?

A
  • UPEC: uropathogenic Escherichia coli
  • K. pneumoniae
    • S. saprophyticus*
    • Enterococcus spp.*
31
Q

What are the most common pathogens to cause Complicated UTIs?

A
  • UPEC: uropathogenic Escherichia coli
    • Enterococcus spp.*
  • K. pneumoniae
    • Candida spp.*
32
Q

What are host factors that increase the pathogenesis of an organism to cause a Lower UTI?

A
  • Obstruction: prostatic hypertrophy, urethral valves or stricture
  • Poor bladder emptying: neuropathic, bladder diverticula
  • Catheterisation/ instrumentation
  • Vesico-enteric fistula
  • Sex: female – vaginal or anal; male – insertive anal
  • Diabetes
33
Q

What are host factors that increase the pathogenesis of an organism to cause a Upper UTI?

A
  • may follow on from a lower UTI
  • Vesicoureteral reflux
  • Obstruction: calculus, stricture
34
Q

Describe the pathogenesis process in a UTI

A
  1. Contamination of the periurethral area with a uropathogen from the gut
  2. Colonisation of the urethra and migration to the bladder
  3. Colonisation and invasion of the bladder, mediated by pili and adhesins
  4. Neutrophil infiltration
  5. Bacterial multiplication and immune system subversion
  6. Biofilm formation
  7. Epithelial damage by bacterial toxins and proteases
  8. Colonisation of the kidneys
  9. Host tissue damage by bacterial toxins
  10. Bacteremia is the ultimate progression if the pathogen crosses the tubular epithelial barrier in the kidneys
35
Q

What are the 3 things that bacterial virulence depend on?

A
  • Adherence
  • Invasion
  • Evasion
36
Q

What UTI pathogens are specialised for adherence?

  • How do they work?
A
  • In the bladder, uropathogenic Escherichia coli (UPEC) express Type 1 pili
  • P-pili confer tropism to the kidney
  • UPEC are highly adhesive and so are proficient in retrograde ureteral ascent
  • K. pneumoniae and S. saprophyticus, also have the ability to bind directly to the bladder epithelium,
  • which is composed of the umbrella cells (also known as superficial facet cells), intermediate cells and basal cells
37
Q

How do UTI pathogens evade destruction in the bladder?

A
  • Type 1 pilus binds to host cell.
  • This induces actin rearrangement within the host cell and causes uptake of the bacteria
  • Inside the cell, the bacteria is protected from many antibiotics and host defences.
  • Toll-like receptor 4 recognises LPS released by UPEC and activates pathways (via cAMP production) to push the bacteria out (exocytosis).
  • BUT the UPEC escapes this by escaping into the cytoplasm, where it multiplies up into intracellular bacterial communities (IBC).
  • These can then go on to invade more host cells; or to invade the transitional cells below and establish a quiescent intracellular reservoir – where they can survive for months
38
Q

How do UTI pathogens invade the bladder?

A
  • UPEC secretes factors to enable nutrients acquisition
  • Hemolysin A forms pores in the host cell which promotes host cell lysis, releasing iron and other nutrients.
  • UPEC also expresses siderophores which scavenge iron, which the bacteria depend on.
  • Hemolysin A also triggers epithelial exfoliation which helps the UPEC spread. Other colonised cells have their apoptotic pathways blocked, allowing the UPEC to survive.
  • Some extracellular UPEC adopts a filamentous morphology which makes it harder for the neutrophils to kill them.
39
Q

What is Cystitis and what are its clinical presentations/ indications?

A
  • inflammation of the bladder

– bladder and urethral symptoms

– overlap with urethritis

– dysuria, frequency, urgency, suprapubic pain, nocturia

– smelly/cloudy urine/visible blood

– children, elderly and catheterised can be non-specific

40
Q

What is Pyelonephritis and what are its clinical presentations/ indications?

A
  • kidney infection originating from the urinary tract

– fever, rigors, loin pain

– renal angle tenderness

– often lower UTI symptoms in addition

– if pain radiation to groin - stone?

– risk of bacteraemia

41
Q

What is the use of urine dipstick test?

  • what does it show?
A
  • used to determine treatment if the symptoms are vague
  • look for nitrates and +ve or -ve leukocytes
  • if negative, exclude UTI
  • if nitrates are positive with symptoms suggestive of cystitis
  • urine doesn’t need to be sent for culture in simple cystitis in a non-pregnant adult female
42
Q

When would a urine sample be sent to the lab for culture?

A
  • pregnant female
  • children and men,
  • pyelonephritis,
  • recurrence,
  • failed treatment,
  • abnormal urinary tract,
  • renal impairment
43
Q

What is the purpose of a Mid-stream urine sample (MSU)?

A

– to minimise urethral contamination

– rapid transport to lab, or..

– boric acid preservative and/or refrigerate

44
Q

How is asymptomatic bacteriuria treatment approached?

A
  • best left untreated except in pregnancy
  • extremely common in elderly patients
45
Q

How can catheter-associated UTI’s be prevented?

A

• Use only for a good reason:

  • measurement of urine output in acutely unwell
  • Mx of acute retention or obstruction
  • Selected surgical procedures
  • Aseptic insertion
  • Closed drainage system
  • Remove promptly when no longer indicated
46
Q

In an overview how would renal disease be diagnosed?

