The Brain Flashcards

1
Q

gray matter is made of cell bodies or axons?

A

cell bodies

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2
Q

white matter is made of cell bodies or axons?

A

axons

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3
Q

what re the 3 types of neurons in the CNS?

A
  1. Mulitpolar
  2. pseudounipolar
  3. Bipolar
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4
Q

which type of neuron is most common in the CNS?

A

multipolar

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5
Q

name the glials cells in CNS. Which is most abundant?

A

astrocytes (most abundant)
ependymal cells
oligodendrocytes
microglia

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6
Q

what do astrocytes do?

A

repair neurons after injury

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7
Q

what do ependymal cells do?

A

form choroid plexus and produce CSF

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8
Q

what do oligodendrocytes do?

A

myelin sheath in CNS

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9
Q

what do microglial cells do?

A

act as macrophages and phagocytize neuronal debris

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10
Q

from what cells to most brain tumors arise?

A

Glial cells

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11
Q

Brain can be divided into which four areas?

A

cerebral hemispheres
dienchephalon
brainstem
cerebellum

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12
Q

name the four lobes of the cerebral cortex and name their function

A

frontal lobe: motor control
parietal lobe: somatic sensory cortex
Occipital lobe: vision cortex
temporal lobe: auditory / speech centers

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13
Q

what is wernickes area and where is it located?

A

part of the brain that understands speech. it is located in the temporal lobe

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14
Q

what is brocas area and where is it located?

A

where motor control for speech happens. Technically located in frontal lobe but is connected to wernicke’s area via neural pathway

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15
Q

besides the different cerebral lobes, what 3 other areas are located in the cerebral hemishpers?

A

hippocampus
Amygdala
Basal Ganglia

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16
Q

what is the funcition of the hippocampus

A

memory and learning

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17
Q

what is the function of the amygdala?

A

emotion, apetite, responds to pain and stress

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18
Q

basal ganglia function? What two areas make it up?

A

fine control of movement

made up of caudate nucleus and globus pallidus

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19
Q

What makes up the diencephalon?

A

Thalamus
hypothalamus

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20
Q

thalamus function?

A

relay station to direct information

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21
Q

hypothalamus function?

A

primary neurohumoral organ

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22
Q

brainstem is made up of what?

A

midbrain
pons
reticular activating system
medulla

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23
Q

midbrain function

A

auditory and visual tracts

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24
Q

pons function

A

autonomic integration

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25
Q

reticular activating system function

A

consciousness , arousal, sleep

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26
Q

medulla function

A

autonomic integration

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27
Q

Cerebellum function

A

equilibrum, muscle tone, coordinate voluntary muscle movement

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28
Q

name the cranial nerves

A

“Oh Oh Oh To Touch And Feel Very Good Velvet Ah Ha”

Olfactory
Optic
Occulomotor
Trochlear
Trigeminal
Abducens
Facial
Vestibulocochlear
Glossopharyngeal
Vagus
Accessory
Hypoglossal

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29
Q

Which cranial nerves are sensory vs motor?

A

SOME say marry money but my bro says big boobs matter most

sensory
sensory
motor
motor
both
motor
both
sensory
both
both
motor
motor

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30
Q

name each mucscle and which cranial nerve it is controlled by

A

blue: CN3
Orange: CN4
Green: CN6

LR6SO4
Everythign else is CN3

Starting at orange moving clockwise:
superior oblique muscle
lateral rectus m.
inf. oblique m.
sup rectus m.
medial rectus m.
inf. rectus m.

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31
Q

are cranial nerves part of central nervous system or peripheral nervous system? What is the implication?

A

all are part of peripheral nervous system except CN 2 optic nerve.

CN2 is the only CN surrounded by Duramatter

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32
Q

what is another name for Tic Douloureux? what does it cause?

A

trigeminal neuralgia. Causes excrutiating pain in the face

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33
Q

which cranial nerves control eye movement?

A

CN 3 4 and 6

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34
Q

name the branches of the facial nerve

A

To Zanzibar By Motor Car

Temporal
Zygomatic
Buccal
Mandibular
Cervical

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35
Q

Bells Palsy occurs when which cranial nerve is damaged?

A

CN 7

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36
Q

parasympathetic outflow comes from which cranial nerves?

