The ___________ is the main recipient of the excitatory afferents that arise from the entire cerebral cortex from the intralaminar nuclei of the thalamus. Flashcards

1
Q

The ___________ is the main recipient of the excitatory afferents that arise from the entire cerebral cortex from the intralaminar nuclei of the thalamus.

A. Lentiform Nucleus

B. Striatum

C. Globus Pallidus

D. Putamen

A

B. Striatum

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2
Q

All of the following statements about the basal ganglia are correct EXCEPT:

A. The net effect of excitation of the direct pathway is to inhibit cortex.

B. The basal ganglia have both motor and cognitive function.

C. The subthalamic nucleus is the origin of the only purely excitatory pathway within the basal ganglia intrinsic circuitry.

D. Parkinsons disease results from damage to the basal ganglia.

A

A. The net effect of excitation of the direct pathway is to inhibit cortex.

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3
Q

A 78 year old man is brought to emergency department and upon examination, the man revealed an uncontrollable flailing movements of his left arm. Which of the following structures is most likely involved in this lesion?

A. Putamen

B. Corpus Striatum

C. Subthalamic Nucleus

D. Globus Pallidus

A

C. Subthalamic Nucleus

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4
Q

A patient presented with a severe tremor, bradykinesia, rigidity and progressive cognitive decline. He was diagnosed with a degenerative disorder and his dyskinetic symptoms were treated with L-dopa/Cabidopa. What neurotransmitter is primarily involved in this disorder?

A. Acetylcholine

B. GABA (y-aminobutyric acid)

C. Norepinephrine

D. Dopamine

A

D. Dopamine

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5
Q

The abnormal gene that causes Huntington’s disease has many repeating codon that codes for multiple extra _________ in the molecular structure of an abnormal cell protein called _________ that causes the symptoms.

A. proline; huntingtin

B. acetycholine; choreon

C. glutamate; huntingtin

D. GABA; choreon

A

C. glutamate; huntingtin

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6
Q

Arrange the correct sequence of the direct pathway in the basal ganglia:

A. Thalamus > Striatum > Globus Pallidus (external)/ Substantia Nigra (pars reticulata) > Cortex

B. Cortex > Striatum > Globus Pallidus (internal)/ Substantia Nigra (pars reticulata) > Thalamus

C. Thalamus > Striatum > Globus Pallidus (internal)/ Holguin, Genevieve Substantia Nigra (pars reticulata) > Cortex

D. Cortex > Striatum > Globus Pallidus (external)/ Substantia Nigra (pars reticulata) > Thalamus

A

B. Cortex > Striatum > Globus Pallidus (internal)/ Substantia Nigra (pars reticulata) > Thalamus

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7
Q

Arrange the correct sequence of the indirect pathway in the basal ganglia:

A. Thalamus > Striatum > Globus Pallidus (internal) > Subthalamic Nuclei > Globus Pallidus (external)/ Substantia Nigra (pars reticulata)> Cortex

B. Cortex > Striatum > Subthalamic Nuclei > > Globus Pallidus (internal)/ Substantia Nigra (pars reticulata) > Globus Pallidus (external) > Thalamus

C. Cortex > Striatum > Globus Pallidus (external) > Subthalamic Nuclei > Globus Pallidus (internal)/ Substantia Nigra (pars reticulata) > Thalamus

D. Striatum > Cortex > Globus Pallidus (external) > Subthalamic Nuclei > Globus Pallidus (extternal)/ Substantia Nigra (pars reticulata) > Thalamus

A

C. Cortex > Striatum > Globus Pallidus (external) > Subthalamic Nuclei > Globus Pallidus (internal)/ Substantia Nigra (pars reticulata) > Thalamus

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8
Q

Corpus Striatum of the basal ganglia is/ are composed of?

A. Globus Pallidus and Putamen

B. Putamen, Globus Pallidus and Subthalamic Nucleus

C. Caudate Nucleus and Putamen

D. Putamen, Globus Pallidus and Caudate Nucleus

A

D. Putamen, Globus Pallidus and Caudate Nucleus

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9
Q

Connections between the ________ and _________ use dopamine as a neurotransmitter.

A. Thalamus and Substantia Nigra

B. Globus Pallidus and Substantia Nigra

C. Cortex and Substantia Nigra

D. Striatum and Substantia Nigra

A

D. Striatum and Substantia Nigra

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10
Q

A snake – like or writhing movements of the hand, face and arm results from the lesions of the ________.

A. Subthalamic Nucleus of Luys

B. Globus Pallidus

C. Corpus Striatum

D. Caudate Nucleus

A

B. Globus Pallidus

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11
Q

Extrafusal skeletal muscle fibers are innervated by the_______.

A. Anterior motor neuron

B. Gamma motor neuron

C. Alpha motor neuron

D. Interneuron

A

C. Alpha motor neuron

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12
Q

Alpha motor neuron cell bodies are topographically arranged within the____.

A. Anterior dorsal horn

B. Anterior ventral horn

C. Posterior dorsal horn

D. Posterior ventral horn

A

B. Anterior ventral horn

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13
Q

Muscle spindle helps in regulation of muscle action because of its composition of the following:___.

A. Sensory: Group Ia afferent nerve fibers, which innervates nuclear bag fibers; and group II afferent nerve fibers which innervates nuclear chain fibers.

B. Sensory: Group IIa afferent nerve fibers, which innervates nuclear bag fibers; and group I afferent nerve fibers which innervates nuclear chain fibers.

C. Encapsulated extrafusal muscle fibers.

D. Encapsulated tendon within the muscle

A

A. Sensory: Group Ia afferent nerve fibers, which innervates nuclear bag fibers; and group II afferent nerve fibers which innervates nuclear chain fibers.

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14
Q

What is the action of the Golgi tendon organ in regulation to muscle action?

A. Mechanoreceptor present within the tendon that responds to the change in length.

B. Mechanoreceptor present within the tendon that responds to the degree of tension that relays it by the afferent fibers (group IIb)

C. Mechanoreceptor present within the tendon that responds to the degree of stretch.

D. Mechanoreceptor present within the tendon that responds to the degree of tension that relays it by the afferent fibers (group Ib)

A

A. Mechanoreceptor present within the tendon that responds to the change in length.

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15
Q

Composed of two or more synapses between a sensory and motor neurons is a ____?

A. Polysynaptic reflex

B. Monosynaptic reflex

C. Single-synaptic reflex

D. Bi-synaptic reflex

A

A. Polysynaptic reflex

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16
Q

Example of a monosynaptic reflex is____?

A. Inverse myotactic reflex

B. Myotactic reflex

C. Clasp knife reflex

D. Flexor withdrawal reflex

A

B. Myotactic reflex

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17
Q

A monosynaptic reflex that is elicited in a neurologic exam by tapping the tendon in areas such as the knee.

