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NAPLEX D: > The crap never ends > Flashcards

The crap never ends Flashcards

1
Q

What is prinzmetal’s angina

A

Vasospasm that occurs at rest

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2
Q

What is Regadenoson used for

A

pharmacologic stress test

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3
Q

Lexiscan

A

Regadenoson

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4
Q

Treatment of ischemic heart disease - antiplatelet

A

aspirin (or clopidogrel if allergic)

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5
Q

Treatment of ISHD - anti-anginal

A

Beta–blockers (first line)
CCBs
Ronalazine (can be with beta-blockers)
Nitrates

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6
Q

HR goal for beta-blockers in ISHD

A

55-60bpm

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7
Q

First-line treatment for prinzmetal’s angina

A

CCBs (NOT nifedipine IR)

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8
Q

Ronalazine ADEs

A

QT prolongation
CYP3A4 inhibitor
Does NOT lower HR/BP

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9
Q

Nitrates vasodilate veins or arteries more?

A

Veins

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10
Q

Nitrostat

A

SL tablet

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11
Q

NitroMist

A

nasal spray

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12
Q

GoNitro

A

SL powder

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13
Q

How long nitrate free period to prevent tachyphylaxis?

A

10-12 hours

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14
Q

How is nitroglycerin ointment measured?

A

With the dose measuring applicator it comes with

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15
Q

Where should nitrate patch be applied?

A

to chest

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16
Q

Monoket

A

Isosorbide mononitrate

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17
Q

What treatment modalities for ISHD?

A 
A - antiplt/anticoag
B - blood pressure/beta blocker
C - cholesterol, cigs
D - diet and DM
E - exercise and education
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18
Q

What can be a HD?

A

Teratogen
Reduced fertility
organ toxicity at lower doses

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19
Q

What is the list of HD found?

A

NIOSH

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20
Q

Some drugs you might not have known were hazardous - 8

A 
Ribavirin
Colchicine
Fluconazole
Spironolactone
Risperidone
Rasagiline
Ziprasidone
Dronedarone
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21
Q

How far apart to separate sterile and non-sterile C-PECs?

A

1 meter

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22
Q

Required ACPH for C-SEC and buffer room?

A

C-SEC: 12

Buffer room: 30

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23
Q

Class I or Class II BSC is non-steirl HD?

A

Class I

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24
Q

When are closed system transfer devices REQUIRED?

A

administering antineoplastics

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25
Q

What are requirements for receiving HDs?

A

single loves and N-95 mask

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26
Q

What types of HD require full face respirator or faceshield and goggles?

A

gas/vapors/splashes

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27
Q

Where to store antineoplastics?

A

negative pressure room

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28
Q

PPE for administering HD?

A

2 gloves for antineoplastics

gown for antineoplastics

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29
Q

How to crush HD?

A

In a plastic pouch

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30
Q

How to dispose of HD?

A

Yellow bin - trace; outer gowns, shoe cover

Black bin - bulk

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31
Q

Sanitization order of HD

A
  1. Deactivation and decontamination (remove HDs - bleach/peroxide)
  2. Clean (Germicidal detergent)
  3. Disinfect (IPA)
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32
Q

How often to check for HD residue (environmental monitoring)

A

6 months

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33
Q

Heparin/LMWH antidote

A

protamine

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34
Q

Beta-blocker antidote

A

glucagon

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35
Q

CCB antidote

A

Calcium

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36
Q

Drugs that can worsen PD

A

Metoclopramide
Antipsychotics
Antiemetics

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37
Q

Major symptoms of parkinson’s

A

Tremor
Rigidity
Akinesia
Posture

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38
Q

Treatment options for PD

A
  1. Carbidopa/levodopa
  2. Dopamine agonists
  3. Amantadine/MAO-B inhibitors
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39
Q

Carbidopa dose

A

75-100mg/day

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40
Q

Rytary

A

carbidopa/levodopa capsule (can be sprinkled)

