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the best Flashcards

1
Q

with surfactant and bulk lax’s and lactulose relieve constipation within 1-__ days

A

3

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2
Q

stimulant lax’s relieve constipation in 6- __ hours

A

12

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3
Q

at a __ dose, lax salts like Mg hydroxide relive constipation in 6-12 hours

A

low

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4
Q

at a __ dose, lax salts like Mg hydroxide relive constipation in 2-6 hours

A

high

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5
Q

osmotic lax’s like miralax, PEG, and glycolax relive constipation in 2-__ days

A

4

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6
Q

when you are on fiber supplements and have low fluid intake, the risk is to __ the constipation

A

worsen

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7
Q

the important nursing considerations related to care of the patient with persistent diarrhea are

think stop taking ___ softeners

A

stop taking stool softneners

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8
Q

the important nursing considerations related to care of the patient with persistent diarrhea are

think heed what reflex and est a what schedule

A

heed poop reflex and est poop schedule

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9
Q

the important nursing considerations related to care of the patient with persistent diarrhea are

think electrolyte ___, dehydration, and skin care due to what breakdown

A

electrolyte imbalance, dehyrdration, and skin care due to risk of breakdown

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10
Q

milk of Mg hydroxide is a lax salt. true or false?

A

true

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11
Q

milk of Mg hydroxide is a ____ lax

A

osmotic

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12
Q

you can use milk of Mg hydroxide for constipation at a low or high dose?

A

low

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13
Q

you can use milk of Mg hydroxide for colonoscopy prep at a low or high dose?

A

high

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14
Q

you can use milk of Mg hydroxide for antacid and to ___ parasites

A

rid

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15
Q

milk of ___ hydroxide have ADR of cramps and diarrhea

A

Mg

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16
Q

milk of ___ hydroxide have ADR of dehydration and CNS toxicity with renal disease

A

Mg

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17
Q

milk of ___ hydroxide have interventions of increasing fluid intake to avoid dehydration

A

Mg

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18
Q

milk of __ hyrdoxide is given oral

A

Mg

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19
Q

with milk of Mg ____ you need to get a lax use history

A

hydroxide

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20
Q

milk of __ hydroxide have contraindications of bowel disorders and UC

A

MG

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21
Q

milk of __ hydroxide have contraindications of diverticulitis and renal disease

A

Mg

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22
Q

milk of __ hydroxide have contraindications of toxic Mg levels due to not excreting it

A

Mg

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23
Q

sulfasazine are for IBS. t or f?

A

true

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24
Q

sulfasazine is a 5-aminoalicylate. t or f?

A

true

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25
Q

use sulfasazine for IBS/UC and to manage Chron’s ___

A

disease

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26
Q

sulfasalazine have ADR of headache and nausea. t or F?

A

true

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27
Q

sulfasalazine have ADR of rash and fever. t or f?

A

true

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28
Q

sulfasalazine have ADR of arthralgia and blood disorders(mon blood count). t or f?

A

true

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29
Q

sulfasalazine have ADR of anaphylaxis and angioedema. t or f?

A

true

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30
Q

sulfasalazine have ADR of peripheral neuropathy and anorexia. t or f?

A

true

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31
Q

sulfasalazine have ADR of SJS and dermatits. t or f?

A

ture

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32
Q

the cardiac effects of Beta 1 receptor stimulus are to _____ heart rate, conduction rate and contractility and CO and renin release and PVD and decrease the calcium going into the cells

A

reduce

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33
Q

the peripheral blood vessel effects of Alpha 1 receptor stimulus are ____ arterioles and veins, blood cant get to the periphery, increase peripheral resistance, increase venous heart return

A

constrict

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34
Q

the BB are dangerous to pts bc they cause ___ hypotension and OH

A

extreme

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35
Q

the consumption of grapefruit or grapefruit juice affect Nifedipine by ___ levels of drug and lead to toxicity and give you reflex TC

A

increasing

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36
Q

low BP, high BP, flushing are signs of toxicity. t or f?

A

true

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37
Q

If toxic-give NE, fluids, _____ Trendelburg, Ca to decrease contractility, atrophine or isoproterenol for BC with fruit and nifedipine

A

reverse

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38
Q

health promotion for a good bladder are to be hydrated and to not limit fluid if incontinent. t or f?

A

true

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39
Q

keep good voiding habits like flat feet and sit back on toilet . t or f?

A

true

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40
Q

keep a bowel schedule and prevent UTI to keep a good bladder. t or f?

A

true

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41
Q

dont smoke and reduce cough to prevent incontinence. t or f?

A

true

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42
Q

surgery for bladder are dialysis and to relieve urinary retention . t or f?

A

true

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43
Q

surgery for bladder are removing renal calculi and nephrectomy. t or f?

A

true

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44
Q

surgery for bladder are prostate surgery and bladder surgery and urinary diversion. t or f?

A

true

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45
Q

bladder interventions are to reduce weight and bladder irritatants(caffeine, aspirtatme, and citrus) . t or f?

A

true

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46
Q

bladder interventions are to schedule toileting, habit retraining, and prompted or timed voiding . t or f?

A

true

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47
Q

bladder interventions are kegals and electrical stimulation and vaginal weight training. t or f?

A

true

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48
Q

bladder interventions are IV devices, pads and external collection devices . t or f?

A

true

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49
Q

bowel interventions are colectomy, colostomy or ileostomy. t or f?