A. DTR

B. GTR

C. Reflex arc

D.Inverse myotactic

A

A. DTR

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18
Q

A polysynaptic reflex that occurs as a response to a painful stimuli.

A. Extensor withdrawal reflex

B. Flexor withdrawal reflex

C. Crossed extensor reflex

D. Crossed flexor reflex

A

B. Flexor withdrawal reflex

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19
Q

A kid running barefooted accidentally stepped on a thumbtack, as the kid felt the painful stimulus he raises the affected foot, without thinking, he stabilizes his position with the unaffected side. After the accident he bent down and extended his limbs to check for his foot, then afterwards continued crossing the road.

Crossed extensor reflex in this situation is_____

A. Kid raises the affected foot creating a withdrawal response.

B. Kid stabilizes his position with the unaffected side.

C. Kid extended his limbs to check for his foot.

D. Kid stabilizes his position with the affected side.

A

B. Kid stabilizes his position with the unaffected side.

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20
Q

A negative feedback mechanism that monitors muscle tension. It has two synapses that relaxes the muscles when it detects an excess in tension. It is called?

A. Deep Tendon Reflex

B. Flexor withdrawal reflex

C. Crossed extensor reflex

D. Inverse Myotactic Reflex or Golgi Tendon Reflex

A

D. Inverse Myotactic Reflex or Golgi Tendon Reflex

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21
Q

Which of the following is incorrectly paired?

A. Pontine (Medial) reticulospinal tract : Pontine reticular formation

B. Rubrospinal tract : Red nucleus

C. Tectospinal tract : Superior colliculus

D. Medullary (Lateral) reticulospinal tract : Deiter’s nucleus

A

D. Medullary (Lateral) reticulospinal tract : Deiter’s nucleus

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22
Q

Trace the tectospinal tract stimulation.

A. Red nucleus à Intermediate gray area à Inhibit flexors and extensors

B. Superior colliculus à Cervical spinal cord à Decussate before entry to spinal cord à Control of neck muscles

C. Red nucleus à Cervical spinal cord à Decussate before entry to spinal cord à Control of neck muscles

D. Superior colliculus à Intermediate gray area à Inhibit flexors and extensors

A

B. . Superior colliculus à Cervical spinal cord à Decussate before entry to spinal cord à Control of neck muscles

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23
Q

Trace the vestibulospinal tract stimulation.

A. Deiter’s nucleus à Ipsilateral motoneurons and interneurons à Stimulation of extensors and inhibition of flexors

B. Deiter’s nucleus à Ventromedial spinal cord à Stimulatory effect on both extensors and flexors w/ predominant effect on extensors

C. Deiter’s nucleus à Cervical spinal cord à Stimulation of flexors and inhibition of extensors

D. Deiter’s nucleus à Interneurons in the lateral spinal cord à Stimulatory effect on both extensors and flexors w/ predominant effect on extensors

A

A. Deiter’s nucleus à Ipsilateral motoneurons and interneurons à Stimulation of extensors and inhibition of flexors

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24
Q

Reticulospinal tract is important in maintenance of certain postures and in __________________.

A. Erect posture

B. Startle reaction

C. Eye movements

D. Control of neck muscles

A

B . Startle reaction

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25
Q

Pontine reticulospinal tract produce _________ effect on both extensors and flexors, with predominant effect on ______________.

A. inhibitory, flexors

B. stimulatory, flexors

C. inhibitory, extensors

D. stimulatory, extensors

A

D. stimulatory, extensors

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26
Q

All of the ff. refer to decerebrate rigidity except:

A. Lesions above the red nucleus

B. Involuntary extension of the upper extremities in response to external stimuli

C. Lesions above the Pontine Reticular formation but below the midbrain

D. Lesions above the lateral vestibular nucleus

A

A. Lesions above the red nucleus

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27
Q

All of the ff. are true w/ Rubrospinal Tract except:

A.Receive afferent info from cortex, cerebellum and basal ganglia

B. Most important extrapyramidal tract

C. Lesions are always ipsilateral

D. Voluntary movements are impaired w/ lesions

A

C. Lesions are always ipsilateral

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28
Q

Trace the Medullary Reticulospinal Tract stimulation

A. Medullary reticular formationà Intermediate gray à Inhibit flexors and extensors,

B. Medullary reticular formation à Deiter’s nucleus à Inhibit flexors and extensors

C. Medullary reticular formation à Superior colliculus à Inhibit flexors and extensors

D. Medullary reticular formation à Centro-medial spinal cord à Inhibit flexors and extensors

A

A. Medullary reticular formationà Intermediate gray à Inhibit flexors and extensors

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29
Q

Decorticate rigidity manifests as the following except:

A. Arms flexed

B. Hands are flexed and clenched into fists

C. Legs flexed

D. Feet turned inward

A

C. Legs flexed

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30
Q

All of the following are functions of Vestibulospinal Tract, except:

A. Stimulation of extensors and inhibition of flexors

B. Selective control of excitatory signals to the different antigravity nucleus

C. Making adjustments in response to signals from the vestibular apparatus

D. Control of neck muscles

A

D. Control of neck muscles

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31
Q

These zones do not have topographical representation and concerned in the overall planning of the sequential motor movements with the cerebral cortex

A. Vermis

B.Lateral zone of cerebellar hemispheres

C. Intermediate zone of cerebellar hemispheres

D. Floccunodular lobe

A

B. Lateral zone of cerebellar hemispheres

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32
Q

The vermis part of the cerebellum is concerned with ______ of the body while intermediate zones of cerebellar hemispheres is concerned with _____ of the body.

A. Limbs and facial region, axial portion

B. Both axial portion of the body

C. Axial portion, limbs and facial regions

D. Both limbs and facial regions of the body

A

C. Axial portion, limbs and facial regions

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33
Q

Which of the following parts has the most cerebellar control for muscle movements of hips, neck, axial body and hips?

A. Anterior lobe

B. Posterior lobe

C. Vermis

D. Flocculonodular node

A

C. Vermis

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34
Q

Which of the following parts is the oldest of all portions of the cerebellum and it developed along with the vestibular system in controlling body equilibrium?

A. Lareral Zone

B. Anterior Lobe

C. Intermediate zone

D. Flocculonodular lobe

A

D. Flocculonodular lobe

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35
Q

The signals transmitted in the dorsal spinocerebellar tract come mainly from ______.

A. Golgi tendon organs, large tactile receptors of the skin and joint receptors

B. Pain receptors

C. Thermoreceptors

D. Vibration receptors

A

A. Golgi tendon organs, large tactile receptors of the skin and joint receptors

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36
Q

This pathway plays an important role in helping coordinate sequential motor activities initiated by the cerebral cortex.