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41
Q

Sinemet

A

Carbidopa/levodopa

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42
Q

Mirapex

A

Pramipexole

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43
Q

Requip

A

ropinirazole

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44
Q

Neupro

A

Rotigotine patch

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45
Q

ADEs of Sinemet

A

nausea, dark urine, priapism, positive Coombs test, dyskinesia

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46
Q

CI of Sinemet

A

MAO-Is

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47
Q

what is entacopone

A

COMT inhibitor - increases duration of levodopa

200 mg with each dose of levodopa

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48
Q

ADEs of dopamine agonist

A

somonlence
orthostasis
hallucination

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49
Q

What are the dopamine agonists?

A

ropinirole
pramipexole
riotigotine

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50
Q

What is apomorphine and what ADE?

A

Rescue injection for parkinson’s

Causes severe N/V

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51
Q

How to treat N/v with apomorphine

A

Trimethobenzamide (Serotonin antagonists contraindicated)

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52
Q

Amantadine MOA

A

blocks DA reuptake

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53
Q

Amantadine ADEs

A

decreased BP, somnolence, psychosis

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54
Q

MAO-B inhibitors

A

selegiline, rasagiline, safinamide

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55
Q

MAOB inhibitors CI (3 drug classes)

A

with MAOIs, opioids, SNRIs

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56
Q

ADEs of MAO-B inhibitors

A

HTN, activating (selegiline), serotonin syndrome

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57
Q

Droxidopa use

A

orthostatic hypotension

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58
Q

What can cause osteoporosis (5)

A 
Heparin
Steroids
Lithium
SSRIs
excess thyroid
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59
Q

Normal t-score

A

> = -1

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60
Q

Rickets

A

Vitamin D deficiency

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61
Q

Calcium daily dose

A

500-600mg

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62
Q

Ca citrate or Ca carbonate has better absorption with PPIs?

A

Calcium citrate

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63
Q

Vitamin D deficiency level

A

<30

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64
Q

Which bisphosphonates are monthly>

A

PO ibandronate, risedronate

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65
Q

Atelvia CI

A

DR risedronate - with PPIs and H2RAs

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66
Q

Reclast

A

zoledronic acid

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67
Q

Evista

A

raloxifene

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68
Q

Duavee

A

estrogen/bazedoxifene

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69
Q

Forteo

A

teriparatide

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70
Q

Evista is used for treatment or prevention?

A

Both (raloxifene)

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71
Q

ADEs of raloxifene

A

arthralgias
leg cramps
VTE/stroke

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72
Q

Max use of teriparatide and why

A

2 years - osteosarcoma risk

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73
Q

ADEs of teriparatide

A

arthralgias, increased Ca, cramps, pain, nausea, dizziness

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74
Q

Does teriparatide need fridge?

A

yep

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75
Q

Denosumab MOA

A

decreases osteoclasts

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76
Q

Denosumab ADEs

A 
ONJ, AFF, increased BP
N/V/D
edema
SOB
low phosphate
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77
Q

Calcitonin ADE

A

inhibits osteoclasts

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78
Q

Calcitonin ades

A

hypercalcemia, increased malignancy risk

Do not use if HSR to salmon

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79
Q

estrogen increases risk of what without progestin?

A

endometrial cancer

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80
Q

estrogen ades

A

breast cancer
clots
dementia

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81
Q

Which estrogen patches are applied twice weekly?

A

Vivelle-Dot

Alora

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82
Q

Which estrogen patches are applied weekly?

A

Climara

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83
Q

Provera

A

medroxyprogesterone

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84
Q

Natural prodcuts for menopause

A 
Black cohosh
Dong quai
red clover
soy
flaxseed
primrose oil
SJW
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85
Q

SSRIs for vasomotor symptoms?

A

paroxetine (Brisdelle)

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86
Q

CI medication for paroxetine?