A

3 7 9 & 10

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37
Q

vagus nerve is responsible for what percentage of total parasympathetic activity?

A

75%

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38
Q

what restricts the passage of large molecules and ions into the brain?

A

Blood Brain Barrier

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39
Q

Blood brain barrier can become dysfunctional at site of:

A

tumors, injury, infection, or ischemia

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40
Q

what parts of the brian is the BBB not present?

A

chemoreceptor trigger zone
post. pituitary
pineal gland
choroid plexus
parts of hypothalamus

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41
Q

BBB is poorly developed in which patient population?

A

neonates

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42
Q

how much CSF is usually present in the body?

A

about 150ml

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43
Q

what is CSF specific gravity?

A

1.002-1.009

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44
Q

how much CSF is produced every hour?

A

about 30ml/hr

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45
Q

what is normal CSF pressure?

A

5-15mmHg

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46
Q

where is CSF reabsorbed?

A

arachnoid villi in the sup. saggittal sinus

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47
Q

describe the pathway of CSF flow in the brain

A

Love My 3 Silly 4 Lorn Magpies

lateral ventricles
Monro (foramen)
3rd ventricle
Sylvius (aqueduct)
4th venticle
lushka (foramen)
magendie (foramen)

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48
Q

what are the two types of hydrocephalus? which is most common?

A

obstructive (most common)
communicating hydrocephalus

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49
Q

what causes obstructive hydrocephalus?

A

CSF Flow obstruciton in ventricular system

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50
Q

what are the two types of communicating hydrocephalus? Which type is super rare?

A

deceased CSF absorption in arachnoid villi

overproduction of CSF (very rare)

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51
Q

describe the normal cerebral blood flow for each section of the brain:
global
cortical
subcortical

A

global: 45-55ml/100g brain tissue/min or 15% CO

cortical: 75-80ml/100g brain tissue/min

subcortical: 20ml/100g brain tissue/ min

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52
Q

Describe the three critical thresholds for global CBF

A

CBF about 20ml/100g/min = evidence of ischemia

CBF about 15ml/100g/min = complete cortical supression

CBF < 15ml/100g/min = membrane failure and cell death

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53
Q

what are the 5 determinants of CBF?

A
  1. CMRO2
  2. CPP
  3. PaCO2
  4. PaO2
  5. Venous Pressure
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54
Q

name each line on the graph

A

red ICP
Orange PaCO2
blue Pa02
green CPP

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55
Q

what is normal CMRO2?

A

3.0-3.8ml/O2/100g brain tissue/ min

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56
Q

how much brain oxygen is used for electrical activity vs cellular integrity? Can you decrease CMRO2 more than 60%?

A

60% electrical activity
40% cellular integrity

No, even if brain is silent it still has to consume O2 for cellular integrity

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57
Q

for every 1 degree celsius decrease in body temp CMRO2 decreases by what percent?

A

7%

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58
Q

EEG suppression occurs at what temperture?

A

18-20 degrees C

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59
Q

what things decrease CMRO2?

A

hypothermia
volatile anesthetics
propofol
etomidate
barbiturates

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60
Q

what things increase CMRO2?

A

hyperthermia
seizure
ketamine
nitrous oxide

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61
Q

At what point can an increased temp decrease CBF?

A

at greater than 42 degrees C proteins will denature and CBF will decrease

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62
Q

how can you improve outcomes post anoxic brain injury?

A

by decreasing CMRO2

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63
Q

you should cool post out of hopsital v-fib cardiac arrest patients to what temp for how long to improve outcomes?

A

cool to 32-34 degrees celsius for 12-24hours

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64
Q

Cerebral autoregulation occurs between what MAPs?

A

50-150 or 60-160

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65
Q

what happens to CBF when MAP is less than 50

A

max vasodilation
CBF becomes pressure dependent
risk of cerebral hypoperfusion

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66
Q

what happens to CBF when MAP > 150

A

max vasoconstriciton
CBF becomes pressure dependent
risk of cerebral edema and hemorrhage

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67
Q

cerebral autoreguation is usually controlled by what?