A. Vermis —> Fastigial Nuclei —> Medullary and Pontine regions of the brain stem

B. Lateral zones of the cerebellar hemispheres—> Dentate nucleus—> Ventrolateral and vetroanterior nuclei of thalamus

C. Intermediatezone of cerebellar hemispheres—> interposed nucleus—> nuclei of the thalamus—> basal ganglia

D. basal ganglia—> thalamus—> interposed nucleus

A

B. Lateral zones of the cerebellar hemispheres—> Dentate nucleus—> Ventrolateral and vetroanterior nuclei of thalamus

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37
Q

This cells are always inhibitory with GABA as a neurotransmitter.

A. Granule cells

B. Stellate Cells

C. Purkinje cells

D. Basket cells

A

C. Purkinje cells

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38
Q

These cells receive excitatory input from mossy fibers which use glutamate as a neurotransmitter. A. Granule cells

B. Stellate Cells

C. Purkinje cells

D. Basket cells

A

A. Granule cells

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39
Q

Which of the following cerebellar interneurons is not inhibitory?

A. Granule cells

B. Stellate Cells

C. Basket cells

D. Golgi II cells

A

A. Granule cells

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40
Q

Dysarthia refers to which of the following?

A. Unsteady oscillations of the head or trunk

B. Jerkiness of eye movement

C. Slowing and slurring of speech

D. Volume of voice varies from low to high, from peak to peak

A

C. Slowing and slurring of speech

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41
Q

It is a result of the loss of cerebellar facilitation of the motor cortex and brain stem motor nuclei.

A. Chorea

B. Athetosis

C. Hypotonia

D. Hemiballismus

A

C. Hypotonia

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42
Q

When the motor control system fails to predict where the different parts of the body will be at a given time, it loses perception of the parts during rapid motor movements therefor Inability to perform rapid alternating movements manifest which is called?

A. Dysdiadochokinesia

B. Athetosis

C. Dysarthia

D. Hemiballismus

A

A. Dysdiadochokinesia

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43
Q

A person can predict from the changing visual scene how rapidly he or she is approaching an object. The nervous system uses the cerebellum to coordinate motor control functions at which of the three levels?

A. Spinocerebellum

B. Cerebrocerebellum

C. Vestibulocerebellum

D. Archicerebellum

A

B. Cerebrocerebellum

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44
Q

The movements ordinarily overshoot their intended mark; then the conscious portion of the brain overcompensates in the opposite direction for the succeeding compensatory movement. This effect is called?

A. Dysrhythmia

B. Dysarthia

C. Dysdiadochokinesia

D. Dysmetria

A

D. Dysmetria

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45
Q

A patient was asked to touch the heel of his foot to his opposite knee and then to drag his heel in a straight line all down the front of his sheen and back up again. What kind of cerebellar dysfunction is being tested?

A. Dysrhythmia

B. Dysarthia

C. Dysdiadochokinesia

D. Dysmetria

A

D. Dysmetria

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46
Q

Overall, muscles will receive fibers from all of the following except?

A. Corticospinal tract

B. Extrapyramidal tract

C. Cerebellar tract

D. Spinothalamic tract

A

A. Corticospinal tract

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47
Q

A cerebellar syndrome that involves the flocculonodular and posterior lobes. With little or no limb ataxia.

A. Anterior (Rostral) Vermis Syndrome

B. Posterior (Caudal) Vermis Syndrome

C. Cerebellar Hemisphere Syndrome

D. Pancerebellar Syndrome

A

B. Posterior (Caudal) Vermis Syndrome

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48
Q

Dysmetria and ataxia can also result from lesions in the________ because feedback information from the moving parts of the body to the cerebellum is essential for cerebellar timing of movement termination.

A. Spinocerebellar tract

B. Corticospinal tract

C. Spinothalamic tract

D. Pyramidal tract

A

A. Spinocerebellar tract

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49
Q

It uses GABA as its Neurotransmitter.

A. Stellate cells

B. Basket cells

C. Purkinje cells

D. Granule cells

A

C. Purkinje cells

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50
Q

It is the smallest and most numerous neuron in the brain

A. Stellate cells

B. Basket cells

C. Purkinje cells

D. Granule cells

A

D. Granule cells

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51
Q

To cause serious and continuing dysfunction of the cerebellum, the cerebellar lesion usually must involve one or more of the deep cerebellar nuclei except?

A. Dentate nuclei

B. Interposed nuclei

C. Fastigial nuclei

D. Red nuclei

A

D. Red nuclei

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52
Q

Brodmann Area 4 located in the precentral gyrus is responsible for ____?

A. Execution of movement

B. Hearing and Balance

C. Generating plan for movement

D. Conjugate eye movement

A

A. Execution of movement

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53
Q

A special class of neurons called ­­_____ becomes active when a person performs a specific motor task or when he or she observes the same task performed by others.

A. Mirror Neuron

B. Axon Hillock

C. Alpha Motor Neuron

D. Gamma Motor Neuron

A

A. Mirror Neuron

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54
Q

Stimulation frequently leads to bilateral grasping movements of both hands simultaneously; these movements are essentials of the hand functions required for climbing. What specialized area of the cerebellar cortex for motor control is used?

A. Pre motor Area

B. Motor Area

C. Supplementary Area

D. Frontal Lobe of the Cerebellum

A

C. Supplementary Area

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55
Q

The corticospinal tract decussates at what level?

A. Substansia Gelatinosa

B. Cervicomedullary Junction

C. Dorsal Root Ganglion

D. Thalamus

A

B. Cervicomedullary Junction

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56
Q

Conveys nerve impulses from the motor cortex to the skeletal muscles of the head and neck.

A. Corticospinal Tract

B. Corticobulbar Tract

C. Spinothalamic Tract

D. Spinocerebellar Tract

A

B. Corticobulbar Tract

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57
Q

Motor neurons that originate in the motor region of the cerebral cortex or brainstem.

A. Uppermotor Neuron

B. Lower Motot Neuron

C. Mirror Nueron

D. Alpha Motor Neuron

A

A. Uppermotor Neuron

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58
Q

Motor neurons connecting the brainstem and spinal cord to muscle fiber.

A. Uppermotor Neuron

B. Lower Motor Neuron

C. Mirror Nueron

D. Alpha Motor Neuron

A

B. Lower Motor Neuron

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59
Q

A lesion at the upper motor neuron will manifest _____?

A. Increase muscle tone, Spastic paralysis, Hyperreflexia, (+) clonus with atrophy of disuse, (+) Babinski

B. Increase muscle tone, flaccid paralysis, Hyperreflexia, (+) clonus with atrophy of disuse, (+) Babinski

C. Decrease muscle tone, Spastic paralysis, Hyperreflexia, (+) clonus with atrophy of disuse, (+) Babinski

D. Increase muscle tone, Flaccid paralysis, Hyperreflexia, (+) clonus with atrophy of disuse

A

A. Increase muscle tone, Spastic paralysis, Hyperreflexia, (+) clonus with atrophy of disuse, (+) Babinski

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60
Q

A lesion at the lower motor neuron will manifest _____?