A

NOT with tamoxifene

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87
Q

Meds for vasomotor symptoms

A 
SSRIs
SNRIs
clonidine
gabapentin
pregabaline
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88
Q

Ospemifine use

A

painful intercourse (SERM)

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89
Q

What drugs cause hypogonadism in males

A

Methadone
Cimetidine
Spironolactone
Chemo

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90
Q

Who should get testosterone treatment?

A

men who are symptomatic and have confirmed low testosterone

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91
Q

Risk with testosterone treatmetn?

A

CV
Clotting
Increased HcT
increased prostate (avoid with BPH)

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92
Q

ADEs of testosterone

A

hepatotoxicity, decreased sperm, edema

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93
Q

Where to apply AndroGel

A

Upper body

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94
Q

When to apply AndroDerm

A

(patch)

nightly

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95
Q

Striant

A

testosterone buccal tablet

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96
Q

Depo-Testosterone

A

testosterone cypionate - IM injection

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97
Q

Risk if kids get into testosterone?

A

Virilization

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98
Q

Neurotransmitters that affect depression

A 
serotonin
NE
DA
EPI
glutamine
Acetylcholine
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99
Q

What’s the depression scale?

A

HAM-D, HDS

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100
Q

How long to treat with antidepressant before counting as failure?

A

6-8 weeks

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101
Q

Risk of SSRIs and pregnancy?

A

Pulmonary hypertension

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102
Q

Preferred drug in post-partum?

A

SSRIs

TCAs

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103
Q

Which improves first - physical or mood symptoms of depression?

A

Physical

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104
Q

Max dose of citalopram - and why?

A

40mg (20mg in elderly)

QT prolongation

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105
Q

ADEs of SSRIs

A 
Dry mouth
Sweating
Weakness
Tremor
HA
Bleeding
Sexual dysfunction
SIADH
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106
Q

Vilazodone MOA

A

SSRI and 5HT1A partial agonist

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107
Q

SNRI ADEs

A

dilatd pupiles
constipation
dry mouth
sweating

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108
Q

Max dose of venlafaxine and why

A

375mg

QT prolongation

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109
Q

TCA ADEs

A

QT prolongation (overdose)
orthostasis
anticholinergics

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110
Q

Tertiary TCAs

A

doxepin
amitriptyline
(more effect but more ADEs)

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111
Q

Secondary TCA

A

nortriptyline

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112
Q

MAO-Is

A

Isocarboxazide
Phenelizine
Tranylcypromine

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113
Q

contraindication with MOAIs

A

Tyramine foods

Drugs that increase DA, NE, EPI, 5-HT

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114
Q

How long to wash out other antidepressants before starting MAOIs?

A

2 weeks

5 for fluoxetine

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115
Q

Bupropion MOA

A

DA and NE reuptake inhibitor

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116
Q

Buprpion ADEs

A

dry mouth
insomnia
tremors
decreased weight

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117
Q

Benefit of bupropion

A

No sexual dysfunction

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118
Q

Mirtazapine ADEs

A

sedation

increased appetite/weight gain

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119
Q

Trazodone ADEs

A

sedation

priapism

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120
Q

Nefazodone ADEs

A

hepatotoxicity

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121
Q

What atypical antipsychotics for depression?

A

quetiapine
brexipiprazole
olanzapine/fluoxetine

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122
Q

What medications for induction of immunosuppression?

