The last couple of things that I need to learn/ understand Flashcards

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1
Q

The definition of nighttime

A

The time between the end of civil twilight and beginning of morning twilight

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2
Q

Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude

A

At colder than standard temperatures

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3
Q

Pressure altitude

A

The height above the standard datum point

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4
Q

Absolute Altitude

A

Height above the surface

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5
Q

True Altitude

A

The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level

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6
Q

Ground effect

A

Result of the interference of the surface of the earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane

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7
Q

Deviation errors of the magnetic compass are caused by?

A

Certain metals and electrical systems within the aircraft

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8
Q

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if

A

A right turn is entered from a north heading

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9
Q

Nighttime with respect to the certification of airmen

A

One hour after sunset and ending one hour before sunrise

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10
Q

Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same?

A

At standard temperature

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11
Q

What is the difference between true north and magnetic north

A

Variation, not to be confused with deviation

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12
Q

Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?

  1. Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue.
  2. Airports with control towers underlying Class A, B, and C airspace are shown in blue; Class D and E airspace are magenta.
  3. Airports with control towers underlying Class C, D, and E airspace are shown in magenta.
A
  1. Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue.
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13
Q

When a control tower located on an airport within Class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?

A

The correct answer is B. During the hours the tower is not in operation, the Class E surface area rules or a combination of Class E rules and Class G rules will become applicable. The Airport/Facility Directory will contain the specifics for each airport. (AIM Chapter 3-2-5)

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14
Q

absence of the sky condition and visibility on report means

A

The absence of a sky condition or ceiling and/or visibility on ATIS indicates a sky condition or ceiling of 5,000 feet or above and visibility of 5 miles or more. A remark may be made on the broadcast, “the weather is better than 5000 and 5,” or the existing weather may be broadcast.

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15
Q

Pre-Ignition happens when

A

hot spots in the combustion chamber ignite the fuel/air mixture in advance of the normal ignition.

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16
Q

large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the body results in

A

Carbon monoxide reduces the ability of the blood to carry oxygen. Large accumulations result in loss of muscular power. Carbon monoxide poisoning results in an oxygen deficiency.

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17
Q

clouds are divided into four families according to their

A

Clouds are divided into four families according to their height range: low, middle, high, and clouds with extensive vertical development.

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18
Q
  1. When the term “light and variable” is used in reference to a winds aloft forecast, the coded group and wind speed is

A. 9999 and less than 10 knots.
B. 9900 and less than five knots.
C. 0000 and less than seven knots.

A

The correct answer is B. A winds aloft forecast of 2722, for example, would indicate 22 knots of wind from 270 degrees. 9900 means no specific direction (variable) and less than 5 knots (light). (Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, page 12-14)

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19
Q

The minimum weather condition for special VFR in class B, C, D, or E is

A

1 Mile flight visibility and clear of clouds

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20
Q

What are the Dangers of a MOA?

A

Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers

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21
Q

what are the hazards in an alert area?

A

A high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity

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22
Q

What are the hazards of a restricted area?

A

Unusual, often invisible hazards, to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles

23
Q

What values are used for winds aloft forecast?

A) Magnetic direction and knots
B) Magnetic direction and miles per hour
C) True direction and knots

A

True direction and knots

24
Q

the uncontrolled firing of the fuel/ air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is called

A

Pre-ignition

25
Q

A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propellor is to

A

avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM

26
Q

What are the characteristics of moist unstable air

A

Cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation

27
Q

One alcoholic drink (one ounce of liquor, one bottle of beer, or four ounces of wine) can be detected in the breath and blood for at least

A

3 hours

28
Q

Graphical forecasts for aviation (GFA) are weather charts best used to

A

Learn the forecast weather along your proposed route of flight as well as at your destination if it has no terminal forecast

29
Q

During which phase of flight is a pilot at increased odds of experiencing somatogravic illusions

A

takeoff

30
Q

The mature stage of a thunderstorm begins with

A

The start of precipitation

31
Q

A pilot can expect a wind shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the windspeed at 2,000 to 4,000 feet above the surface is at least

A

25 knots

32
Q

The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that there

A

Is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude

33
Q

With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft?

a) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air

b) Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea

c) Lighter-than-air, airship, hot air balloon, gas balloon

A

Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea

34
Q

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft

A) Normal, Utility, acrobatic

B) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider

c)Landplane, seaplane

A

Normal, Utility, acrobatic

35
Q

What is the advantage of a constant-speed propellor?

A) Permits the pilot to select and maintain a desired cruising speed

B) Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance

C) Provides a smoother operation with stable RPM and eliminates vibrations

A

Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance

36
Q

Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when

A

The unburned charge in the cylinder explodes burns instead of burning normally

37
Q

The angular difference between north and magnetic north is

A

Magnetic Variation

38
Q

The relationship of lift, drag, thrust, wight when the plane is in straight and level flight

A

Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag

39
Q

Loading the airplane to the most Aft of CG will cause the airplane to be

A

Less stable at all speeds

40
Q

Upon severe turbulence what flight condition will pilots attempt to maintain

-Constant altitude and airspeed
-Constant angle of attack
-Level flight attitude

A

Level flight attitude

41
Q

If the temp/dewpoint spread is small a decreasing, and the temp is 62 degrees F what type of weather is most likely to develop?

A

Low clouds or fog

42
Q

Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriately- rated pilot who holds at least a

A

Private Pilot Certificate

43
Q

Certificate of registration expires

A

3 years after the date the certification was issued

44
Q

What is the definition of load factor

A

Additional weight carried by the wings divided by the weight of the aircraft

45
Q

which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperatures to exceed the normal operating range

  • Using fuel that has a lower than specified fuel rating

-Using fuel that has a lower than specified fuel rating

-operating with higher than normal oil pressure

A

Using fuel that has a lower than specified fuel rating

46
Q

Can a GPS be used as an altimeter

A

No, there are too many errors in the vertical height computations in the GPS to rely on it as an altimeter

47
Q

How many satellites are there

A

24

48
Q

How many satellites are actually used to track your location

  • 5
  • 4
  • 25
A

4

49
Q

what is the minimum number of global positioning system (GPS) satellites that are observable by a user anywhere on earth

-5

-4

-25

A

5

50
Q

When you adjust the fuel/air ratio with the mixture control for a change of altitude, the ratio you are changing is the

A

Weight of fuel to the weight of air

51
Q

Pilots and/ or flight crew members involved in NMAC occurrences are urged to report each incident immediately

-By cell phone to the nearest Flight standards district office (FSDO) as this is an emergency
- To local law enforcement
-By radio or telephone to the nearest FAA ATC facility or FSS

A

By radio or telephone to the nearest FAA ATC facility or FSS

52
Q

The yellow demarcation bar marking demonstrates

-Runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway
- A hold line from Taxiway to Runway
-The beginning of available runway for landing on the approach side

A

Runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway

53
Q

What clouds have the greatest turbulence

  • Towering Cumulus
    -Cumulonimbus
    -Nimbostratus
A

Cumulonimbus