A. Increase muscle tone, Spastic paralysis, Hyperreflexia, (-) clonus with atrophy of denervation, (+) fasciculation

B. Decrease muscle tone, Flaccid paralysis, Hyporeflexia, (-) clonus with atrophy of denervation, (+) fasciculation

C. Decrease muscle tone, Spastic paralysis, Hyperreflexia, (+) clonus with atrophy of denervation, (+) fasciculation

D. Decrease muscle tone, Spastic paralysis, Hyperreflexia, (+) clonus with atrophy of disuse

A

B. Decrease muscle tone, Flaccid paralysis, Hyporeflexia, (-) clonus with atrophy of denervation, (+) fasciculation

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61
Q

When does a person experience desynchronosis?

A. When the person cannot be awakened easily.

B. There is alteration of the day-night cycle when the person travels across time zones.

C.Person is difficult to arouse.

D.Person is experiencing irregular muscle movements.

A

B. There is alteration of the day-night cycle when the person travels across time zones.

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62
Q

Jenny, 31 years old, flight stewardess travels from Manila to Europe. When it is night time in Europe, she’s having a hard time falling asleep. Her body and mind is wide awake. What seems to be Jenny’s condition?

A. Slow sleep

B. NON-REM sleep

C. Paradoxical Sleep

D. Desynchronized sleep

A

D.Desynchronized sleep

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63
Q

Beta wave activity dominates:

A.In resting individuals with their eyes closed.

B.In infants experiencing deep sleep.

C.In adults during emotional stress.

D. In an awake, aroused individual.

A

D. In an awake, aroused individual.

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64
Q

A type of wave which indicate that you are awake and your eyes are open in the light.

A.Alpha waves

B.Beta waves

C.Theta waves

D.Delta waves

A

B. Beta waves

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65
Q

This measures the electrical activity of the brain. This can also use for diagnostic applications for epilepsy, coma and brain death.

A. MRI

B. CT Scan

C.EEG

D.ECG

A

C.EEG

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66
Q

Beta wave is an EEG wave that is recorded from what region in the brain?

A.Occipital and frontal

B.Occipital and parietal

C.Parietal and frontal

D.Frontal and temporal

A

C. Parietal and frontal

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67
Q

It is the inability of a person to obtain any amount of quality sleep needed to function during the day.

A.Narcolepsy

B.Cataplexy

C.Somnam bulism

D.Insomnia

A

D. Insomnia

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68
Q

When a person is awake, but the person has a decreased level of attention, what type of EEG rhythm will be observed?

A.Beta waves

B.Theta waves

C.Alpha waves

D.Delta waves

A

C. Alpha waves

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69
Q

A seizure disorder that has no known cause happens when there is a decrease in sodium levels in the blood.

A.Coma

B.Tonic seizure

C.Epilepsy

D.Aphasia

A

C.Epilepsy

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70
Q

This type of EEG wave is associated with brain disorders and degenerative brain state.

A.Theta waves

B.Beta waves

C.Gamma waves

D.UV waves

A

A. Theta waves

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71
Q

What type of EEG rhythm is produced by any form of sensory stimulation or mental concentration?

A.Theta rhythm

B.Beta rhythm

C.Gamma rhythm

D.Alpha rhythm

A

B. Beta rhythm

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72
Q

Quiet wakefulness is associated with what EEG rhythm?

A.Alpha rhythm

B.Beta rhythm

C.Gamma rhythm

D.Theta rhythm

A

A. Alpha rhythm

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73
Q

Which among the components of the limbic system when stimulated evokes rage, passivity, and excessive sexual drive?

A..Hippocampus

B.Amygdala

C.Hypothalamus

C.Thalamus

A

A. Hippocampus

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74
Q

The hippocampus is associated with mamillary bodies via what structure?

A Pineal gland

B Diencephalon

C Corpus callosum

D Fornix

A

D. Fornix

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75
Q

Insomnia or restlessness is an effect of a lesion in what area of the limbic cortex?

A Lateral posterior frontal cortex

B Bilateral posterior orbitofrontal cortex

C Posterior frontal cortex

D Lateral temporal cortex

A

B. Bilateral posterior orbitofrontal cortex

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76
Q

A pathway in limbic system that makes you link other experiences, memories and emotions when encountered a certain sensory stimuli.

A Somatosensory pathway

B Papez circuit

C Autonomic pathway

D Auditory pathway

A

B. Papez circuit

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77
Q

Lesion in this area of the limbic cortex will cause extreme rage reaction.

A Bilateral posterior cingulated subcallosal gyri

B Bilateral anterior temporal cortex

C Bilateral posterior orbitofrontal cortex

D Bilateral anterior cingulated subcallosal gyri

A

D. Bilateral anterior cingulated subcallosal gyri

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78
Q

Kluver-Bucy syndrome results from a lesion in the Amygdala which manifest hyperpolarity, loss of fear, decreased aggressiveness and eating behavior. The lesion is located in the _____________

A Bilateral posterior temporal cortex

B Bilateral anterior temporal cortex

C Bilateral posterior orbitofrontal cortex

D Bilateral anterior corpus callosum

A

B. Bilateral anterior temporal cortex

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79
Q

Hypothalamus controls the set-point of human _________________.

A Blood pressure

B Milk ejection

C Body temperature

D Heart rate

A

C. Body temperature

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80
Q

Increased general activity leading to rage and aggregation is cause by what part of the hypothalamus?

A Anterior hypothalamus

B Posterior hypothalamus

C Lateral hypothalamus

D Both anterior and posterior hypothalamus

A

C. Lateral hypothalamus

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81
Q

One of the functions of hypothalamus is that it involves in control of blood pressure and heart rate, which part of hypothalamus involves decrease of Blood pressure and Heart rate?

A Posterior Hypothalamus

B Lateral Hypothalamus

C Preoptic Area of Hypothalamus

D Ventromedial Nucleus

A

C. Preoptic Area of Hypothalamus

82
Q

Which part of hypothalamus produces Sympathetic Autonomic response when stimulated?

A Posterior Hypothalamus

B Lateral Hypothalamus

C Anterior Hypothalamus

D Paraventricular nuclei

A

A. Posterior Hypothalamus

83
Q

What is the limbic function of the lateral hypothalamus?

A Tranquility

B Pleasure

C Rage and aggression

D Sexual arousal

A

C. Rage and aggression

84
Q

What type of cells releases oxytoxin in the paraventricular nuclei from the hypothalamus?

A Raphe nucleus

B Magnocellular cells

C Brain cells

D Both A & B

A

B.Magnocellular cells

85
Q

Lesions on the ventromedial nucleus can cause what effect?

A Uncontrolled voracious appetite

B Hunger

C Starvation

D All of the above

A

A.Uncontrolled voracious appetite

86
Q

One of the endocrine functions of the hypothalamus is the regulation of body water intake and controls the urinary excretion of water. In what part of the kidneys it acts on?