A

Basiliximab (simulect)

Antithymocyte globulines

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123
Q

ATGAM and thymoglobulin - which is horse and which is rabbit

A

ATGAM - horse

thymoglobulin - rabbit

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124
Q

Antithymocyte globulin ADE

A

infusion reaction - pre-medicate (benadryl, APAP, steroids)

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125
Q

Prednisone ADEs that I forget (3)

A

osteoporosis
fluid retention
acne

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126
Q

Antiproliferate agents

A

Mycophenolate Mofetil
Mycophenolic acid
Azathioprine

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127
Q

ADEs of mycophenolate

A

spontaneous abortion
GI upset
lymphoma
take on EMPTY STOMACH

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128
Q

azathioprine pharmacogenomics

A

TPMT deficiency - increased myelosuppression

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129
Q

Calcineurin inhbitors

A

tacrolimus (Prograf)

Cyclosporine (NEoral, Gengraf, Sandimmune)

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130
Q

ADEs if calcineurin inhibitors

A

QT prolongation
Neurotoxicity
Lymphoma
Increased lymphoma

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131
Q

Cyclosporine ADEs

A 
Hirsutisim
Gingival hyperplasia
Neurotoxicity
Edema
Lymphoma
low Mg
132
Q

Which cyclosporine brands have better bioavailability?

A

Gengraf

Neoral

133
Q

MTOR Kinase inhibitors

A

Everolimus

Sirolimus

134
Q

Everolimus ADEs

A

edema

HTN

135
Q

Sirolimus ADEs

A

increased lipids/BS

irreversible pneumonia/cough

136
Q

Everolimus should not be used for __ days post-transplant

A

30 days

137
Q

Belatacept MOA

A

CD80/CD86 blockade - blocks T cell production of inflammatory molecules

138
Q

Belatacept can only be used if patients is ___ positive

A

EBV+

139
Q

Risk with belatacept

A

post-transplant lymphproliferative disorder

140
Q

Which of the tranpslant meds can cause DM

A

Tacrolimus
steroids
cyclosporine

141
Q

Which of the transplant meds increase lipids

A

mTOR
steroid
cyclosporine

142
Q

which of the transplant meds increase BP

A

cyclosporine

tacrolimus

143
Q

Primary PPX for
PCP
Toxoplasma
MAC

A

PCP: Bactrim (<200)
Toxo: Bactrim (<100)
MAC: azithromycin weekly (<50)

144
Q

Second-line primary PPX for PCP/taxo

A

PCP: Dapsone (pyrimethamine + leucovorin)
Toxo: Dapsone + pyrimethamine + leucovorin

145
Q

How long to do MAC?

A

3 months on ART and CD4>100

146
Q

How long on PCP/toxo PPX?

A

3 months with CD4 above 200

147
Q

Treatment of candidiasis

A
  1. fluconazole

2. itraconazole

148
Q

Treatment of cryptococcal meningitis

A
  1. ampho B + flucytosine
  2. Fluconazole + flucytosine
    secondary ppx: fluconazole
149
Q

Treatment of CMV

A
  1. valganciclovir/ganciclovir

2. cidofovir/foscarnet

150
Q

Treatment of MAC

A

ethambutol + macrolide

Continue for secondary ppx

151
Q

Treatment of PCP

A
  1. Bactrim
  2. Petamidine
    Secondary ppx: Bactrim or dapsone
152
Q

Treatment of toxoplasmosis

A
  1. pyrimethamine + leucovorine + sulfadiazine
  2. Bactrim
    secondary ppx: same as tx
153
Q

UC v Crohn’s
Which is deep?
Which is at colon/rectum?
Which is continuous?

A 
UC - superficial
CD- deep
UC - colon/rectum
CD - throughout GI
UC - continuous
Crohn's - non-continuous
154
Q

Probitics useful for UC/CD?

A

Yup

155
Q

Treatment for acute exacerbation

A

steroids

156
Q

Which steroids available rectally?

A

budesonide and hydrocortisone

for UC only!

157
Q

Uceris

A

budesonide - for UC

158
Q

Entocort

A

budesonide - for CD

159
Q

Azulfidine

A

sulfasalazine

160
Q

Aminosalicylates for UC or CD?

A

UC

161
Q

When to use rectal aminosalicylate?