A

products of local metabolism
myogenic mechanism
autonomic innervation

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68
Q

what things can abolish cerebral auto regulation

A

intracranial tumor
head trauma
volatile anesthetics

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69
Q

CBF consideration in HTN

A

classic teaching: HTN shifts cerebral auto regulation curve to the right

modern teaching: HTN shrinks window of cerebral autoregulation

either way: patients with systemic HTN are at the greatest risk of cerebral ischemia during hypotension

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70
Q

CBF will increase or decrease by how much for changes in PaCO2?

A

for every 1mmHg increase in PaCO2 CBF ^ by 1-2ml/100gtissue/min

same for decrease by 1, CBF decreases by 1-2

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71
Q

Max vasodilation occurs at what PaCO2?

A

80-100

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72
Q

max vasoconstriction occurs at what PaCO2?

A

PaCO2 about 25

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73
Q

there is a blank relationship between PaCO2 and CBF

A

linear

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74
Q

how do resp acidosis/akolosis affect CBF?

A

resp acidosis increase CBF
resp alkolosis decreae CBF

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75
Q

how does metabolic acidosis / alkolosis affect CBF? Why?

A

no effect on CBF becuase H+ ions do not cross the BBB

How does it from resp acidosis though???

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76
Q

is inverse steal an effective way to aide perfusion is ischemic brian tissue?

A

No, hyperventilation induce vasoconstriction in an efford to re-direct blood flow to ischemic brain tissue has NOT been shown to produce a clinical benefit. furthermore this practice could cause harm form cerebral ischemia from not enough CBF

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77
Q

what is the best practice for PaCO2 during ischemia?

A

mainatain normocapnia or very mild hopcapnia

PaCO2 30-35

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78
Q

PaO2 < 50-60 has what effect on CBF?

A

causes cerebral vasodilation to increase CBF

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79
Q

PaO2 > 60 has what effect on CBF?

A

any PaCO2 > 60 has no effect on CBF. Think about the CBF graph

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80
Q

how does venous volume affect CBF?

A

increased venous pressure decreases venous drainage which can lead to increased cerebral volume

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81
Q

name some conditions that impair venous drainage

A

jugular compression from improper head position (head flexion in sitting position)

^ intrathoracic pressure PEEP or coughing

vena cava thrombosis

vena cava syndrome

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82
Q

Name each type of herniation. Which is most common site of transtentorial herniation?

A
  1. Cingulate
  2. central
  3. uncal
  4. cerebellotonsilar
  5. upward
  6. transcalvarial

uncal is most common site of transtentorial herniation

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83
Q

how does uncal herniation manifest clinically? why?

A

with fixed dilated pupil.

this is because CN 3 crosses near tentorium and becomes compressed by the uncal herniation

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84
Q

what is psuedotumor cerebri?

A

idopathic intracranial HTN

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85
Q

Normal ICP

A

5-15

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86
Q

intracranial hyptension

A

> 20

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87
Q

gold standard to meaurse ICP

A

intraventricular catheter

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88
Q

other methods to meausre ICP

A

subdural bolt

catheter over convexity of cerebral cortex

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89
Q

ICP measurement is indicated in what glasgow score?

A

< or equal to 7

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90
Q

S/S of intracranial HTN

A

Headache
N/V
papilledema
pupil dilation and non-reactivity to light
focal neurologic deficit
seizure
coma

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91
Q

explain the Monroe-Kellie Hypothesis. What is one way to cope with increasing ICP?

A

brain blood and CSF are contained in the skull. IF one increases another must decrease or else pressure will rise.

CSF can be shunted into spinal column to mitigate rise in intracranial pressure up to a certain point

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92
Q

explain the deadly cycle that begins with increased ICP

A

^ICP > cerebral ischemia > decreased CPP > more ischemia

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93
Q

What are the three things that make up Cushing’s triad and explain how this is caused

A
  1. HTN
  2. bradycardia
  3. irregular respirations

An increased ICP leads to decreased CPP

Body tries to cope by increasing BP, which activates baroreceptors leading to bradycardia.

^ICP causes medulla compression leading to irregular respirations

94
Q

List the 4 ways to treat increased ICP

A
  1. decrease CBV
  2. Decrease CSF
  3. Decrease cerebral edmea
  4. decrease cerebral mass
95
Q

list ways to decrease CBV

A

mild hyperventialtion
avoid hypoxemia
avoid vasodilators
use vasoconstritors
elevate HOB to 30 degrees
avoid neck flexion
decrease intrathoracic pressure

96
Q

how long do effects of hyperventilation last in regards to increaesed ICP? why?

