The Cell Part 2- The Cytosol And Proteins Flashcards

1
Q

What is the primary structure of a protein, and how is it determined?

A

The primary structure of a protein is the sequence of amino acids, which is determined by mRNA codons during protein synthesis.

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2
Q

Describe two types of secondary structures found in proteins and explain the molecular basis for their formation.

A

Two types of secondary structures in proteins are the α helix and β pleated sheet. They form due to hydrogen bonding between the N–H and C=O groups in the polypeptide backbone. In α helix, hydrogen bonds form within the polypeptide chain spaced four amino acids apart, while β pleated sheets have hydrogen bonds between amino acids in adjacent strands.

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3
Q

What is the tertiary structure of a protein, and what forces contribute to its formation?

A

Tertiary structure refers to the three-dimensional structure of a polypeptide chain. It is stabilized by various forces, including disulfide bonds, hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, hydrophobic interactions, and Van der Waals forces.

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4
Q

Name two categories of proteins based on their structural characteristics and provide examples of each.

A

Two categories of proteins based on their structural characteristics are fibrous proteins and globular proteins. Examples of fibrous proteins include collagen, keratin, and elastin, while examples of globular proteins include catalase, hemoglobin, and insulin.

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5
Q

Explain the process of protein denaturation and provide an example of irreversible denaturation.

A

Protein denaturation occurs when the secondary, tertiary, or quaternary structure of a protein is disrupted, causing it to lose its specific three-dimensional shape. This can be caused by factors such as extreme temperature or pH changes. An example of irreversible denaturation is the coagulation of egg white (albumin) when it is boiled or fried.

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6
Q

What is recombinant protein, and how is it produced using recombinant DNA technology? Name a commonly used host organism in this process.

A

Recombinant protein is a manipulated form of protein generated using recombinant DNA technology, where genetic material from one organism is combined with another to produce proteins. This is done using vectors, specialized vehicles for recombinant DNA. Common host organisms for producing recombinant proteins include E. coli for bacterial transformation and eukaryotic cells for transfection. The production of recombinant proteins involves the expression of recombinant DNA within living cells.

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7
Q

List some uses of recombinant proteins and provide examples of recombinant proteins used in each category.

A

Hormones/Enzymes: Insulin (Humulin), clotting factors (e.g., Factor VIII)

Vaccines/Immunogens: Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBV S Ag)

Therapeutic Antibodies: Anti-HER2 (for cancer treatment), Anti-VEGF (for cancer treatment)

Cytokines/Immunostimulation: Interferon (for immunostimulation)

Assisted Reproduction: FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone)

Blood Clotting: Factors VII, IX, X (for blood clotting)
Metabolism: Exubera (for insulin replacement therapy)

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8
Q

What organelle is responsible for the degradation of organelle proteins, and what is the process by which they are degraded?

A

Lysosomes are responsible for the degradation of organelle proteins. They use hydrolytic enzymes to break down cellular components, including organelle proteins.

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9
Q

Which cellular structure destroys proteins, and where is it found in the cell?

A

The proteasome is responsible for destroying proteins, and it is found in both the nucleus and the cytoplasm.

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10
Q

Describe the components of the proteasome

A

The proteasome consists of a core particle containing catalytic (proteolytic) sites and regulatory caps on each end, each made of a base and a lid.

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11
Q

What is the role of ubiquitin in protein degradation, and how is it attached to the targeted protein?

A

Ubiquitin serves as a signal for protein destruction. A chain of ubiquitin molecules (polyubiquitin) is attached to the targeted protein. The process involves E1 (Ubiquitin-activating enzyme), E2 (Ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme), and E3 (E3 ligases) enzymes. E1 activates ubiquitin, E2 transfers it to the protein, and E3 ligases catalyze its attachment to a lysine in the substrate protein.

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12
Q

Briefly explain the process of gel electrophoresis, including SDS-PAGE, and its purpose.

A

Gel electrophoresis is a technique that separates molecules, such as proteins, based on their electrical charge, size, or other characteristics. In SDS-PAGE (sodium dodecyl sulfate polyacrylamide-gel electrophoresis), proteins are treated with SDS and a reducing agent to denature and separate them by size. This technique is used for the separation and identification of proteins, creating a banded pattern.

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13
Q

What is the principle of a Western blot, and how is it used to detect specific proteins?