A

If localized to distal UC

162
Q

ADEs of sulfasalazine

A

HSR

Yellow/orange skin

163
Q

Giazo

A

Balsalazide

MALES ONLY

164
Q

Colazol ADE

A

stains teeth if chewed (think Colgate)

165
Q

Thiopurine ADEs

A

malignancy, hematologic toxicities

Myelosuppression with TPMT

166
Q

MTX dosage forms

A

IM or SC

167
Q

MTX for UC or CD?

A

CD

168
Q

Cyclosporine for UC or CD?

A

UC

169
Q

Anti-TNF agents for UC or CD? Which ones?

A

Both
Golimuab
Infliximab
Adalimumab

170
Q

Ustekinumab mechanism and use?

A

Anti-IL12/23

CD who haven’t tried anti-TNF

171
Q

Tofacitinib mechanism and use?

A

JAK STAT

UC

172
Q

Integrin antagonists - what drugs and what are they used for?

A

natalizumab - CD

Vedolizumab - CD/UC

173
Q

Natalizumab ADE

A

PML

174
Q

How long to continue integrin inhibitors/wait for response?

A

Natalizumab - 12 weeks

vedolizumab - 14 weeks

175
Q

FMEA vs RCA?

A

FMEA - prospective

RCA - retrospective

176
Q

Do not use abbreviations

A

u for unit
IU
MS/MgSO4/MSO4

177
Q

Precautions with high-alert medications

A

Pre-mixed when possible
Store in pharmacy (not on floor)
Limit concentrations available

178
Q

Contact precautions - for what bugs

A

MRSA and Cdif

179
Q

How to reuce catheter infections

A

chlorhexidine and antibiotic impregnated central venous catheters

180
Q

Is alcohol or soap/water better for cleaning hands?

A

Usually alcohol - unless CDIF

181
Q

What drugs increase LDL (but not TG)

A

fibric acid
SGLT2 inhibitors
TZDs

182
Q

Ezetimibe can decrease CV events in what patients?

A

with recent ACS

183
Q

Who are the 4 statin benfit groups

A

LDL >190
Clinical ASCVD
DM 40-75 years
ASCVD risk >7.5%

184
Q

What intensity of statin for DM?

A

> 7.5% ASCVD risk - high

otherwise moderate

185
Q

What intensity of statin for ASCVD risk >7.5% w/o diabetes?

A

moderate

186
Q

Low intensity statins

A 
Fluvastatin 20-40
Lovastatin 20
pravastatin 10-20
pitatavastatin 1
simvastatin 10
187
Q

Which statins have drug interactions?

A

Simvastatin
Lovastatin
Atorvastatin (not as much)

188
Q

Which statins have to be taken in evening?

A

Simvastatin

Lovastatin

189
Q

Which meds can increase myopathy with statins? (2)

A

Niacin

Colchicine

190
Q

Cyclosporine can be used with what statin?

A

Rosuvastatin 5mg

191
Q

Ezetimibe ADE

A

myalgias

192
Q

Bile acid sequestrants ADEs

A

INCREASE TGs

Constipation/bloating/gas

193
Q

Bile acid sequestrant indication

A

Decreases BS for DM!!

194
Q

What is the DOC for hyperlipidemia in pregnancy?

A

colesevelam

195
Q

Bile acid sequestrants can decrease absorption of ….?

A 
ADEK
everything else (separate from all drugs)
196
Q

Fibrates mechanism

A

PPAR alpha activators

197
Q

Fibrates effect on lipid profile

A

Decrease TG
Decrease LDL (or increase if TG are high)
Increase LDL

198
Q

Fibrates ADEs

A

Dyspepsia, myopathy

199
Q

Contraindications of fibrates

A

gallbladder disease

severe liver disease

200
Q

Niacin other name

A

Vitamin D

201
Q

Nian effect on lipid profile

A

Decrease LDL and Increase HDL

202
Q

Which niacin has the least flushing?

A

IR

203
Q

Niaspin ADEs

A 
Flushing
rhabdomyolysis
hepatotoxicity
Increase BS
Increase Uric acid
N/V/D
204
Q

How to treat flushing from niacin?