A

6-20 hours because at this point pH of CSF equilibriates with PaCO2

97
Q

even in traumatized brain the brain usually still maintains reactivity to

98
Q

how can you decreaes CSF? what medications can be used for this?

A

drain with VP shunt or intraventricular catheter

lasix or acetazolamide also decrease CSF production

98
Q

list two anesthetic drugs that are considered cerebral vasoconstrictors

A

propofol and thiopental considered to be vasoconstrictors because they decrease CMRO2

99
Q

how can you decrease cerebral edema?

A

diuretics and steroids

100
Q

how do you decrase cerebral mass?

A

surgical debulking or hematoma evacuation

101
Q

mannitol is a blank diuretic

102
Q

is hypertonic saline considered a diuretic?

103
Q

what happens is mannitol given when BBB is compromised

A

it will enter brain and cause cerebral edema

104
Q

which two steroids can be used to decrease cerebral edema from mass lesions

A

decadron methylprednisolone

105
Q

when thinking about neuro stuff and corticosteroids, what must you not forget about an effect of corticosteroids?

A

corticosteroids cause hyperglycemai and hyperglycemia is associted with worse outcomes in the setting of cerebral ischemia

106
Q

are steroids also used for spinal cord injuries?

107
Q

what neuro conditions must steroids be avoided?

A

TBI and functional pituitary adenoma

108
Q

Name the vessells

A

Better know em!

109
Q

Is the pink ant. or post. cerebral ciruclation? Name the vessells

110
Q

is the yellow ant or post cerebral circulation? name the vessells

111
Q

name the vessells

A

Orange: ant cerebral a.
purple: middle cerebral a.
green: post. cerebral a.

112
Q

cerebral aterial ciruclation can be divided into blank and blank which converge at the blank

A

ant and post converge at circle of willis

113
Q

anterior cerebral circulation is fed by the blank. they enter skull through the

A

internal carotid arteries
enter through foramen lacerum

114
Q

post cerebral circulation is fed by blank and enter skull through the

A

vertebral arteries and enter through foramen magnum

115
Q

Name the venous structures

116
Q

cerebral cortex and cerebellum blood drains via

A

sup sagittal sinus and dural sinuses

117
Q

basal brain structures blood drains via

A

inf. sagittal sinus, vein of galen, and straight sinus

118
Q

blood flow from cerebral cortex and cerebellum converges with blood from basal brain structures at what point?

A

confluence of sinuses

119
Q

all blood exits skull through:

A

paired jugular veins

120
Q

ischemic strokes are usually caused by…

A

thromboembolic events like afib

121
Q

what is a transient ischemic attack?

A

a mini stroke. focal neurologic deficit that spontaneously resolves within 24hrs.

it is a sign warning sign of cerebrovascular dz and impending stroke

122
Q

list risk factors for ischemic stroke, which one is the most important?

A

HTN (most important)
smoking
DM
HLD
excessive alcohol intake
elevated homo-cysteine level

123
Q

acute mgmt for ischemic stroke

A

emergent Non contrast CT
immediate evaluation of airway reflexes and ventilation (most still just need supplemental oxygen though)
PO aspirin
IV thrombolytic within 4.5 hours for eligible patient
embolectomy within 6hrs for elegible patient with large vein occlusion

124
Q

why do you get non contrast CT with ischemic stroke?

A

it will reliably detect hemorrage within the first few hours, so if no bleeding you can rule that out and know most likely suffered ischemic stroke

125
Q

why is HTN common post CVA? what should BP target be?

A

HTN supports CPP
targe BP < 185/110

126
Q

why should you give fluids post ischemic stroke?

A

supports BP, CO, CPP, and CBF by decreasing viscosity

127
Q

what happens to glucose durign cerebral hypoxia?

A

glucose gets converted to lactic acid
cerebral acidosis leads to destroyed brain tissue and brain outcomes

must monitor and treat serum glucose during ischemic stroke

128
Q

What is the most common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A

aneurysm rupture

129
Q

where do most cerebral aneurysms arise?

A

circle of willis

130
Q

arterial bleedings is usually subarachnoid or subdural?