A

A Western blot is a technique used to detect specific proteins in a sample. It involves separating proteins through electrophoresis, transferring them to a paper sheet, and then using labeled antibodies to detect the target proteins. The antibodies bind to specific proteins of interest, allowing their detection on the blot. This technique is useful in confirming diagnoses, such as HIV, and studying protein expression in various samples.

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14
Q

What is the main function of the plasma membrane in a cell?

A

The plasma membrane encloses cell contents, mediates exchange with extracellular fluid (ECF), and plays a role in communication.

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15
Q

According to the fluid mosaic model, what is the structure of the plasma membrane?

A

The fluid mosaic model describes the plasma membrane as a lipid bilayer within which proteins are inserted. The lipids in the bilayer have hydrophobic tails and hydrophilic heads, organizing their arrangement.

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16
Q

What are integral transmembrane proteins, and what is their role in the plasma membrane?

A

Integral transmembrane proteins extend entirely through the plasma membrane. They are essential for various functions, including transport, enzymatic activity, and communication. Some proteins attached to the integral proteins are peripheral proteins.

17
Q

Describe the three types of chemical signal receptors.

A

The three types of chemical signal receptors are:

Chemically gated channel-linked receptors.
G-protein linked (coupled) receptors.
Catalytic proteins (enzyme-linked or coupled) receptors.

18
Q

Explain the functioning of G protein-linked receptors, including the role of second messengers and protein kinase enzymes.

A

G protein-linked receptors are activated when a ligand binds to the receptor. The activated receptor then binds to a G protein, which activates it. The activated G protein, in turn, activates an effector protein (enzyme), causing a change in its shape. The activated effector enzyme catalyzes reactions that produce second messengers, such as cAMP. These second messengers activate other enzymes and ion channels, leading to a cellular response. Protein kinase enzymes, activated by cAMP or other second messengers, transfer phosphate groups from ATP to specific proteins, triggering a series of enzyme activations and cellular responses.

19
Q

What are tight junctions, and what is their primary function?

A

Tight junctions are impermeable cell-cell junctions that seal adjacent epithelial cells together. Their primary function is to prevent the passage of most dissolved molecules from one side of the epithelial sheet to the other.

20
Q

What are the types of cell junctions found in animal tissues?

A
  • desmosomes
  • gap junctions
  • adherens junctions
21
Q

Function of desmosomes

A

These are anchoring cell-cell junctions, usually formed between two epithelial cells. They are characterized by dense plaques of protein into which intermediate filaments in the two adjoining cells insert, mechanically coupling cells into a functional community.

22
Q

Function of gap junctions

A

Gap junctions are communicating channel-forming cell-cell junctions present in most animal tissues. They allow ions and small molecules to pass from the cytoplasm of one cell to the cytoplasm of the next, facilitating communication between joint cells.

23
Q

Function of adherens junctions

A

Adherens junctions are cell junctions in which the cytoplasmic face of the plasma membrane is attached to actin filaments. Examples include adhesion belts linking adjacent epithelial cells and focal contacts on the lower surface of cultured fibroblasts.

24
Q

What are the roles of cell adhesion molecules (CAMs) in cellular processes?

A

Embryonic development.
Immunity.
Wound repair.
Anchoring cells to molecules in the extracellular fluid (ECF) and to each other.
Sensing mechanical tension in the environment.
Transmitting intracellular signals that direct cell migration, proliferation, and specialization.

25
Q

What is the primary application of flow cytometry in biotechnology?

A

Flow cytometry is primarily used for cell counting, cell sorting, and biomarker detection by suspending cells in a stream of fluid and passing them through an electronic detection apparatus.

26
Q

In which specific fields of study or applications is flow cytometry commonly used?

A

Blood cancers (hematology).
Tumor immunology and chemotherapy research.
Prenatal diagnosis.
Sperm sorting for sex preselection.

27
Q

Describe the process of immunohistochemistry (IHC) and its main purpose.

A

Immunohistochemistry (IHC) is a technique that uses antibodies to stain proteins in a tissue sample to visualize the presence and distribution of these proteins. It is commonly used in the diagnosis of abnormal cells, such as those found in cancerous tumors. The process involves:

Conjugating an antibody to an enzyme (e.g., peroxidase) or a fluorophore (e.g., fluorescein or rhodamine).
Applying the antibody to the tissue section.
Detecting the presence of the protein of interest based on the enzymatic reaction or fluorescent signal.