A

true

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50
Q

bowel interventions are rectal prolapse repair and hemorrhoidectomy. t or f?

A

true

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51
Q

collab interventions to optimize elimination are surgery and incontinence. t or f?

A

true

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52
Q

collab interventions to optimize elimination are pharmacological agents and to treat the underlying condition. t or f?

A

true

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53
Q

secondary interventions to optimize elimination are colonoscopy and blood occult and prostate cancer screening.t or f?

A

true

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54
Q

primary interventions to optimize elimination are environmental factors and good hydration. t or f?

A

true

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55
Q

primary interventions to optimize elimination are fiber, exercise and toileting schedule . t or f?

A

true

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56
Q

absent stool, discomfort and hard and dry stool are CM Of

A

constipation

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57
Q

ab distension and bloating are CM of

A

constipation

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58
Q

increased gas and rectal pressure are CM of

A

constipation

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59
Q

__ can be caused by stool retention

A

constipation

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60
Q

impaction is when there is ___ transit time and decreased sensation to defacation

A

increased

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61
Q

impaction has to do with rentention. t or f?

A

true

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62
Q

incontinence has ____ anal sphincter tone and nerve supply to rectal area

A

decreased

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63
Q

fecal incontinence have to do with diarrhea, cramping due to peristalsis. t or f?

A

true

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64
Q

fecal incontinence have to do with loss of sphincter control and bc of cognitive changes. t or f?

A

true

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65
Q

fecal incontinence are bc of injury, rectum changes or neurologic injury. t or f?

A

true

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66
Q

urine rentention is unintentional and imcomplete or unable to empty. t or f?

A

true

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67
Q

urine retention is in women if stool is pressing against bladder. t or f?

A

true

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68
Q

urine retention is when you take antidepressants or antihistamines. t or f?

A

true

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69
Q

urine retention is ass with pain, bladder infection, and bladder distension. t or f?

A

true

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70
Q

bladder distension can lead to urinary reflux and can dilate the ureters and renal pelvis and can lead to pyelonephritis and renal atrophy. t or f?

A

true

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71
Q

a backflow of urine from the bladder into the ureters is

A

urinary reflux

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72
Q

urine incontinence is loss of urine control. t or f?

A

true

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73
Q

urine incontinence is a disruption of emptying or storing the bladder with involuntary urine release and ass with spinchter dysfunction. t or f?

A

true

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74
Q

urine incontinence is ass with increased skin breakdown. t or f?

A

true

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75
Q

stress incontinence is leakage of urine during cough, sneeze, exercise. t or f?

A

true

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76
Q

urge incontinence is leaking larger amts of urine like in sleep(unexpected). t or f?

A

true

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77
Q

functional incontinence is untimely urination bc of disability, obstacles, or cognitive problems that prevent us from reaching toilet. t or f?

A

true

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78
Q

overflow incontinence is unexecpected leakage of small urine amts of urine bc of full bladder. t or f?

A

true

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79
Q

mixed incontinence is stress and urge incontinence . t or f?

A

true

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80
Q

transient incontinence is leakage that is temporary bc of infection, new med, colds with coughing. t or f?

A

true

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81
Q

overactive bladder is frequency and urgency with or without incontinence. t or f?

A

true

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82
Q

UTI’s have nausea and vomit. t or f?

A

true

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83
Q

UTI’s have chills and suprapubic and low back pain. t or f?

A

true

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84
Q

UTI’s have bladder spasms and dysuria. t or f?

A

true

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85
Q

UTI’s have burning pee and frequency. t or f?

A

true

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86
Q

UTI’s have urgency, hesitation and noctura. t or f?

A

true

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87
Q

UTI’s are common in preg women, females and old ppl. t or f?

A

true

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88
Q

UTI’s can cause sepsis and death esp in elderly. t or f?

A

true

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89
Q

risks for urine incontinence are advanced age and female. t or f?

A

true

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90
Q

risks for urine incontinence are menopause or multiparity. t or f?

A

true

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91
Q

risks for urine incontinence are obese and smoking. t or f?

A

true

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92
Q

risks for urine incontinence are impaired mobility and trauma/surgery. t or f?

A

true

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93
Q

risks for urine incontinence are impaired cognition and stroke/spinal injury/brain tumor(neuro issues). t or f?

A

true

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94
Q

risks for urine retention are age and male. t or f?

A

true

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95
Q

risks for urine retention are prostate enlargement/inflammation/infection. t or f?

A

true

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96
Q

risks for urine retention are pelvic mass and trauma/surgery. t or f?

A

true

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97
Q

risks for urine retention are meds like anticholinergics, sympathomimetics. t or f?

A

true

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98
Q

risks for fecal retention are age and female. t or f?

A

true

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99
Q

risks for fecal retention are preg and lower income. t or f?

A

true

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100
Q

risks for fecal retention are poor edu and sedentary. t or f?

A

true

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101
Q

risks for fecal retention are dehydration and IBS/depression. t or f?

A

true

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102
Q

risks for fecal retention are meds like: opioids, diuretics, antidepressants, and aluminum antacids. t or f?

A

true

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103
Q

risks for fecal incontinence are age, diarrhea and impaired mobility. t or f?

A

true

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104
Q

risks for fecal incontinence are injury, chronic conditions, and rectal neuropathway. t or f?

A

true

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105
Q

risks for constipation are low fiber and low exercise. t or f?

A

true

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106
Q

risks for constipation are ignoring poop need bc the muscles and mucosa become insensitive. t or f?