A

aspirin

205
Q

Which niacin has least hepatotoxicity?

A

Niaspan

206
Q

Fish oil indication

A

TG >500

207
Q

Which fish oil has no change in LDL

A

Vascepa

Lova increases it

208
Q

PCSK9 inhibitors indications

A

familial hypercholesterenmia or clinical ASCVD

209
Q

Praluent

A

alivocumab (PSCK9)

210
Q

Repatha

A

Evolocumab (Repatha)

211
Q

Mipomerson and lomitapide use

A

homozygous familiar hypercholestermia

212
Q

Mipomerson and lomitapide have REMS - why?

A

liver disease

213
Q

Welchol

A

Colesevalam

214
Q

Antara

A

Fenofibrate

215
Q

Lopid

A

Gemfibrozil

216
Q

Where can find info about immunizations?

A

CDC
Pink book
Morbidity and mortality report

217
Q

Which vaccines are live

A 
Zostavax
Yellow fever
Tyhpoid
Cholera
MMR
Varicella
218
Q

IVIG and what issue with vaccines?

A

Separate from live vaccines - either 3 months before or 2 weeks after vaccine

219
Q

What vaccine can cause false negative PPD?

A

Live

220
Q

Contraindications to live vaccines?

A

Pregnancy

Immunosuppression

221
Q

When to give TDaP in pregnancy?

A

weeks 27-36

222
Q

Vaccines for asplenia

A

Hib, pneumococcal, menigococcal (encapsulated bacteria)

223
Q

HIV CD4 <200 vaccine requirements

A

meningococcal
Hib
Hep b

224
Q

Hep B is given when?

A 
within 24 hours of birth
CLD
HC workers
HIV
DM
225
Q

HPV indication (and how many based on age)

A

F: 9-26
M: 9-21
Give 2 doses if <15, 3 otherwise

226
Q

Earliest age to give flu ?

A

6 months

227
Q

Who needs 2 doses of flu?

A

anyone less than 8 who is getting the flu vaccine for the first time

228
Q

What are the HD flu vaccines?

A

fluzone HD

FluAd

229
Q

What is PICC?

A

Inserted into small vein and maneuvered into the vena cava

230
Q

What meds are vesicants?

A

Vasopressors
Anthracycline
Vinka alkaloids

231
Q

What is the problem with PVC containers?

A

Contain DEHP - leaches into solution

232
Q

What meds can’t be used with PVC?

A 
Lorazepam
Amiodarone
Taxanes
Tacrolimus
Insulin
Nitroglycerin
233
Q

What IV meds require NS?

A 
Ampicillin
Daptomycin
Infliximab
Amp/sul
Caspofungin
Ertapenem
Phenytoin
234
Q

D5W only

A

Bactrim
Oxalaplatin
Amphoterrible
Synercid

235
Q

Ceftriaxone is incomptible with???

A

calcium!

236
Q

What meds require a filter

A 
Golimumab
amiodarone
lorazepam
phenytoin
lipids (1.2)
ampho b
taxanes
GAL PLAT
237
Q

What 2 meds should not be fridge?

A

Phenytoin

Furosemide

238
Q

What meds should be protected from light during administration

A 
Doxycycline
Epoprostenol
Micafungin
Nitroprusside
Phytanodione
239
Q

What med turns blue when toxic?

A

Nitroprusside

240
Q

What med turns pink but is not toxic?

A

Dobutamine

241
Q

What drug turns urine blue?

A

mitoxantrone

242
Q

What flu vaccine is egg free?

A

FluBlok

243
Q

What age can get FluMist?

A

2-49

244
Q

Which meds stored in freezer?

A

MMRV
zostavax
varicella

245
Q

Rotavirus is live or nah?

A

Livee

246
Q

Varivax and zostavax are contraindicated with??

A

gelatin

neomycin

247
Q

Antivirals can get in the way of reaction to what vaccine?

