Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BIO130 > Textbook Quizzes > Flashcards

Textbook Quizzes Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What do both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells have?

Nucleus.

A cell wall.

Membrane-bound Organelles.

Ribosomes.

A

ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Which of the following is/are a method(s) by which humans can be studied?

Cell cultures

Organoids

Clinical Studies

All of the above are correct

A

all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. t/f On a molecular level, it is possible that two prokaryotic species could be as different from each other as either is from eukaryotes.
A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Which organelle’s ancestor was likely engulfed by an early anaerobic eukaryote?

Ribosome.

Mitochondrion.

Nucleoid.

Chloroplast.

A

mitochondrion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Which of the following is the correct nomenclature for a nucleoside?

Guanine deoxyribose diphosphate.

Adenosine Monophosphate.

Deoxycytidine.

Thymine.

A

Deoxycytidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. How many total water molecules are created in the condensation reactions that create a polypeptide chain from three amino acids?
    3
    1
    4
    2
A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Why are α helices and β sheets common folding patterns in polypeptides?
    - Since R-groups are present on all amino acids, there is a nearly infinite number of ways that α helices and β sheets can form. As a result, over evolutionary time, these folding patterns have become common.
  • Both of these secondary structures require more than one polypeptide chain to be able to fold into these patterns. Since all proteins contain multiple polypeptide chains, these folding patterns are common.
  • Amino acid side chains are not involved in forming the hydrogen bonds, allowing many different sequences to adopt these folding patterns.
  • Molecular chaperones tend to fold polypeptides into these common folding patterns.
A

Amino acid side chains are not involved in forming the hydrogen bonds, allowing many different sequences to adopt these folding patterns.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. We have already seen the following two examples where macromolecules are assembled from condensation reactions between monomers. ________ bonds covalently link nucleotides together to make DNA or RNA, while _________ bonds covalently link together amino acids into polypeptides. Choose the correct combination below to fill in the blanks.

Glycosidic, peptide
Phosphodiester, glycosidic
Peptide, glycosidic
Phosphodiester, peptide

A

Phosphodiester, peptide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Extracellular proteins are directly exposed to extracellular conditions. To help maintain their specific 3-dimensional shape, the polypeptide chains are often stabilized by:
    Hydrogen bonds
    Ester bonds
    Peptide bonds
    Disulfide bonds
A

Disulfide bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Protein domains are often connected by relatively short lengths of polypeptide called
    Side chains
    Intrinsically disordered sequences
    Collagen fibrils
    Coiled coils
A

Intrinsically disordered sequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Areas of the human genome that are not “protein-encoding exons” include:
    - DNA sequences that are repeated and are therefore removed by DNA polymerase with each round of replication.
  • DNA sequences that cannot be packaged into the nucleus.
  • DNA sequences that do not use A, G, C, and T bases.
  • DNA sequences that ensure transcription of the proper gene at the proper time, level, and space
A

DNA sequences that ensure transcription of the proper gene at the proper time, level, and space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. A laboratory uses single-stranded DNA probes with fluorescent dyes to detect the presence of cells infected with the human papillomavirus (HPV). This technique is known as…
    Reporter gene monitoring
    In situ hybridization
    DNA sequencing
    Chromosome painting hybridization
A

in situ hybridization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Chromosome duplication occurs during __________, starting at _________.
    M phase; centromeres
    Interphase; centromeres
    Interphase; origins of replication
    M phase; origins of replication
A

Interphase; origins of replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Histone proteins pack DNA into a repeating array of DNA-protein particles called
    Nucleosomes
    Euchromatin
    Heterochromatin
    Nucleoli
A

nucleosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is correct?
    - Okazaki fragments are found associated with the lagging strand template.
  • Only prokaryotes have leading and lagging strands.
  • DNA polymerase catalyzes the addition of nucleotides onto the 5’ end of the growing nucleic acid chain.
  • DNA polymerase uses deoxyribonucleoside monophosphates to synthesize a new DNA strand.
A

Okazaki fragments are found associated with the lagging strand template.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Primase is known as a/an…

Ligase facilitator

RNA polymerase

Extender onto 5’ ends

DNA polymerase

A

RNA polymerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. The enzyme telomerase solves the problem of replication at the ends of linear chromosomes by which method?

Causing linear ends of the newly replicated DNA to circularize.

Adding numerous AT pairs which allows the telomeres to easily unwind.

Adding a single 5’ cap structure that resists degradation by nucleases.

Adding numerous short DNA sequences to the 3’ end of the lagging strand template.

A

Adding numerous short DNA sequences to the 3’ end of the lagging strand template.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding double-stranded DNA breaks?

These types of lesions can be serious, leading to the loss of gene sequences.

These types of lesions can be caused by radiation.

These lesions can be repaired by the editing function of DNA Polymerase.

These types of breaks can be repaired by either nonhomologous end joining or by homologous recombination.

A

These lesions can be repaired by the editing function of DNA Polymerase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Copying errors not caught by the replication machinery can be corrected by:

The DNA Mismatch Repair System.

DNA maintenance methyltransferase.

DNA telomerase.

RNA polymerase.

A

The DNA Mismatch Repair System.

20
Q
  1. How does ultraviolet radiation from sunlight typically damage DNA?

It causes the loss of an amino group from DNA bases.