A

true

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107
Q

risks for constipation are anxiety, depression, and stress. t or f?

A

true

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108
Q

risks for constipation are opioids/narcotics and laxatives. t or f?

A

true

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109
Q

risks for constipation are slow peristalsis and anorectal dysfunction. t or f?

A

true

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110
Q

bladder risks are old age bc urethra muscles are weak and it leads to incontinence. t or f?

A

true

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111
Q

The excretion of waste from the body is

A

Elimination

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112
Q

Passage of stool thru GI tract and thru smooth muscle contraction is bowel elimination. T or f?

A

True

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113
Q

Urinary elimination is urine thru the urinary sphincter and urethra. T or f?

A

True

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114
Q

removal , separation, or clearance of matter is elimnation. T or f?

A

true

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115
Q

the process of excreting the waste products of digestion is elimination. T or f?

A

true

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116
Q

anuria is the absence of urine. T or f?

A

true

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117
Q

dysuria is painful pee. T or f?

A

true

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118
Q

polyuria is multiple pee episodes like with DM. T or f?

A

true

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119
Q

urine frequency is multiple pee episodes with little pee. T or f?

A

true

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120
Q

urinary hesitency is the urge to pee but its hard to start peeing. T or f?

A

true

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121
Q

with the peeing the process is …

A

Urine formed in the renal tubules moves into the collecting duct and then into the renal pelvis, the ureter, and the bladder, where it is stored until urination occurs. An internal sphincter, composed of smooth muscle, contracts involuntarily to prevent urine from leaking out of the bladder. The external sphincter, located just below the internal sphincter and surrounding the upper part of the urethra, is composed of skeletal muscle and is voluntarily controlled. this causes the internal sphincter muscles to relax and bladder wall contraction

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122
Q

the kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra are in the urinary system. t or f?

A

true

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123
Q

peeing helps maintain homeostasis and regulation. t or f?

A

true

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124
Q

the 3 components to making pee is glomerular filtration, tubular reabsorption, and tubular secretion. t or f?

A

true

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125
Q

digestion and stool formation have to do with bowel formation. t or f?

A

true

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126
Q

the two functions of the bowel is to breakdown nutrients and eliminate waste. t or f?

A

true

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127
Q

the GI system extends from the esophagus to anus. t or f?

A

true

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128
Q

the esophagus, stomach, SI, liver, gallbladder, and pancreas all do digestion and absorption. t or f?

A

true

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129
Q

in the colon is where the waste is formed. t or f?

A

true

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130
Q

smooth muscles in the intestinal tract stimulate peristalsis, which move things in your system. t or f?

A

true

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131
Q

the LI absorbs water and electrolytes as fecal matter. t or f?

A

true

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132
Q

mucus in the intestine helps lubricate the walls and aids in the expulsion of the stool. t or f?

A

true

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133
Q

slower peristalsis is reduced, matter goes thru intestines slow and has greater absorption of water and thus harder stool. t or f?

A

true

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134
Q

pooping is a reflex action of voluntary or involuntary control. t or f?

A

true

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135
Q

CO is the outcome of coordinated effects of factors that move blood thruout the heart into peripheral vessels. t or f?

A

true

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136
Q

CO=SV x HR . t or f?

A

true

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137
Q

CO has BP as a function. t or f?

A

true

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138
Q

pain with PAD happens at night bc CO drops in sleep and limbs are at heart level. t or f?

A

true

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139
Q

prolonged ischemia leads to skin and muscle atrophy. t or f?

A

true

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140
Q

prolonged ischemia leads to delayed healing and tissue necrosis. t or f?

A

true

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141
Q

prolonged ischemia leads to wound healing. t or f?

A

true

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142
Q

prolonged ischemia lead to nonhealing arterial ulcers and gangrene. it can result in amputation bc of bad blood flow. if blood flow is not fixed, infection occurs ass with pain and spreading. t or f?

A

true

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143
Q

the goal with PAD is to reduce CVD risk and get BP control. t or f?

A

true

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144
Q

reduce Na and use a DASH diet for PAD. t or f?

A

true

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145
Q

with PAD, stop smoking and get Hb below 7% like with DM. t or f?

A

true

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146
Q

with PAD, treat hyperlipidemia with diet and statins. t or f?

A

true

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147
Q

with intermittent claudation, you walk to the point of pain then you rest. try to walk for 30-45 min 3 times a week. t or f?

A

true

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148
Q

with PAD, women have a faster decline and mobility loss than men. t or f?

A

true

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149
Q

with PAD, daily exercise can increase survival rates. t or f?

A

true

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150
Q

with PAD, you want to do ambulatory care like doing daily feet inspection, round shoes with soft soles with lightly laced, and to teach how to check skin temps/cap refill/palpate pulses. t or f?

A

true

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151
Q

with PAD, complications are prolonged ischemia. t or f?

A

true

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152
Q

intermittent claudication is ass with PAD. t or f?

A

true

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153
Q

with HTN, you take the meds for life and take the BP and HR bf each dose. t or f?

A

true

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154
Q

with HTN, you want to mon daily weight and start at a low dose and increase it gradually. t or f?

A

true

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155
Q

with HTN, you decrease the dose of AH drugs after one year and dont go cold turkey. t or f?

A

true

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156
Q

with HTN, continue lifestyle modifications like having a BMI of 18.5-25 and keeping sodium below 2300mg/day. t or f?