A

Live vaccines - varivax and zostavax

248
Q

ROA of varivax and zostavax?

A

subcutaneous

249
Q

Typhoid oral vaccine storage

A

Refrigerate

250
Q

Yellow fever vaccine allergies

A

egg, gelatin

251
Q

Cholera storage

A

freezer

252
Q

How long to keep temperature logs

A

3 years

253
Q

Which vaccines need freezed?

A

MMRV
zostavax
varicella
cholera

254
Q

Risk of using antidepressants in bipolar disorder?

A

can cause mania

255
Q

acute treatment of bipolar disorder - mania

A

valproate

lithium + antipsychotic

256
Q

acute treatment of bipolar disorder - depression

A

lithium

lamotrigine

257
Q

preferred for BPD in depression

A

latuda

lamotrigine

258
Q

carbamazepine for mania or depression

A

mania

259
Q

can antipsychotics be used as monotherapy for bpd

A

no

260
Q

lithium goal monitoring

A

0.6-1.2mEq/L (trough0

261
Q

ADEs of lithium

A 
GI upset
cognitive effects
Cogwheel rigidity
Tremor
Increased weight
Polyuria
Hypothyroidism
262
Q

Toxicity of lithium

A

> 1.5: tremor, vomiting/D, confusion, ataxia

>2.5: arrhythmia, sz, CNS depression

263
Q

How is lithium cleared?

A

RENAL

264
Q

Lithium Drug interactions

A

Serotonergic
Clearance - diuretics, ACE/ARB increase levels
SALT intake matters a lot

265
Q

OTC self-treatment for insomnia

A

Doxylamine

Diphenhydramine

266
Q

What drugs help with just falling asleep

A

Ramelteon

Zaleplon

267
Q

What drugs help with just staying asleep

A

Doxepin

Suvorexant

268
Q

what drugs help with falling asleep and staying asleep

A

zolpidem

eszopiclone

269
Q

Schedule of all the sleep meds (benzos, Z-drugs, orexin)

A

CIV

270
Q

ADEs of non-benzo sleep meds

A

ataxia

parasomnias

271
Q

zolpidem DF

A

Edluar (SL)

Intermezzo (SL)

272
Q

Suvorexant MOA

A

Orexin antagonist

273
Q

Which benzos preferred for sleep

A

Lorazepam

Temazepam

274
Q

How to treat RLS??

A

Dopamine agonists (pramipexole, ropinirole) 1-3 hours before bed
OR
gabapentin

275
Q

ADEs of dopamine agonists

A

orthostasis and somonlence

276
Q

Narcolepsy treatment

A

Modafinil
Armodafinil
Sodium oxybate

277
Q

Schedule of stimulants for narcolepsy

A

CIV

278
Q

Schedule of sodium oxybate

A

CIII (date rape drug -REMS)

279
Q

Osmolarity equation

A

mOsm/L = Wt (g/L)/MW x * of particles * 1000

280
Q

kalories in carbs

A

3.4kcal/g

281
Q

calories in fat (EN)

A

9kcal/g

282
Q

calories in protein

A

4kcal/g

283
Q

calores in PN fat emulsions

A

10%: 1.1kcal/mL
20%: 2kcal/mL
30%: 3kcal/ML

284
Q 
Max lifetime dose of
Bleomycin
Doxycycline
vincristine
cisplatin
A

Bleomycin: 400 units
Doxycycline: 450-550mg/m2
Vincristine: 2mg at one time
Cisplatin: 100mg/m2 per cycle

285
Q

What chemo drugs don’t cause myelosuppression?