A Proximal convoluted tubules

B Distal convoluted tubules

C Cortical collecting duct

D Glomerulus

A

C. Cortical collecting duct

87
Q

An individual is said to be in the REM phase when:

A Can easily be aroused.

BThere is decrease in heart rate and blood pressure.

C EEG shows a similar pattern to wakefulness.

D In a dreamless sleep.

A

C.EEG shows a similar pattern to wakefulness.

88
Q

This type of sleep occurs when a person can still be asleep despite marked activity in the brain.

A REM sleep

B Paradoxical sleep

C Desynchronized Sleep

D NON-REM sleep

A

B. Paradoxical sleep

89
Q

A type of sleep which characterized exceedingly restful and associated with decrease in blood pressure, respiratory rate and metabolic rate.

A REM sleep

B Paradoxical sleep

C Slow-wave sleep

D Desynchronized sleep

A

C. Slow-wave sleep

90
Q

This type of sleep is characterized having exceedingly depressed muscle tone, irregular heart rate and respirator rate and having a highly active brain.

A Slow-wave sleep(Non-REM Sleep)

B Rapid eye movement sleep(REM)

C Both

D Deep Sleep

A

B.Rapid eye movement sleep(REM)

91
Q

Rapid eye movement sleep is characterized by the following, Except?

A Brain is active and skeletal muscle contraction occurs.

B Lasts 3 to 30 minutes

C Repeats at 90 minutes intervals

D Dreamless sleep

A

D.Dreamless sleep

92
Q

What happens if a person has an increase Norepinephrine and serotonin and decrease acetylcholine?

A He will have NREM sleep

B He will have REM sleep

C He will have deep sleep

D He will be waking up

A

D.He will be waking up

93
Q

Most conspicuous stimulation areas that cause almost natural sleep.

A Raphe nuclei in lower pons and medulla

B Ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus

C Periventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus

D Mamillary nuclei

A

A.Raphe nuclei in lower pons and medulla

94
Q

If there is a/an ___________ in Norepinephrine, Serotonin and a/an _________ Acetylcholine respectively, there will be a REM sleep.

A Decrease, decrease

B Decrease, increase

C Increase, increase

D Increase, decrease

A

B.Decrease, increase

95
Q

Which among the following is associated with motor activities of the person’s body?

A Declarative memory

B Short-term memory

C Implicit memory

D Explicit memory

A

C.Implicit memory

96
Q

It is also called a simple learning

A Associative learning

B Non-associative learning

C Reflective memory

D Declarative memory

A

B. Non-associative learning

97
Q

Comparing the cake you ate today with the cake you ate yesterday is an example of what memory type?

A Explicit memory

B Implicit memory

C Nondeclarative memory

D Working memory

A

A. Explicit memory

98
Q

A kind of Non-associative learning where in we only reflect the things with reward or punishment and thus does not need to be stored.

A Habituation

B Sensitization

C Classical conditioning

D Non-declarative memory

A

A. Habituation

99
Q
  1. Which of the following explains consolidation?

A Provides motivations to drive the brain to remember experiences and thoughts that are either pleasant or unpleasant.

B New memories are codified into different classes of information.

C When a person is unable to establish long-term memories of those types of information that are the basis of intelligence.

D A person is unable to recall memories from the past.

A

B. New memories are codified into different classes of information.

100
Q

Among the choices, which is true about retrograde amnesia?

A. Impairment of the ability to form new memories through memorization

B. usually results by bilateral lesions to hippocampus

C. loss of short term memory

D. loss of pre-existing memories to conscious recollection

A

D. loss of pre-existing memories to conscious recollection

101
Q

Alexa has been cooking pasta since she was twelve. Now she’s thirty-two and doesn’t need any recipe to be able to cook her favorite pasta. What type of memory is this?

A. Implicit Memory

B. Explicit Memory

C. Declarative Memory

D. Short-term memory

A

A. Implicit Memory

102
Q

Which among the following brain waves has a frequency occurring greater than 14 cycles per second and as high as 80 cycles per second?

A Theta waves

B Delta waves

C Alpha waves

D Beta waves

A

D.Beta waves

103
Q

A type of EEG waves that occurs mainly in the parietal and temporal areas of children but may appear during emotional stress in adults. It is also associated with brain disorders and degenerative brain states.

A Alpha waves

B Beta waves

C Theta waves

D Delta waves

A

C. Theta waves

104
Q

Sleep disorder that is associated by temporary cessation of breathing during sleep.

A Insomia

B Somnabulism

C Narcolepsy

D Sleep apnea

A

D. Sleep apnea

105
Q

What is the physiologic basis of the suprachiasmatic nucleus as the master clock of all biological clocks?

A Nucleus receives projections from retina; neurons form biological clock that adapts to bright-dark cycle.

B It secretes serotonin.

C It secretes melatonin.

D It secretes dopamine.

A

A. Nucleus receives projections from retina; neurons form biological clock that adapts to bright-dark cycle.

106
Q

What cranial nerves thus the tractus solitarius nucleus controls?

A CN 4,5,6

B CN 7,9,10

C CN 8,9,11

D CN 10,11,12

A

B. CN 7,9,10

107
Q

This hormone is increased during darkness and controlled by sympathetic nerve activities

A Melatonin

B Serotonin

C Norepinephrine

D Epinephrine

A

A. Melatonin

108
Q

This biological periodicity is responsible for the regulation of menstrual cycle and gestation.

A Ultradian Rhythms

B Infradian Rhythms

C Circadian Rhythms

D All of the above

A

C.Infradian Rhythms

109
Q

This biological periodicity is responsible for heartbeat and respiratory rhythm.

A Ultradian Rhythms

B Infradian Rhythms

C Circadian Rhythms

D All of the above

A

A. Ultradian Rhythms

110
Q

These neurons retain a synchronized rhythmical firing pattern even though they are isolated from the brain. What kind of neuron are these?

A Suprachiasmatic nucleus neuron

B Somatosensory neurons

C Paraventricular nuclei neurons

D Anterior hypothalamic neurons

A

A. Suprachiasmatic nucleus neuron

111
Q

This biological periodicity is responsible for the regulation of sleep-wake cycle and hormone levels.

A Ultradian Rhythms

B Infradian Rhythms

C Circadian Rhythms

D All of the above

A

C. Circadian Rhythms

112
Q

To regulate circadian rhythms, melatonin is released from what gland?

A Thyroid

B Hypothalamus

C Pituitary

D Pineal

A

D. Pineal

113
Q

Which of the following describes expressive aphasia?

A Difficulty understanding spoken and written languages.

B Difficulty in speech and writing.

C Speech is normal.

D Due to generalized brain destruction.

A

B. Difficulty in speech and writing.

114
Q

Patient is capable of hearing spoken words, but do not comprehend the meaning of the words. This is a result in a lesion in:

A Broca’s Area

B Wernicke’s Area

C Angular gyrus

D Arcuate fassiculus

A

B. Wernicke’s Area

115
Q

True about Broca’s area:

A Located in the non-dominant hemisphere.