A

true

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157
Q

with HTN, use a DASH diet and eat fruits/veggies/low fat dairy/whole grains/nuts/fish/poultry. t or f?

A

true

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158
Q

with HTN, limit 1 drink for W and 2 for M AND do 30-45 min of exercise a day AND stop smoking. t or f?

A

true

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159
Q

stop smoking and diet are a primary prevention for perfusion. t or f?

A

true

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160
Q

exercise and weight control are a primary prevention for perfusion. t or f?

A

true

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161
Q

BP screening are secondary preventions for perfusions. t or f?

A

true

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162
Q

treat the underlying condition and do diet modification are collab interventions for perfusion. t or f?

A

true

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163
Q

do pharmacotherapy and increase exercise to collab treat perfusion. t or f?

A

true

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164
Q

intermittent claudication and paresthesia are CM of PAD. t or f?

A

true

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165
Q

T or f? Paresthesia is a CM of PAD?

A

True

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166
Q

Reduced blood flow to the limb is a CM of PAD. T or f？

A

True

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167
Q

Pain at rest and critical limb ischemia are CM of PAD. T or f？

A

True

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168
Q

T or f？ PAD has thickening of the artery walls and narrowing of the upper and lower extremities.

A

True

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169
Q

T or f？ PAD is symptomatic from ages 60-80.

A

True

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170
Q

T or f？PAD has a strong prevalence in the blacks and shows earlier in DM

A

True

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171
Q

T or f？ PAD is related to CVD and the risk factors.

A

True

172
Q

T or f？PAD has a higher risk of mortality, CVD mortality, and coronary events & stroke.

A

True

173
Q

T or f？you see artherosclerosis with PAD

A

True

174
Q

T or f？ atherosclerosis affects coronary, carotid an lower extremity arteries.

A

True

175
Q

T or f？atherosclerosis thickens due to cholesterol and lipid deposits.

A

True

176
Q

T or f？ atherosclerosis has to do with inflammation and endothelial injury.

A

True

177
Q

T or f？muscle pain caused by exercise and due to lactic acid buildup is intermittent Claudication

A

True

178
Q

T or f？intermittent claudication resolves in 10 min or less and is reproducible

A

True

179
Q

T or f？ numbing and tingling of toes/feet from nerve tissue ischemia is paresthesia

A

True

180
Q

T or f？neuropathy causes severe shooting or burning pain with paresthesia

A

True

181
Q

T or f？paresthesia produces loss of pressure and deep pain sensations from reduced blood flow to limbs

A

True

182
Q

T or f？ the paresthesia injuries often go unnoticed.

A

True

183
Q

T or f？with reduced blood flow to limbs…you see thin, shiny and taut skin

A

True

184
Q

T or f？ with reduced blood flow to limbs you see loss of hair on the lower legs

A

True

185
Q

T or f？ with reduced blood flow to limbs, you see absent pedal, popliteal, or femoral pulses

A

True

186
Q

T or f？with reduced blood flow to limbs, you see foot pallor with leg elevation.

A

True

187
Q

T or f？with reduced blood flow to limb, you see reactive hyperemia of the floor with dependent position

A

True

188
Q

T or f？you see pain at rest with PAD due to feet and toes being elevated

A

True

189
Q

T or f？you see pain at rest with PAD due to low blood flow to distal tissues and happens more at night and gravity helps the pain relief.

A

True

190
Q

T or f？CLI has no healing ulcers or gangrene

A

True

191
Q

T or f？CLI has increased risk/prevalence with DM, HF, history of smoke

A

True

192
Q

CLI has to do with chronic ischemic rest pain that lasts more than 2 hours. T or f？

A

True

193
Q

T or f？ burning, cramping, pain in legs while you exercise is intermittent claudication.

A

True

194
Q

T or f？ with PAD, you see numb or burning pain in feet when in bed

A

True

195
Q

T or f？the pain with PAD can be relived by putting legs in dependent position.

A

True

196
Q

T or f？you find bruits over femoral and aortic arteries with PAD

A

True

197
Q

T or f？ you find a cap refill in toes of GT 3 sec(decreased) with PAD

A

True

198
Q

T or f？you find no/decreased pulses with PAD

A

True

199
Q

T or f？you find loss of hair on calf, ankle, and foot

A

True

200
Q

T or f？you find dry, scaly, mottoes skin with PAD

A

True

201
Q

T or f？you find think nails and cold/cyanosis extremities with PAD

A

True

202
Q

T or f？you see Pallor of extremity with elevation with PAD

A

True

203
Q

T or f？you see dependent rubor/redness of extremities with PAD.

A

Tru

204
Q

T or f？ you see muscle atrophy and ulcers/toe gangrene with PAD.