A

subarachnoid

131
Q

venous bleeding is usually subarachnoid or subdural?

132
Q

how do you calculate cerebral transmural pressure?

133
Q

increase transmural pressure causes increased risk of…

A

aneurysm rupture

134
Q

what is most common symptom of SAH?

A

intense headache “worse headache of my life”

135
Q

Mobidity from SAH is associated with three key things

A
  1. obstructive hydrocephalus
  2. re-bleeding
  3. Vasospasm
136
Q

what are the surgical treatment options for SAH?

A

aneurysm clipping or endovascular clipping

137
Q

how soon should surgical repair take place following SAH?

A

24-48 hrs after initial bleed

138
Q

what medication will patient need if an endovascular coil is placed?

A

heparinization

139
Q

what medication should should you immediately give if SAH ruptures during surgery? What is the dose?

A

protamine 1mg per 100u heparin

140
Q

intraop BP goal during SAH surgery

A

SBP 120-150

141
Q

meticulous BP control during blank and blank is critical if patient has an aneurysm

A

induction and intubation

142
Q

anesthetic treatment goals for aneurysm rupture during induction or intubation

A

decrease ICP and maintain CPP

143
Q

when does cerebral vasospams occur?

A

delayed contraction of cerebral artery post SAH that can lead to cerebral infarct

144
Q

How can SAH lead to vasospasm?

A

Hgb that contacts outside of cerebral arteries increase risk of vasospasm

145
Q

there is a blank correlation between ammount of blood seen on CT with SAH and incidine of vasospasm

146
Q

gold standar to diagnose cerebral vasospasm

A

cerebral angiography

147
Q

Cerebral vasospasm treatment

A

increase MAP to 20-30 above baseline

triple H: (basically just give fluids)
hypertension
hypervolemia
hemodilution (Hct 27-32, but little evidence for this)

148
Q

what is the only CCB shown to decreae M&M from vasospasm? how does it work?

A

Nimodipine

it doesn’t dilate the spasm, but increases collateral flow

149
Q

medicants to consider for medically refractory cerebral vasospams

A

verapamil
nicardipine
papaverine
milrinone

150
Q

treatment for vasospasm that doesn’t resolve with any medication?

A

balloon angioplasty

151
Q

what is cerebral salt wasting syndrome?

A

brain releases BNP which causes diuresis and sodium wasting

152
Q

cerebral salt wasting treatmetn

A

isotonic crystalloids

153
Q

cerebral salt wasting syndrome vs SIADH

A

SIADH presents with euvolemia or slightly hypervolemic and the treatment is fluid restriction

154
Q

hyponatremia is most commonly caused by?

A

Cerebral salt wasting syndrome

155
Q

Initial considerations for TBI

A

C-spine stabilization
airway protection
optimize hemodynamics
cerebral protection

156
Q

what imaging should you get with TBI and why?

A

Head CT to rapidly determine if bleeding.

likely don’t need this if pt is totally neurologically intact and less than 60yrs old

157
Q

GCS < X is consisent with TBI and an indication for intubation and mechanical ventilation?

158
Q

when managing TBI what are your priorities as anesthesia provider?

A

ABCs first then, manage ICP

159
Q

which patient population is uniquely challenging with head tramua?

A

anticoagulated patient

160
Q

how can you reverse warfarin?

A

FFP
prothrombin complex concentrate
recombinant factor 7a

161
Q

how can you reverse plavix?

A

platelets
some evidence that recombinant factor 7a can be used as well

162
Q

intra-op anesthetic mgmt in TBI

A

keep MAP >70
decrease ICP
avoid prolonged hyperventilation
avoid steroids as they worsen neurologic outcomes
avoide nitrous oxide

163
Q

which fluids should you use / avoid in TBI?

A

Use:
hypertonic saline: it restores intravascular volume and decreases brain water

avoid:
hypotonic fluids: increase cerebral edema
glucose containing solutions (only give glucose in hypoglycemic)
albumin is linked to poor outcomes

164
Q

why avoid N20 in TBI?

A

you may not know if pneumothorax is present until after intubation and initiation of PPV, N20 can rapidly expand pneumothorax or cause pneumocephalus

165
Q

what is a partial/focal seizure?