A

History

• Examination: Fluid overload, Pallor, Rash

• Blood and Urine tests: Urea and creatinine elevated, Dipstick protein/blood

• Imaging: USS renal tract, CT Kidneys Ureter Bladder, nuclear medicine scans (DMSA and MAG3

47
Q

What would be seen in acute presentations of renal disease? (Acute Kidney Injury- AKI)

A
  • Patient feels unwell
  • Oliguria/anuria (less or no urine)
  • Disturbance of acid-base balance or electrolytes or fluid balance
48
Q

What would be seen in chronic presentations of renal disease? (Chronic Kidney Disease- CKD)

A
  • often asymptomatic
  • BP might be high
  • often have other comorbidities, diabetes or vascular disease
  • >50% fall in GFR before kidney function tests become abnormal. Symptoms only really start when GFR<20 (normal is GFR 120 and GFR 10 is when you need to start dialysis)
49
Q

What type of kidney disease has the following presentations?

  • Generalised oedema
  • Low serum albumin
  • Proteinuria
  • (high cholesterol and Risk of clotting)
A

Nephrotic Syndrome

  • caused by abnormalities in the glomerular capillary
  • podocytes have some dysfunction allowing proteins to enter into the filtrate
50
Q

How does Diabetic Nephropathy present itself?

  • what is seen in the disease progression?
A
  • patients feel and look well
  • increased serum urea,
  • increased serum creatinine
  • decreased eGFR

Progression of the disease

  • peripheral Oedema: fluid overload, kidneys
  • Nausea/ vomiting: waste product build-up
  • Tiredness/ itching: waste product build-up
51
Q

What would the following symptoms suggest?

• Blood and protein on dipstick • Hypertension • AKI • Reduced urine output

  • give as specific example
A

Nephritic Syndrome

  • Henoch-Scholin purpura
  • a type of vasculitis affecting skin (raised red rashes), kidney and bowels
  • often occurs after strep throat
  • usually, self-limiting
52
Q

What are some causes of CKD?

A

• Hypertension

• Diabetes – T2DM>T1DM

  • Hyperlipidaemia
  • Recurrent renal infections
  • Chronic glomerulonephritis – IgA nephritis
  • Systemic disease – systemic lupus, multiple myeloma
  • Genetic - polycystic kidney, Alport syndrome
  • Chronic obstruction – prostatic hypertrophy, renal calculi, reflux
  • Medication – NSAIDs, lithium
53
Q

What are come causes of AKI?

A
  • Poor perfusion: loss of isotonic fluids
  • Sepsis: any severe infection
  • Toxins: drugs e.g NSAIDs, aminoglycoside endogenous Hb, light chains
  • Obstruction: renal calculus, prostatic enlargement
  • Parenchymal: glomerulonephritis
54
Q

Explain the use of the Albumin:Creatinine Ratio

A
  • only a small amount of albumin is filtered but some is metabolism in the proximal tubule
  • however there can be larger loads due to glomerular damage, therefore the PT can not metabolism them allowing them to end up in urine
  • measurement as a ratio with creatinine allows the use of a random urine sample rather than a timed collection
55
Q

What are some metabolic features of stage 2 and 3 CKD ?

A

at stage 2 CKD:

  • Elevated serum urea and creatinine concentrations
  • some increase in serum parathyroid hormone (PTH) concentration

at stage 3 CKD:

  • Calcium absorption decreased
  • Lipoprotein lipase decreased
  • Malnutrition Anaemia – erythropoietin decreased
56
Q

What are some metabolic feature of stage 4 and 5 CKD?

A

at stage 4:

  • Elevated serum triglyceride concentration
  • Elevated serum phosphate concentration
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Hyperkalaemia – elevated serum potassium

at stage 5:

  • Marked elevation of serum creatinine and urea concentrations
  • Much more marked other features from stage 2-4
57
Q

What are the stages of CKD using the eGFR?

A
58
Q

What would be the appropriate intervention for:

  • elevated urea
  • high potassium
  • low bicarbonate
  • low haemoglobin
  • low ferritin and transferring saturation?
A
  • low protein diet
  • diet, diuretics, treat acidosis
  • bicarbonate supplement
  • iron supplements and possibly EPO with a target Hb 100-120 g/l
  • iron supplements with a target satn >20% and ferritin 100-600

if interventions fail to produce adequate biochemical responses then dialysis is required and possibly transplantation

59
Q

What would be the appropriate intervention for:

  • low calcium
  • raised phosphate
  • raised PTH (parathyroid hormone)
  • raised triglyceride
A
  • Reduce serum phosphate, and take Vit D supplements – often 1-alpha OH Vit D3
  • take Phosphate binding drugs
  • Raise serum calcium, calcimimetic drugs to keep PTH within 2-9 X upper limit of RI
  • Diet, weight reduction, fibrate or statin drugs

if interventions fail to produce adequate biochemical responses then dialysis is required and possibly transplantation

60
Q

When is an individuals real GFR required?

A
  • to determine the does od renally excreted drugs that are potentially toxic
  • when monitoring dialysis and transplant patients
  • the Cockroft and Gault measurement is used
61
Q

What is the Cockroft and Gault measurement for GFR?

A

GFR ml/min = ((140 – Age) x (Weight x Constant)) / Serum creatinine

Constant = 1.23 in males and 1.04 in females

62
Q

Give three renal tubular disorders

A
  • Renal tubular acidosis
  • Fanconi Syndrome
  • Diabetes Insipidus
63
Q

What is Fanconi Syndrome?

A

Fanconi syndrome is a rare disorder of kidney tubule function that results in excess amounts of glucose, bicarbonate, phosphates (phosphorus salts), uric acid, potassium, and certain amino acids being excreted in the urine.