A

True

205
Q

T or f？the consequences of HTN are left ventricular hypertrophy

A

Tru

206
Q

T or f? HTN will target the heart and brain(cerebrovasular disease)

A

True

207
Q

T or f? With HTN and the heart you see CAD, atherosclerosis, left ventricular hypertrophy and heart failure

A

True

208
Q

T or f? With the brain and HTN you see: cerebrovascular disease and retinopathy

A

True

209
Q

T or f?with the brain and HTN, you see: TIA, strokes, and atherosclerosis

A

True

210
Q

With the brain and HTN you see hypertensive encephalopathy and autoregulation changes

A

True

211
Q

T or f? Modifiable RF of CVD are BP

A

True

212
Q

T or f? When BP rises so does the risk of : MI, HF, stroke, renal disease and retinopathy

A

True

213
Q

T or f? BP is the force exerted by blood against the wall of blood vessels

A

True

214
Q

T or f? BP involves systemic and peripheral vascular effects

A

True

215
Q

T or f? It is Impt to maintain tissue perfusion in activity and rest for BP regulation

A

True

216
Q

T or f? BP is a function of CO an SVR

A

True

217
Q

T or f? CO=SVxHR

A

True

218
Q

T or f? CM of HTN is fatigue and dizziness

A

True

219
Q

T or f? HTN CM are palpitations, angina and dysnpea

A

True

220
Q

T or f? CM of HTN are face flushing and fainting

A

Tru

221
Q

T or f? CM of HTN are retinal changes, visual disturbances, and nocturnal

A

True

222
Q

T or f? HTN is a silent killer. It’s asymptotic til target organ disease occurs.

A

True

223
Q

T or f? When the BP is elevated take in both arms and with pt sitting and standing

A

True

224
Q

T or f? PreHTN is 120-139/80-89

A

True

225
Q

T or f? Stage 1 HTN is 140-159/90-99

A

True

226
Q

T or f? Stage 2 HTN is GT 160/GT 100

A

True

227
Q

Hypertensive crisis is a consequence of HTN T or f?

A

True

228
Q

T or f? The nurse should recognize headache, BP above 180/120 and blurred vision as hypertensive crisis.

A

True

229
Q

T or f? The nurse should know that dizziness, disorientation, and epistaxis are CM of hypertensive crisis’

A

True

230
Q

T or f? You want to administer IV AH therapies like nitroprusside, nicardipine, and labetalol) with HTN

A

True

231
Q

T or f? You want to lower the BP by 20-25% the first hour in a hypertensive crisis but to not stop below 140/90

A

True

232
Q

T or f? When doing IV AH therapy, M BP Q 5-15 min witha hypertensive crisis

A

True

233
Q

T or f? Assess pupils, LOC and muscle strength to M for cerebrovasular change with a hypertensive crisis

A

True

234
Q

T or f? M the ECG to assess the cardiac status in a hypertensive crisis

A

True

235
Q

T or f? The expected BP is LT120/L80

A

True

236
Q

T or f? HTN RF are age, ETOH, and DM

A

True

237
Q

T or f? HTN RF are elevated serum lipids, race, and excess Na

A

True

238
Q

T or f? HTN RF are genes, obesity, and gender

A

True

239
Q

T or f? HTN RF are sedentary, SES, stress and tobacco use

A

True

240
Q

T or f? AA have a higher rate of HTN

A

True

241
Q

T or f? Postmenopausal and pregnancy increase the risk of HTN

A

True

242
Q

T or f? Kidney disease, cushing disease and primary aldosteronism increase the risk of 2nd HTN

A

True

243
Q

T or f? Pheochromocytoma, brain tumors and encephalitis increase the risk of 2nd HTN

A

True

244
Q

T or f? Estrogen, steroids and sympathomimetics increase the risk of 2nd HTN

A

True

245
Q

T or f? The PAD RF are hypertension and hyperlipidemia

A

True

246
Q

T or f? The PAD RF are DM, smoke and obesity

A

True

247
Q

T or f? The PAD RF are sedentary and genes

A

True

248
Q

T or f? The PAD RF are female, older than 65 and high cholesterol

A

True

249
Q

T or f? The PAD RF are elevated C reactive proteins, hyperhomocysteinemia and atherosclerosis

A

True

250
Q

T or f? The RF for impaired perfusion are low SES and advanced age

A

True

251
Q

T or f? The RF for impaired perfusion lifestyle and immobility

A

True

252
Q

T or f? The mod RF for impaired perfusion are smoke and elevated serum lipids

A

True

253
Q

T or f? The mod RF for impaired perfusion are sedentary lifestyle and obesity

A

True

254
Q

T or f? The mod RF for impaired perfusion are DM and hypertension

A

True

255
Q

T or f? The nonmod RF for impaired perfusion are age, men, and genes

A

True

256
Q

T or f? Central perfusion is the force of blood movement generated by CO

A

True

257
Q

T or f? Central perfusion needs good cardiac function, BP, and blood volume

A

True

258
Q

T or f? Central perfusion is where blood is propelled to all organs and tissues from arteries thru capillaries and returns the blood to the heart thru veins

A

True

259
Q

T or f? CO=SVxHR

A

True

260
Q

T or f? Local/tissue perfusion is the volume of blood that flows to target tissue

A

True

261
Q

T or f? Tissue/local perfusion requires patent vessels, good hydrostatic pressure and cap permeability

A

True

262
Q

T or f? General perfusion is the flow of blood tray arteries and cap delivering nutrients and O2 to cells

A

True

263
Q

T or f? COPD is chronic airflow limitation that is irreversible

A

True

264
Q

COPD has to do with chronic bronchitis and emphysema. T or f?