A

seizure activity is localized to a particular cortical region

166
Q

what is generalized seizure?

A

seizure activity affects both hemispheres

167
Q

what is jacksonian march?

A

when a partial seizure advances to generalized seizure

168
Q

what is tonic phase of seizure?

A

whole body rigidity

169
Q

what is clonic phase of seizure?

A

repetitive jerking motions

170
Q

what is grandmal seizure?

A

generalized tonic-clonic activity

171
Q

grandmal seizure acute treatment?

A

propofol, diazepam, thiopental

172
Q

surgical tx of grandmal seizure

A

vagal n. stimulator or resection of foci

173
Q

what happens with focal cortical seizure

A

localized to particular cortical region
usually no loss of consciousness

174
Q

what happens during absence / petit mal seizure? more common in which patient population?

A

temporary loss of consciousness but remains awake

more common in children

175
Q

what happens with akinetic seizure?
more common in what patient population

A

temp loss of consciousness and postural tone

can lead to fall and head injury

more common in children

176
Q

what is status epilepticus?

A

seizure activity that lasts > 30min
Or
2 grandmal seizures with no regaining consciousness between

177
Q

actue tx for status epilepticus?

A

phenobarbital, thiopental, phenytoin, benzos, propofol, even GA

178
Q

impact of inhaled anesthetics on seizures?

A

have been implicated in causing seizures, but produce dose-dependent EEG supression

179
Q

what are S/S of seizure when occuring under GA?

A

tachycardia
HTN
increasing EtCO2

180
Q

can etomidate cause seizures?

A

commonly causes myoclonus, but this is not associated with increased EEG activity unless they have epilepsy

181
Q

which medications can be used to increase EEG activity in patients with seizure disorder in order to locate seizure foci during cortical maping?

A

methohexital
etomidate
alfentanil

182
Q

can atracurium cause seizures?

A

it’s metabolite is laudanosine which is a proconvulsant. this is only an issue in ICU with atracurium drip though

183
Q

can cisatracurium cause seizures?

A

it also produces laudanosine like atracurium but produces much less

184
Q

can meperidine cause seizures?

A

yes, because normeperidine can cause seizures

185
Q

how to LAs affect seizure activity?

A

LAs decrease seizure threshold but properly executed regional does NOT increase risk of seizures.

186
Q

Name anticonvulsant medications that work by blocking voltage gated sodium channels therby causing membrane stabalization

A

phenytoin
valporic acid
carbmazepine

187
Q

which anticonvulsant medications inhibit voltage gated calcium channels in CNS > decreased neurotransmitter release?

A

gabapentin
pregabalin

188
Q

which anticonvulsants cause hepatic enzyme induction. What is the main clinical consideration of this effect?

A

phenytoin
carbmazepine

NDNMB resistance

189
Q

which anticonvulsants cause hepatic enzyme inhibition?

What is the main clinical consideration of this effect?

A

valporic acid

slows phenytoin metabolism

190
Q

Phenytoin SE

A

dysrhythmias
Hypotension
gingival hyperplasia
aplastic anemia
nystagmus / ataxia
steven-johnson syndrome
birth defects

extravasion > purple glove syndrome

191
Q

which medication eliminates the risk of purple glove syndrome from phenytoin?

A

fosphenytoin

192
Q

valporic acid SE

A

hepatotoxicity
thrombocytopenia
displace phenytoin from plasma proteins

193
Q

other than anticonvulsant effects, what is another use of carbmazepine?

A

trigeminal neuraliga

194
Q

carbazepine SE

A

aplastic anemia
thrombocytopenia
liver dysfunction
leukopenia
ADH like effects

195
Q

how are gabapentin and pregabalin metabolized?

A

excreted unchanged by kidneys

196
Q

most common SE of gabapentin and pregabalin?

A

dizziness
somnolence

197
Q

when can gabapentin and pregabalin cause resp depression?

A

when combined with opiods

198
Q

why should you taper gabapentin and pregabalin as opposed to abrupt withdrawl?

A

abrupt withdrawl can cause seizure in patients with a hx of seizures

199
Q

conditions gabapentin / pregabalin are usefeful for besides anticonvulsants effects?