28
Q

What are the three classes of extracellular materials in the body, and briefly describe their functions?

A
  1. Body fluids (extracellular fluids): These include interstitial fluid, blood plasma, and cerebrospinal fluid. They serve as important transport and dissolving media, nourishing cells and carrying waste products.
  2. Cellular secretions: These substances include digestive fluids (intestinal and gastric fluids) and lubricants (saliva, mucus, and serous fluids).
  3. The extracellular matrix: This is the most abundant extracellular material, serving as a “cell glue” that holds body cells together. It is composed of proteins and polysaccharides, particularly abundant in connective tissues, and contributes to tissue structure.
29
Q

How would you define a stem cell in terms of its fundamental properties?

A

A stem cell is an undifferentiated cell that can continue dividing indefinitely. It produces daughter cells that can either commit to differentiation (specialization into specific cell types) or remain as stem cells through self-renewal. Key properties of stem cells include:

They are not terminally differentiated.
They can divide without limit.
When they divide, the progeny can follow one of two paths: remaining as stem cells or entering the pathway leading to terminal differentiation.
In adults, their primary role is tissue repair.
The ultimate example of a stem cell is a fertilized egg (zygote).

30
Q

What are the factors that lead to the differentiation of cells, especially during embryonic development?

A

Differentiation is usually accompanied by cell cycle exit in G1.

CDK inhibitor proteins prevent progression from G1 to S phase.

Some genes are active, while others are repressed in the differentiated state.

Each primary cell type expresses proteins in signaling pathways suited to control their functions.

Cells in different regions of the embryo are exposed to distinct chemical signals.

Cells release chemicals that influence the development of neighboring cells, switching some genes off.
Cell specialistion is determined by the types of proteins produced and reflects the activation of different genes in different cell types.

31
Q

What is apoptosis?

A

Apoptosis is a form of programmed cell death characterized by the activation of a “suicide” program within a cell, leading to rapid cell death mediated by caspases, intracellular proteolytic enzymes.

32
Q

What are the causes of apoptosis?

A

extracellular signals, cellular stress, or exposure to chemotherapy.

33
Q

What is the process of apoptosis?

A
  1. Regulated breakdown of cellular proteins by caspases.
  2. Formation of apoptotic bodies (cell fragments with intact membranes).
  3. Engulfment of apoptotic bodies by macrophages or neighboring cells.

Apoptosis helps remove unwanted, aged, stressed, or sub-lethally damaged cells without activating the immune response.

34
Q

List and briefly describe the phases of the cell life cycle.

A
  1. G0 Phase: A quiescent, resting phase where the cell is non-proliferating.
  2. G1 Phase (Gap 1): Cellular growth phase where metabolic activities occur.
  3. S Phase (Synthesis): DNA replication phase, producing two sister chromatids.
  4. G2 Phase (Gap 2): Continuation of cellular growth and protein production.
  5. M Phase (Mitosis): Phase where the cell nucleus divides, and cytokinesis follows to divide the cytoplasm.
35
Q

Describe the process of cell division, including DNA reduplication, mitosis (with its four phases), and cytokinesis.

A
  • DNA Reduplication: Occurs during the S phase, where DNA replication produces two sister chromatids for each chromosome.
  • Mitosis: Divided into four phases:
    - Prophase: Chromosomes condense, nucleolus and nuclear membrane disappear, centrioles separate, and the mitotic spindle forms.
    - Prometaphase: Chromosomes condense further, kinetochores form on chromatids, nuclear envelope fragments, and microtubules attach to kinetochores.
    - Metaphase: Chromosomes align along the metaphase plate.
    - Anaphase: Sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite poles.
    - Telophase: Sister chromatids reach opposite poles, the nuclear membrane reforms, and chromosomes decondense.
    - Cytokinesis: The process that completes cell division, forming two daughter cells.
36
Q

What factors control cell division, and what are the key enzymes involved in regulating cell division?

A
  • Growth factors and some hormones.
  • Cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) complexes.
  • M-phase promoting factor.

Enzymes like CDKs and the P53 gene play essential roles in entering different phases of mitosis or inhibiting the process.