A

True

265
Q

T or f? You see chronic dysnpea with COPD

A

True

266
Q

T or f? You see a RR that can 40-50/min during acute exacerabations in dysnpea

A

True

267
Q

T or f? chronic bronchitis develops when hypersecretion of mucus obstructs the trachea and bronchi

A

True

268
Q

T or f? Chronic bronchitis can be caused by irritants like smoke, pollution, and resp. Infection

A

True

269
Q

T or f? Symptoms of chronic bronchitis are cough and dysnpea

A

True

270
Q

T or f? Emphysema develops when the alveolar walls are destroyed an leads to permanent enlargement

A

True

271
Q

T or f? Emphysema is caused by cig smoke

A

True

272
Q

T or f? Emphysema has loss of lung elasticity and hyperinflation of lung tissue

A

True

273
Q

T or f? Emphysema causes destruction of alveoli

A

True

274
Q

T or f? Emphysema leads to decreased SA for gas exchange, CO2 retention and resp acidosis

A

True

275
Q

T or f? COPD has dysnpea on excretion and cough in morning

A

True

276
Q

T or f? COPD has hypoxemia and crackles/wheezes.

A

True

277
Q

T or f?COPD has rapid and shallow registrations & use of accesssory muscles

A

True

278
Q

T or f? COPD has a barrel chest/increased chest diameter(mostly with emphysema)

A

True

279
Q

T or f? COPD has hyper resonance on percussion due to trapped air(with emphysema)

A

True

280
Q

T or f? COPD has irregular breathing patterns and thin extremities/enlarge neck muscles

A

True

281
Q

T or f? COPD has edema secondary to RSHF and clubbing in the late stages.

A

True

282
Q

T or f? COPD has pallor and cyanosis of nail beds and MM in the late stages

A

True

283
Q

T or f? COPD has decreased O2 saturation and in AA…the O2 saturation can be lower

A

True

284
Q

T or f? use a incentive spirometer to expand lungs and diagnose COPD

A

True

285
Q

T or f? With COPD, you see chronic ariway inflammation, lung parenchymal and plum BV

A

True

286
Q

T or f? COPD has loss of elastic recoil and mucus hypersecretion

A

True

287
Q

T or f? COPD has mucosal edema, bronchospasm that obstructs airways

A

True

288
Q

T or f? COPD has hypoxemia and hypercapnia

A

True

289
Q

T or f? Early signs of COPD are chronic cough

A

True

290
Q

T or f? Complications of COPD are corpulmonale, sputum, cough and dsypnea

A

True

291
Q

T or f? The main goal of care for COP pt is relieve symptoms an improve exercise tolerance

A

True

292
Q

T or f? The main goals of COPD care is prevent and treat exacerbation/complications/disease progression

A

True

293
Q

T or f? The main goal of COPD care is promote pt part in care, improve life quality and reduce mortality

A

True

294
Q

T or f? Treat COPD with LVRS and a bullectomy

A

True

295
Q

T or f? The way to treat COPD is transplants, pursed lip breathing and airway clearance techniques

A

True

296
Q

T or f? Ways to treat COPD are huff coughing , percussion, vibration and postural drainage

A

True

297
Q

T or f? You will see weight loss and malnutrition with COPD

A

True

298
Q

T or f? The nurse will do acute care for exacerbations, cor pulmonale, and acute resp failure for COPD

A

True

299
Q

T or f? There will be plum rehab for COPD pts. The overall goal will be to increase exercise capacity and improve the quality of life.

A

True

300
Q

T or f? Walk for COPD to exercise and get adequate sleep and nutrition.

A

True

301
Q

T or f? Do O2 therapy when humidified bc of irritation with COPD

A

True

302
Q

T or f? with asthma the major concern with asthma is status asthmaticus.

A

true

303
Q

T or f? asthma is the chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways that results in recurrent episodes of airflow obstruction.

A

true

304
Q

T or f? asthma is reversible

A

true

305
Q

T or f? with asthma the airflow is limited due to inflammation and results in bronchoconstriction, hyperreactivity, and edema of airways.

A

true

306
Q

T or f? asthma attacks are caused by hyperreactive airways leading to contraction of the muscles in the airways.

A

true

307
Q

T or f? you see wheezing and coughing with astham

A

true

308
Q

T or f? you see dyspnea and chest tightness with asthma

A

true

309
Q

T or f? symptoms that occur less then 2 times a week is mild intermittent

A

true

310
Q

T or f? symptoms that are more then twice a week but not daily is mild persistent

A

true

311
Q

T or f? daily symptoms in conjunction with exacerbations twice a week are moderate persistent

A

true

312
Q

T or f? frequent symptoms are severe persistent

A

true

313
Q

T or f? anxiety and stress are seen with asthma

A

true

314
Q

T or f?mucus production and use of accessory muscles are seen with asthma

A

true

315
Q

T or f? prolonged exhalation and low O2 is seen in asthma

A

true

316
Q

T or f? barrel chest and increased chest diameter are seen in asthma

A

true

317
Q

T or f? hypoxemia, hypocarbia(early), and hypercarbia(late in attack) are in asthma

A

true

318
Q

T or f? hypoxemia is O2 less than 80

A

true

319
Q

T or f? hypocarbia is CO2 LT 35 and early in attack

A

true

320
Q

T or f? hypercarbia is CO2 GT 45 and late in attack

A

true

321
Q

T or f? resp. infections are precipitating factors of acute asthma attack

A

true

322
Q

T or f? genes and immune system influence the development of asthma

A

true

323
Q

T or f? GERD is seen with asthma

A

true

324
Q

T or f? increase meds if asthma gets worse and decrease the meds if gets better

A

true

325
Q

T or f? when pt is in asthma attack, decrease the anxiety and panic

A

true

326
Q

T or f? use MDI and DPI and nebulizers with asthma

A

true

327
Q

T or f? pH is LT 7.35 is respiratory acidosis

A

true

328
Q

T or f? resp. acidosis occurs in hypoventilation when CO2 is retained like in COPD