A

diabetic neuropathy
postherpetic neuraliga
reflex sympathetic dystrophy

200
Q

describe pathophys of alzheimers dz

A

diffuse beta amyloid rich plaques and neurofibrillary tangles in teh brain that lead to dysfunctional synaptic transmission and apoptosis

201
Q

how can you treat alzheimers?

A

restore Ach concentration in the brain

202
Q

what medications are used to treat alzheimers

A

cholinesterase inhibtiors
tacrine
donepezil
riristigmine
galantamine

203
Q

anesthetic mgmt of patients with alzheimers

A

poor candidates for MAC because they are often scared, confused, and uncooperative

use short acting drugs

avoid pre-op sedation

cholinesterase inhibitors incrase DOA of sux (this is debatable as to if actually clinically significant or not)

can get parasympathetic symptoms for their anticholinesterase medication (bradyardia, syncope, N/V)

if you have to use anticholinergic glycopyrrolate is best because no crossing BBB

204
Q

which two inhaled anesthetics increase beta-amyloid production?

A

halothane and isoflurane

205
Q

explain pathophys of parkinsons dz

A

chronic neurodegeneration of basal ganglia

dopaminergic neurons in basal ganglia are destroyed

relative increase in cholinergic activity > increased GABA in thalamus > cortical motor system supressed > increased activity of extrapyramidal system

206
Q

main treatment for parkinsons dz and how it works

A

levodopa and carbidopa

levodopa gets converted to dopamine but dopamine in the blood doesn’t enter CNS.

carbidope prevents levodopa breakdown so more levodopa can enter CNS

207
Q

another medication to treat parkinsons besides levodopa/carbidopa

A

selegine

MAO-B inhibitor. decreases dopamine metabolism in CNS so more DA is available

208
Q

should pt with parkinsons take levodopa/carbidopa DOS? What is the DOA and associted anesthetic consideration?

A

yes. if not risk of muscle rigidity that can impair ventilation.

lasts 2-6 hours and my need to redose through OG for long procedure

209
Q

which drugs are contraindicated in parkinsons dz?

A

antidopaminergics:

metoclopramide

butyrophenones (Haldol, droperidol)

promethazine

210
Q

is diphendyramine okay in parkinsons dz?

A

yes, it has anticholinergic properties which can help

211
Q

how can alfentanil affect parkinsons dz?

A

it can disrupt central dopaminergic transmission

212
Q

is ketamine okay in parkinsons dz?

A

contraversial becaues of potential SNS effects

213
Q

are sux and NDNMB okay in parkinsons dz?

214
Q

anesthetic considerations for Deep brain stimulator for parkinsons dz

A

may want to hold levodopa/carbidopa to make symptoms worse for better lead placement

pt head in rigid frame can complicated airway mgmt

pt needs to be awake for electrode placement, okay to give precedex or opioids though

avoid GABA agonists (propofol and versed) can interfere with electrophysiologic brain monitoring in the thalamus

sitting position ^ risk of VAE. flood field with saline if VAE occurs.

keep SBP < 140

seizure can be treated with small dose of propofol, barbiturate or benzo

215
Q

what is the most common peri-op opthalamic complication

A

corneal abrasion

216
Q

how do you diagnose corneal abrasion

A

fluorescin stain to pt eye and then look at eye with cobalt blue pen light

217
Q

when should you consult opthamologist for corneal abraison?

A

if severe pain present

218
Q

what is the best way to prevent corneal abrasion?

A

eye tape.
eye lube is contraversial

219
Q

how long before corneal abraision gets better?

A

usually self limitting and healed within 1-3 days

220
Q

is ischemic optic neuropathy a nerve or vascular problem?

221
Q

what is the most common cause of post-op vision loss

222
Q

Is Ant. ION or Post. ION associated with a swollen optic disc?

223
Q

when does ION usually present?

A

24-48hr post op and is not painful

224
Q

after what procedure is ION most common?

A

spine surgery in prone position

225
Q

what is CRAO?

A

central retinal artery occlusion

226
Q

is CRAO nerve or vascular problem?

227
Q

how does CRAO present?

A

sudden painless vision loss on emergene

228
Q

what is most common cause of CRAO?

A

horseshoe head rest in prone position

229
Q

what are three things that can cause CRAO

A

improper head position that impairs venous outflow

embolism

N20 use after intraocular gas bubble placement