B Primarily involved in comprehension of speech.

C Associated with speech production and articulation.

D Located near the back section of the auditory cortex.

A

C. Associated with speech production and articulation.

116
Q

Which language center is located in the inferior frontal lobe of the dominant hemisphere

A Broca’s Area

B Wernicke’s Area

C Angular gyrus

D Arcuate fassiculus

A

A. Broca’s Area

117
Q

Broadmann area that processes the information received from Broadmann area 22 and significant for speech and language formation.

A Arcuate fasciculus

B Broca’s area

C Angular gyrus

D Wernicke’s area

A

B.Broca’s area

118
Q

This type of aphasia is characterized by severe receptive and expressive language deficits, sometimes to the point where the individual can understand almost no language and cannot produce almost any language.

A Broca’s Aphasia

B Conduction aphasia

C Global Aphasia

D Wernicke’s Aphasia

A

C. Global Aphasia

119
Q

A patient with abnormalities of language functions that are not due to defects of vision or hearing or to motor paralysis would possibly have:

A Dementia

B Alzheimer’s Disease

C Dysarthria

D Aphasia

A

D. Aphasia

120
Q

A patient can speak relatively well and have good auditory comprehensive but cannot put parts of word together or conjure up words, the patient would likely have what type Aphasia:

A Wernicke’s aphasia

B Broca’s aphasia

C Conduction aphasia

D Anomic aphasia

A

C. Conduction aphasia

121
Q

If there is conduction aphasia, the lesion is located in:

A Wernicke’s area.

B Broca’s area

C Angular gyrus

D Arcuate fasciculus

A

D. Arcuate fasciculus

122
Q

The __________ of individual sensory neuron is the particular region of the sensory space in which a stimulus will trigger the firing of that neuron.

  1. Receptive Field
  2. Sensation
  3. Perception
  4. Sensory Unit
A

A. Receptor Field

123
Q

It pertains to the conscious recognition of sensation.

A Sensation

B Perception

C Receptor

D Sensory unit

A

B. Perception

124
Q

A sensory receptor that pertains to tactile and position/proprioception.

A Nociceceptor

B Mechanoreceptor

C Thermoreceptor

D Chemoreceptor

A

B. Mechanoreceptor

125
Q

Conversion of receptor potentials into action potentials that conveys sensory information to the CNS.

A Sensation

B Sensory Coding

C Sensory transduction

D Receptive Field

A

B. Sensory Coding

126
Q

The state of awareness of external and internal conditions in the body.

A Proprioception

B Perception

C Sensation

D Stimulus

A

C. Sensation

127
Q

What is the receptor for noxious stimuli; extreme temperature?

A Cold receptor

B Nociceptor

C Pacinian corpuscle

D Warm receptor

A

B. Nociceptor

128
Q

What is the conscious recognition of stimuli?

A Perception

B Sensation

C Sensory information

D Receptor

A

C. Sensory information

129
Q

Which of these is CORRECTLY matched?

A Merkel’s Disk:Vibration

B Meissner’s corpuscles: Skin Stretch

C Pacinian Corpuscles: Superficial Touch

D Proprioceptors: Position

A

D. Proprioceptors: Position

130
Q

Which somatic sense is incorrectly paired with its receptor?

A Skin stretch: Ruffini’s corpuscle

B Noxious stimuli: Nociceptor

C Steady pressure : meissner’s corpuscle

D Tapping: Pacinian corpuscle

A

C. Steady pressure : meissner’s corpuscle

131
Q

Pain is perceived in the skin at what temperature?

A 20 degree Celsius

B 35 degree Celsius

C 40 degree Celsius

D 45 degree Celsius

A

D. 45 degree Celsius

132
Q

Incision of the pain pathways to relieve severe and intractable pain is called:

A Fiberotomy

B Nocitomy

C Cordotomy

D Nocineurotomy

A

C. Cordotomy

133
Q

Which of this statement is not true about visceral pain?

A Visceral pain is also called surface pain

B Ischemia can cause visceral pain

C Spasm of the smooth muscle of a hallow viscera causes visceral pain

D Visceral pain from abdomen cavities is transmitted through small type C pain fibers

A

A. Visceral pain is also called surface pain

134
Q

What Bromann’s area plays important role in deciphering deep meaning of information in the somatosensory areas?

A 5 and 7

B 4 and 6

C 4 and 8

D 1,2 and 3

A

A. 5 and 7

135
Q

Ability to perceive what an object is based on touch.

A.Dysgraphia

B.Graphestesia

C.Stereognosis

D.Bradikinesia

A

C. Stereognosis

136
Q

All are visceral sensation except:

A Chemo-

B Baro-

C Stretch

D Temperature

A

D. Temperature

137
Q

This pathway conduct information from the receptors to the brain or spinal cord.

A Neural pathways

B Sensory pathway

C Motor pathway

D Pyramidal pathway

A

C. Neural pathways

138
Q

Ion flow through receptor channels due to excitation is called:

A Action potential

B Membrane potential

C Receptor potential

D Electric potential

A

C. Receptor potential

139
Q

Which is NOT a mechanism to cause receptor potentials?

A Mechanical deformation of the receptor

B Chemical application to the membrane

C Temperature change in the membrane

D Electrical application to the membrane

A

D. Electrical application to the membrane

140
Q

The neurotransmitter secreted at the fast-pain fibers

A dopamine

B epinephrine

C norepinephrine

D glutamate

A

D. glutamate

141
Q

Stimulus excites receptor and this leads to change in membrane electrical potential, this change in potential is called?

A Action potential

B Receptor potential

C Depolarization

D Repolarization

A

B. Receptor potential

142
Q

What is not an example of chemical signals in the periphery that activate pain?

A.Bradykinin

B.Prostaglandin

C.Serotonin

D Acetylcholine

A

C. Serotonin

143
Q

All of the following statements are false EXCEPT:

A Touch-pressure, Posture-movement, Temperature and Pain are sub-modalities

B Slowly adapting receptors respond repetitively to a prolonged stimulus

C The more the receptor potential rising above the threshold level, the lesser the action potential

D “Hiring” is the calling in of receptors on additional afferent neurons

A

B. Slowly adapting receptors respond repetitively to a prolonged stimulus

144
Q

What is the action of lateral inhibiton?

A Ensures that extensor muscles acting on a joint will relax while flexor muscles contract.

B Stimulation of flexion relex elicits extension of contralateral limb.

C Activated sensory pathway gives signals that spread to the sides of excitatory signal inhibiting adjacent neurons.

D Allows receptors to have an extreme range of response

A

C. Activated sensory pathway gives signals that spread to the sides of excitatory signal inhibiting adjacent neurons.

145
Q

It is defined as the minimum inter-stimulus distance required to perceived two simultaneously applied stimuli as distinct?