A

true

329
Q

T or f? primary prevention in optimizing gas exchange is infection control and no smoking

A

true

330
Q

T or f? primary prevention in optimizing gas exchange is vaccines and preventing postop complications

A

true

331
Q

T or f? HH, cleaning surfaces, elbow cough, avoid large groups of people is infection control

A

true

332
Q

T or f? preventing infections is done thru vaccines

A

true

333
Q

T or f? reduce use and increasing access to services is to stop smoking

A

true

334
Q

T or f? use the incentive spirometer and breathe deep Q 2 hours to prevent postop complications

A

true

335
Q

T or f? prevent DVT by SC administration of anticoagulant to reduce clotting OR use stocking OR encourage ambulation

A

true

336
Q

T or f? do a TB skin test to screen/secondary help optimizing gas exchange

A

true

337
Q

T or f? no smoke and pharmacotherapy are collab interventions to optimize gas exchange

A

true

338
Q

T or f? dilating airways and reducing edema is pharmacotherapy

A

true

339
Q

T or f? increasing cough effectiveness and killing/limiting microbe growth is pharmacotherapy

A

true

340
Q

T or f? oxygen therapy(humidified O2) and chest physiotherapy are collab interventions to optimize gas exchange

A

true

341
Q

airway management and breathing support are collab interventions to optimize gas exchange. T or f?

A

true

342
Q

T or f? postural drainage (let gravity do the work and used for cystic fibrosis) is a collab intervention to optimize gas exchnage

A

true

343
Q

T or f? invasive procedures and nutrition therapy are collab interventions to optimize gas exchange

A

true

344
Q

T or f? positioning in supine or sitting is a collab intervention to optimize gas exchange

A

true

345
Q

T or f? sit a pt up if they have chronic pulm disease or acute/chronic impaired gas exchange

A

true

346
Q

T or f? lie pt flat if hypoxic or acute lung disease. this give the areas of the lungs that are most dependent become the best ventilated and perfused.

A

true

347
Q

with chest phsyiotherapy, you loosen and move secretions to be expelled. you use percussion(cup and clap) and vibration to loosen secretions. T or f?

A

true

348
Q

if pt has dyspnea, use small meals. T or f?

A

T

349
Q

if pt has a productive cough, oral care bf meals and reduce lingering taste of sputum . T or f?

A

t

350
Q

give a pt with impaired gas exchange, high protein/calorie meals to give energy to breathe and support the immune system. T or f?

A

t

351
Q

T or f? thoracentesis, bronchoscopy, and chest tubes are invasive procedures

A

t

352
Q

T or f? head down, on left and right side, and supine and prone are dependent positions.

A

t

353
Q

T or f? intubate or maintain open airway to do airway management.

A

t

354
Q

T or f? normal gas exchange is quiet and effortless breathing

A

t

355
Q

T or f? normal gas exchange is O2 between 95-100%

A

t

356
Q

T or f? normal gas exchange is skin, nail beds, and lips are the appropriate color for the race

A

t

357
Q

T or f? normal gas exchange is thorax is symmetric with equal thoracic expansion bilaterally

A

t

358
Q

T or f? normal gas exchange is spinous processes are aligned and spaculae are bilateral symmetric

A

t

359
Q

T or f? normal gas exchange is AP diameter of chest is 1:2 ratio of AP to lateral

A

t

360
Q

T or f? normal gas exchange is trachea is midline

A

t

361
Q

T or f? normal gas exchange is clear breath sounds bilaterally

A

t

362
Q

T or f? the history of gas exchange has fam history and past med history

A

t

363
Q

T or f? the history of gas exchange has current meds and lifestyle behaviors

A

t

364
Q

T or f? the history of gas exchange has occupation and social environment

A

t

365
Q

T or f? the history of gas exchange has problem based history(SOB, angina, cough)

A

t

366
Q

T or f? with impaired gas exchange you will see increased HR/RR/temp, and decreased O2

A

t

367
Q

T or f? with impaired gas exchange you will see leaning forward when sitting and anxiousness

A

t

368
Q

T or f? with impaired gas exchange you will see using accessory muscles to breathe and clubbing

A

t

369
Q

T or f? with impaired gas exchange you will see barrel chest and pursed lips

A

t

370
Q

T or f? with impaired gas exchange you will see AP thorax ratio of 1:1 and scoliosis

A

t

371
Q

T or f? with impaired gas exchange you will see trachea not midline

A

t

372
Q

T or f? with impaired gas exchange you will see in kids: nare flaring and grunting

A

t

373
Q

T or f? with impaired gas exchange you will see in kids: chest wall retractions and cyanosis

A

t

374
Q

T or f? with impaired gas exchange you will see in kids: they stop eating to breathe

A

t

375
Q

T or f? with impaired gas exchange you will hear in auscultation: narrrowed bronchi that may produce expiratory and inspiratory wheezing and stridor

A

T

376
Q

T or f? with impaired gas exchange you will hear in auscultation: mucus or secretions may create rhonchi and fluid may generate crackles

A

t

377
Q

a chest x ray will detect impaired ventilation and ID pleural effusion. T or f?

A

t

378
Q

a chest x ray will ID pneumothorax, hemothorax, or emphysema. T or f?

A

t

379
Q

a CT will detect pulm densities and tumors and pulm emboli.T or f?