A

vincristine
pegasparaginase
bleomycin

286
Q

which drugs cause lots of N/V

A

Platinums
cyclophosphamide
ifosfamide

287
Q

Mucositosis drugs

A 
5-FU
MTX
capecitabine
irinotecan
-nibs
288
Q

What chemo drugs cause QT prolongation

A

arsenic trioxide

TKIs

289
Q

What chemo drugs cause pulmonary fibrosis

A

busulfan

carmustine/lomustine

290
Q

What chemos cause neuropathy

A

vinka alkaloids
taxanes
platinums

291
Q

What chemos cause hemorrhagic cystitis

A

cyclophosphamide
ifosfamide
(prevent with Mesna)

292
Q

What drugs cause nephrotoxicity

A

MTX

Cisplatin (prevent with amifostene)

293
Q

What drugs cause thromboembolism

A

SERMs
aramatose inhibitors
thalidomides

294
Q

Zinecard

A

dexrazoxane for cardioprotection

295
Q

Tocect

A

Dexrazoxane for extravasation

296
Q

Uridine triacetal - antidote fr what?

A

5-FU

capecitabine

297
Q

Glucarparidase - antidoate for what?

A

MTX

298
Q

Dolasetron ADE

A

QT prolongation (no IV administration)

299
Q

Sancuso

A

granisetron patch

300
Q

Decadron

A

dexamethasone

301
Q

Drugs that cause hand-foot syndrome

A

Capecitabine
5-FU
liposomal doxorubicin
cytarabine

302
Q

Hypercalcemia of malginancy treatment

A

calcitonin
loops/hydration
xgeva, zometa

303
Q

Vesicant chemo drugs

A

vinka alkaloids

anthracyclines

304
Q

Which vesicants should have warm compress?

A

vinka alkaloids
anthracyclines
(the rest use cold)

305
Q

How to treat vincristine extravastation

A

Hyaluronidase

and warm compress

306
Q 
Max lifetime dose of
Bleomycin
Doxycycline
vincristine
cisplatin
A

Bleomycin: 400 units
Doxycycline: 450-550mg/m2
Vincristine: 2mg at one time
Cisplatin: 100mg/m2 per cycle

307
Q

What chemo drugs don’t cause myelosuppression?

A

vincristine
pegasparaginase
bleomycin

308
Q

which drugs cause lots of N/V

A

Platinums
cyclophosphamide
ifosfamide

309
Q

Mucositosis drugs

A 
5-FU
MTX
capecitabine
irinotecan
-nibs
310
Q

What chemo drugs cause QT prolongation

A

arsenic trioxide

TKIs

311
Q

What chemo drugs cause pulmonary fibrosis

A

busulfan

carmustine/lomustine

312
Q

What chemos cause neuropathy

A

vinka alkaloids
taxanes
platinums

313
Q

What chemos cause hemorrhagic cystitis

A

cyclophosphamide
ifosfamide
(prevent with Mesna)

314
Q

What drugs cause nephrotoxicity

A

MTX

Cisplatin (prevent with amifostene)

315
Q

What drugs cause thromboembolism

A

SERMs
aramatose inhibitors
thalidomides

316
Q

Zinecard

A

dexrazoxane for cardioprotection

317
Q

Tocect

A

Dexrazoxane for extravasation

318
Q

Uridine triacetal - antidote fr what?

A

5-FU

capecitabine

319
Q

Glucarparidase - antidoate for what?

A

MTX

320
Q

Dolasetron ADE

A

QT prolongation (no IV administration)

321
Q

Sancuso

A

granisetron patch

322
Q

Decadron

A

dexamethasone

323
Q

Drugs that cause hand-foot syndrome

A

Capecitabine
5-FU
liposomal doxorubicin
cytarabine

324
Q

Hypercalcemia of malginancy treatment

A

calcitonin
loops/hydration
xgeva, zometa

325
Q

Vesicant chemo drugs

A

vinka alkaloids

anthracyclines

326
Q

Which vesicants should have warm compress?

A

vinka alkaloids
anthracyclines
(the rest use cold)

327
Q

How to treat vincristine extravastation

A

Hyaluronidase

and warm compress

NAPLEX D: (3 decks)

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