A.Lateral inhibition

B.One point discrimination

C.Two point discrimination

D.Three point discrimination

A

C. Two point discrimination

146
Q

Which stimuli cause fast pain?

A.Mechanical stimuli

B.Chemical stimuli

C.Thermal stimuli

D.A & B

A

D. A & B

147
Q

The region in sensory space within which a specific stimulus elicits the greatest action potential response.

A.Sensory field

B.Receptive field

C Motor field

D Perceptive field

A

B. Receptive field

148
Q

Lesion of the proprioceptive pathway (located in peripheral sensory nerves, dorsal roots, dorsal columns of spinal cord & medial lemniscus.

A.Sensory ataxia

B.Syringomyelia

C.Tabes dorsalis

D Aphasia

A

A. Sensory ataxia

149
Q

It is the magnitude of a subjective sensation increases proportional to a power of the stimulus intensity.

A Weber law

B Fechner’s law

C Steven’s Law

D Weber-Fechner Law

A

C. Steven’s Law

150
Q

It is the magnitude of a subjective sensation increases proportional to the logarithm of the stimulus intensity.

A Steven’s law

B Weber law

C Fechner’s law

D Weber-Fechner Law

A

D. Weber-Fechner Law

151
Q

All are sensation belonging to the anterolateral pathway except:

A Temperature

B Pain

C Light touch

D Fine touch

A

D. Fine touch

152
Q

The type of mechanoreceptor used for slow adaptation of location.

A.Ruffini corpuscle

B.Pacinian corpuscle

C.Merkel disk

D.Meissner corpuscle

A

C. Merkel disk

153
Q

This states that the adaptation responds to the repetitive stimulus.

A Fast adapting

B Tonic adapting

C Rapidly adapting

D Phasic adapting

A

B. Tonic adapting

154
Q

Which is/are true about thermoreceptors?

A There are more cold spots than warm spots

B Warm receptors are transmitted through type A delta nerve fibers

C Both

D Neither

A

A. There are more cold spots than warm spots

155
Q

Carried by C fibers; characterized as aching, burning, or throbbing that is poorly localized.

A.Slow pain

B.Moderate pain

C.Fast pain

D. Fastest pain

A

A. Slow pain

156
Q

The following are the manifestations of Tabes dorsalis EXCEPT

A visceral crises

B paroxysms of intense pain

C paralysis

D muscular incoordination

A

C paralysis

157
Q

Deep Pain is a well-localized pain. Burning pain is a well-localized pain.

A First Statement is True

B Second statement is True

C Both statements are True

D Neither

A

D. Neither

158
Q

All are not true for Somatic sensation except:

A Touch has a slow adapting mechanoreceptor

B Thermoreceptors are sensitive changes to absolute temperature

C Muscle Spindle activity depends on muscle length

D Cold receptors have type C nerve fibers

A

C. Muscle Spindle activity depends on muscle length

159
Q

Which is incorrectly matched?

A Migraine Headache: unknown mechanism

B Sinus : pain behind browbone

C Extracranial Headache: Headache caused by constipation

D Tension: squeezing band

A

C. Extracranial Headache: Headache caused by constipation

160
Q

All are mechanoreceptors except:

A Proprioceptors

B Nociceptors

C Onion-like structures in deep skin layers

D Merkel’s disk

A

B. Nociceptors

161
Q

Warmth receptors begin to be stimulated at what temperature?

A 24 degree Celsius

B 30 degree Celsius

C 40 degree Celsius

D45 degree Celsius

A

B. 30 degree Celsius

162
Q

Which subsystem of the somatosensory system is responsible for pain and temperature?

A Thermorceptor

B Nocireceptor

C Mechanoreceptor

D Receptor

A

B. Nocireceptor

163
Q

In alternative classification of nerve fibers used by sensory physiologist, what fibers belong to group III?

A Fibers from the annulospiral ending of muscle spindle

B Fibers from the golgi tendon organs

C Fibers from most discrete cutaneous and pricking pain

D Unmyelinated fibers carrying pain, itch, temperature and crude touch sensory

A

D. Unmyelinated fibers carrying pain, itch, temperature and crude touch sensory

164
Q

Trace the paleospinothalamic pathway.

A Type C fiber -> laminae ll & lll -> lamina V -> join fast pain pathway -> Anterior commissure -> post central gyrus

BType C fiber -> substantia gelatinosa -> lamina V

  • > join fast pain pathway
  • > Anterior commissure -> precentral gyrus

C Alpha-gamma fibers -> lamina l -> cross -> lateral spinothalamic tract -> VPL of thalamus

D Alpha-gamma fibers- > lamina ll & lll -> cross -> LST -> VPL of thalamus

A

A. Type C fiber -> laminae ll & lll -> lamina V -> join fast pain pathway -> Anterior commissure -> post central gyrus

165
Q

Trace the neospinothalamic pathway

A Type C fiber -> laminae ll & lll -> lamina V -> join fast pain pathway -> Anterior commissure -> post central gyrus

BType C fiber -> substantia gelatinosa -> lamina V

  • > join fast pain pathway
  • > Anterior commissure -> precentral gyrus

C Alpha-gamma fibers -> lamina l -> cross -> lateral spinothalamic tract -> VPL of thalamus

D Alpha-gamma fibers- > lamina ll & lll -> cross -> LST -> VPL of thalamus

A

C. Alpha-gamma fibers -> lamina l -> cross -> lateral spinothalamic tract -> VPL of thalamus

166
Q

Fast-sharp pain is transmitted to the brain through the _______ pathway

C fiber pathway

C-delta fiber pathway

A fiber pathway

A-delta fiber pathway

A

D. A-delta fiber pathway

167
Q

Moments after a patient was pricked, he still feels some dull pain in the area. This type of pain is transmitted to the dorsal horn of the spinal cord through which pathway?

A C fiber pathway

B C-delta fiber pathway

C A fiber pathway

D A-delta fiber pathway

A

C. C fiber pathway

168
Q

What pain pathway mainly transmits slow chronic pain?

A Neospinothalamic tract

B Paleospinothalamic tract

C Dorsal column pathway

D A & B

A

B. Paleospinothalamic tract

169
Q

Which is not true about Pain Suppression?

A Transmission- Tuns on gate for pain

B Analgesia is a selective suppression of pain with effects on consciousness

C Inhibitory cells- Shut the gate

D Acupuncture causes Analgesia

A

B. Analgesia is a selective suppression of pain with effects on consciousness

170
Q

A drug that inhibits the synthesis of prostaglandins and slows the transmission of pain signals from the site of injury.

A Aspirin

B Opium

C Paracetamol
D Acetylcholine

A

A. Aspirin

171
Q

Which statement is NOT true about hyperalgesia?

A It is caused by excessive sensitivity of the pain receptors

B It is caused by too much number of pain receptors in the body

C It is caused by facilitating sensory transmission

D Sunburn is an example of hyperalgesia

A

B. It is caused by too much number of pain receptors in the body

172
Q

Which statement/s is/are not true about analgesia system?