A

t

380
Q

T or f? a V/Q scan can diagnose a pulm emboli

A

t

381
Q

T or f? a PET scan can distinguish from benign and malignant

A

t

382
Q

T or f? a pulm function study can assess the presence and severity of diseases in airways.

A

t

383
Q

T or f? a pulm function study can distinguish between obstructive and restrictive pulm diseases

A

t

384
Q

T or f? an endoscopy is a bronchoscopy exam where a scope is put thru the bronchi to diagnose, collect and do tissue biopsy

A

t

385
Q

T or f? RF for impaired gas exchange for infants are: they are nose breathers til 3 mths. if nose is clogged, no breathing happens

A

t

386
Q

t or f? sneezing will clear the nares

A

t

387
Q

t or f? resp patterns of newborns are irregular with 10-15 second pauses in between breaths

A

t

388
Q

T or f? RF for impaired gas exchange for infants are fetal Hb(present for the first 5 mths and results in shortened survival of RBC’s …causes anemia by age 2 or 3 mths

A

t

389
Q

T or f? RF for impaired gas exchange for infants are: less alveolar surface area for gas exchange, as well as narrow branching of peripheral airways that are easily obstructed by mucus, edema, or foreign objects

A

t

390
Q

T or f? RF for impaired gas exchange for kids are: less alveolar surface area for gas exchange, as well as narrow branching of peripheral airways that are easily obstructed by mucus, edema, or foreign objects

A

t

391
Q

T or f? RF for impaired gas exchange for old ppl are: diminished strength of respiratory muscles reduces the maximal inspiratory and expiratory force. This may result in a weaker cough

A

t

392
Q

T or f? RF for impaired gas exchange for old ppl are: alveoli become less elastic and more fibrous causing dyspnea more frequently bc of less diffusion.

A

t

393
Q

T or f? RF for impaired gas exchange for old ppl are: reduced number of RBC that increases anemia risk

A

t

394
Q

T or f? RF for impaired gas exchange for old ppl are: chest wall becomes thicker with loss of elastic recoil

A

t

395
Q

T or f? RF for impaired gas exchange for old ppl are: resp. muscles are weaker reducing the cough

A

t

396
Q

T or f? RF for impaired gas exchange for old ppl are: alveoli dilate, decreased SA for gas diffusion, and decreased pulm capillary network

A

t

397
Q

T or f? RF for impaired gas exchange for old ppl are: the immune response is decreased

A

t

398
Q

T or f? RF for impaired gas exchange(nonmod): age, pollution, and allergies

A

t

399
Q

T or f? RF for impaired gas exchange are: smoke, COPD and cystic fibrosis

A

t

400
Q

T or f? RF for impaired gas exchange are: HF and immunosuppresion

A

t

401
Q

T or f? RF for impaired gas exchange are: altered cog and brain injury

A

t

402
Q

T or f? RF for impaired gas exchange are: tracheal intubation and prolonged immobility

A

t

403
Q

t or f? gas exchange is O2 to cells and CO2 from the cells

A

t

404
Q

t or f? the neuro, resp, and cardiac sys need to function to do gas exchange

A

t

405
Q

t or f? the lungs deliver O2 to tissues then cell metabolism then CO2 to lungs then exhalation

A

t

406
Q

t or f? ischemia is low oxygenated blood to tissues that results in hypoxemia and cell injury/death

A

t

407
Q

t or f? hypoxia is low O2 to cells

A

t

408
Q

t or f? anoxia is total lack of O2 in tissues

A

t

409
Q

t or f? hypoxemia is reduced oxygenation arterial blood

A

t

410
Q

t or f? nervous sys regulates breathing

A

t

411
Q

t or f? as diaphragm contracts, O2 from atmosphere is pulled in. the nose will warm and humidify then the air goes to alveoli thru trachea and bronchi

A

t

412
Q

t or f? CO2 is a byproduct of cell metabolism

A

t

413
Q

t or f? CO2 is transported to the atmosphere in the opposite order of O2 and lowers the arterial CO2 level

A

t

414
Q

t or f? CO2 will diffuse into plasma

A

t

415
Q

t or f? when PaCO2 is decreased, signal to medulla to inhale is turned off til CO2 level rises

A

t

416
Q

t or f? gas does diffusion

A

t

417
Q

t or f? CO2 and O2 are independent

A

t

418
Q

t or f? ineffective ventilation, reduced gas transportation ability, and inadequate perfusion can impair gas exchange

A

t

419
Q

t or f? if infant is born bf 30 weeks, there is no surfactant present.

A

t

420
Q

t or f? acute illness like pneumonia and asthma can lead to impaired gas exchange

A

t

421
Q

t or f? COPD can lead to impaired gas exchange

A

t

422
Q

t or f? neurologic, cardiovascular and hematologic (anemia) issues can lead to impaired gas exchange

A

t

423
Q

t or f? congenital defects, genetic conditions, injury, inflammation, infections, and malignant neoplasms can cause impaired gas exchange

A

t

424
Q

t or f? ventilation is inhaling oxygen into the lungs and exhaling CO2 from the lungs

A

t

425
Q

t or f? transport is Hb availability and carrying O2 to cells from alveoli for metabolism and to carry CO2 from cells to alveoli

A

t

426
Q

t or f? perfusion is the ability of blood to transport O2 containing Hb to cells and return Co2 containing Hb to the alveoli

A

t

325 final (5 decks)

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