I. Analgesia system is called pain control system

II. Analgesia blocks pain signal at the exit point from spinal cord

III. Analgesia system can block many local reflex that results from pain signals

IV. Enkepeledin is involved in the analgesia system

A I only

B II only

C II & III

D I & IV

A

B. II only

173
Q

It is a procedure wherein needles are introduced into specific parts of the body to stimulate afferent fibers, and this causes analgesia.

A Venipuncture

B Body puncture

C Acupuncture

D Accupressure

A

D. Acupuncture

174
Q

Which is true about Bell-Magendie Law?

A The ventral spinal roots are motor, the dorsal are sensory

B the ventral spinal roots are sensory, the dorsal are motor

C the ventral and dorsal spinal roots are both sensory and motor

D B&C

A

A. The ventral spinal roots are motor, the dorsal are sensory

175
Q

Which sensation is not included in the Anterolateral Spinothalamic System?

A Cold Sensation

B Tickle and Itch sensations

CVibrations

D Sexual Sensations

A

C.Vibrations

176
Q

Abnormality of the Sensory pathway caused by Neurosyphilis

A Tabes Dorsalis

B Tabes Frontalis

C Syringomyelia

D Brown-Sequard Syndrome

A

A. Tabes Dorsalis

177
Q

Where do the cell bodies of somatic sensory afferent fibers come from?

A.Ventral root ganglion

B.Fasciculus gracilis

C.Dorsal root ganglion

D.Substantia Gelatinosa

A

C. Dorsal root ganglion

178
Q

A patient diagnosed with Brown-Séquard syndrome in the left spinal cord will present which symptoms?

A Ipsilateral loss of fine touch and position sense with ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature sense

B Contralateral loss of fine touch and position sense with ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature sense

C Contralateral loss of fine touch and position sense with contralateral loss of pain and temperature sense

D Ipsilateral loss of fine touch and position sense with contralateral loss of pain and temperature sense

A

D.Ipsilateral loss of fine touch and position sense with contralateral loss of pain and temperature sense

179
Q

Where is the decussation site of dorsal column pathway?

A.Medial lemniscus

B.Dorsal column nuclei

C.Lower medulla oblongata

D.Upper medulla oblongata

A

C. Lower medulla oblongata

180
Q

At what spinal level cuneate fasciculus does not appear?

A.L3

B.T1

C.T2

D C1

A

C.T2

181
Q

A drug that act directly in a receptor in the brain, which activated the descending pathway and inhibit incoming pain signals.

A Aspirin

B Methamphetamine

C Opiates

D Serotonin

A

C. Opiates

182
Q

Destruction of the thalamic nuclei results in loss of sensation on what side of the body?

A Ipsilateral side

B Contralateral side

C Lower extremities only

D Both lower and upper extremity

A

B.Contralateral side

183
Q

All are ascending pathway except

A Dorsal column

B Anterior spinothalamic tract

C Tectospinal tract

D Posterior spinothalmaic tract

A

C.Tectospinal tract

184
Q

Muscle spindle and golgi tendon belongs to what receptors?

A Chemoreceptor

B Thermoreceptor

C Stretch receptor

D Nocireceptor

A

C. Stretch receptor

185
Q

In what part of the brain controls the skin thermoreceptor for the regulation of body temperature? OBJ: somatic senses

A Pituitary

B Corpus callosum

C Thalamus

D Hypothalamus

A

D. Hypothalamus

186
Q

All are characteristics of stimuli except

A Intensity

B Location

C Duration

D Time

A

D. Time

187
Q

All are present in the site of injury except one.

A Bradykinins

B Histamines

C Aspirins

D Prostaglandins

A

C.Aspirins

188
Q

A type of headache that starts with prodrome lasting for a minute to an hour with no known mechanism.

AAlcoholic headache

B Migraine headache

C Headache of meningitis

D Headache caused by constipation

A

B. Migraine headache

189
Q

All are types of extracranial headache except one:

AHeadache from muscle spasm

B Excessive irradiation

CLow CSF pressure headache

D Headache caused by eye disorders

A

C. Low CSF pressure headache

190
Q

All are mechanism of receptor potential except :

A By mechanical deformation

B By physical deformation

C By application of chemical

D By change of temperature of membrane

A

B. By physical deformation

191
Q

Increased general activity leading to rage and aggregation is cause by what part of the hypothalamus?

A Anterior hypothalamus

B Posterior hypothalamus

C Lateral hypothalamus

D Both anterior and posterior hypothalamus

A

C. Lateral hypothalamus

192
Q

What physiological condition which results from alteration of circadian rhythm?

A Insomnia

B Desynchronosis

C Narcolepsy

D Somnambulism

A

B. Desynchronosis

193
Q

Sleep disorder that is associated by temporary cessation of breathing during sleep.

A Insomia

B Somnabulism

C Narcolepsy

D Sleep apnea

A

D. Sleep apnea

194
Q

Hypothalamus controls the set-point of human _________________.

A Blood pressure

B Milk ejection

C Body temperature

D Heart rate

A

C. Body temperature

195
Q

Gia performed well at their dance recital so her parents praised her and gave her a new gadget as a reward. As a result, she performed the best as she can in her next performance. What type of associative learning was shown in this scenario?

A. Operant Conditioning

B. Classical Conditioning

C. Both A and B

D. Neither A or B

A

A. Operant Conditioning

196
Q

This increase in sensitivity of the pain receptors is called?

A Hyperalgesia

B Fast pain

C Slow Pain

D Chemical Pain

A

A. Hyperalgesia

197
Q

Small, local, involuntary muscle contractions visible under the skin and present with lower motor neuron lesion.

A Babinski Reflex

B Flaccid Paralysis

C Atrophy of Denervation

D Fasciculations

A

D. Fasciculations

198
Q

A patient was admitted due to abnormalities of language functions that are not due to defects of vision or hearing or to motor . What is the possible cause?

A Dementia

B Alzheimer’s Disease

C Dysarthria

D Aphasia

A

D. Aphasia

199
Q

Manifestations like hyperorality, loss of fear, psychic blindness, changes in behavior and excessive sexual drive results from dectruction of?

A. Bilateral Amygdala

B. Bilateral Fornix

C. Bilateral Hippocampus

D. Bilateral cingulate gyrus

A

A. Bilateral Amygdala

200
Q

A patient consulted a doctor. The doctor asked him why he went to the clinic. Upon observation, the doctor found that the patient’s speech is slow and hard to come by. He understood the question well however the fluency of his speech was poor. The doctor asked him if to repeat sentences but he failed. Which part of the language centers has a problem?

A. Posterior superior temporal gyrus of the dominant hemisphere

B. Post-central gyrus

C. Inferior frontal lobe of the dominant hemisphere

D. Pre-central gyrus

A

A. Posterior superior temporal gyrus of the dominant hemisphere

201
Q
A