It promotes covalent linkage between two adjacent pyrimidine bases.

It removes bases from nucleotides in DNA.

It breaks hydrogen bonds between the two strands of DNA.

A

It promotes covalent linkage between two adjacent pyrimidine bases.

21
Q
  1. Transcription is similar to DNA replication in that:

RNA polymerase (like DNA polymerase) extends the growing chain in a 3’ to 5’ direction.

the newly synthesized RNA strand (like a newly synthesized DNA strand) remains hydrogen bonded to the template DNA.

both processes depend on complementary base-pairing of incoming nucleotides to a DNA template.

RNA polymerases (like DNA polymerases) require a primer.

A

both processes depend on complementary base-pairing of incoming nucleotides to a DNA template.

22
Q

Which of the following is FALSE?

rRNAs and tRNAs are involved in translation.

miRNAs do not encode for proteins, but do affect gene expression.

mRNA represents the major class of non-coding RNA.

non-coding RNAs are used for telomere maintenance.

A

mRNA represents the major class of non-coding RNA.

23
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE of both bacterial and eukaryotic transcription?

To initiate transcription, nucleosome and chromatin structures must be dealt with.

Bacteria and eukaryotes do not require a primer to initiate transcription.

Both have regions of the nucleus that are rich in the enzymes and accessory proteins needed for transcription.

Both have at least three different types of RNA polymerase.

A

Bacteria and eukaryotes do not require a primer to initiate transcription.

24
Q
  1. Which of the following is CORRECT?

The poly-A tail of eukaryotic mRNA is encoded in the gene sequence for each protein.

While both bacterial and eukaryotic mRNA transcripts will have three phosphate groups at or near their 5’ ends, only eukaryotic transcripts will also have a 7-methylguanosine attached there.

A single bacterial gene sequences encoding protein is expected to be interrupted by non-coding sequences.

In eukaryotes, addition of the 5’ cap is the last step in mRNA processing.

A

While both bacterial and eukaryotic mRNA transcripts will have three phosphate groups at or near their 5’ ends, only eukaryotic transcripts will also have a 7-methylguanosine attached there.

25
Q
  1. The assembly of general transcription factors to a eukaryotic promoter begins at what site in a promoter?

The assembly box

The TATA box

The GAGA box

The TFIID box

A

The TATA box

26
Q

Which of the following is absent in a properly folded tRNA?

Modified bases.

Thymidine dimers.

Hydrogen bonds.

An anticodon loop.

A

Thymidine dimers.

27
Q

Any given mRNA sequence has ______ possible reading frames, and the correct one is set by a(n) ___________________.

2; termination codon

3; termination codon

2; initiation codon

3; initiation codon

A

3; initiation codon

28
Q

Which of the following statements concerning aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases is CORRECT?

There are typically different aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases for every anticodon.

There are typically different aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases for every amino acid.

There are typically different aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases for every rRNA.

There are typically different aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases for every tRNA.

A

There are typically different aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases for every amino acid.

29
Q

Within the ribosome, the formation of peptide bonds is catalyzed by:

The tRNA itself.

An RNA molecule in the large ribosomal subunit.

A peptidase in the small ribosomal subunit.

Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase.

A

An RNA molecule in the large ribosomal subunit.

30
Q

Which of the following statements about the proteasome is TRUE?

Misfolded proteins are delivered to the proteasome, where they are sequestered from the cytoplasm and can attempt to refold.

The protein stoppers that surround the central cylinder of the proteasome do not require energy from ATP hydrolysis to move proteins into the proteasome inner chamber.

Proteases that reside in the central cylinder of a proteasome are used to chop proteins into shorter peptides.

Ubiquitin is a large protein that uses hydrogen bonding to attach to proteins and reversibly mark them for delivery to the proteasome.

A

Proteases that reside in the central cylinder of a proteasome are used to chop proteins into shorter peptides.

31
Q

A protein has the -Ser-Lys-Leu- sequence. Where will this protein end up?
Group of answer choices

Mitochondria.

Endoplasmic Reticulum.

Plasma membrane.

Peroxisome.

A

Peroxisome

32
Q

Which of the following statements is correct for a transmembrane protein being translated by an ER-bound ribosome?
Group of answer choices

There must be an ER signal sequence at the N-terminus.

There must be a stop-transfer sequence at the C-terminus.

There must be an N-terminal ER signal sequence or an internal start-transfer sequence.

There must be multiple start- and stop-transfer sequences.

A

There must be an N-terminal ER signal sequence or an internal start-transfer sequence.

33
Q

What mediates the exchange of materials between the endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus and the plasma membrane?
Group of answer choices

Lysosomes.

Peroxisomes.

Vesicles.

Cytosol.

Ribosomes.

A

Vesicles.

34
Q

Where are the major sites of protein glycosylation in the endomembrane system?
Group of answer choices

Endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus.

Endosomes and Golgi apparatus.

Endosomes and Lysosome.

Cis and trans Golgi networks.

A

Endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus.

35
Q

Where is a protein in the lumen of the rough endoplasmic reticulum LEAST likely to end up?
Group of answer choices

In an endosome.

In the cytosol.

In the Golgi apparatus.

In the extracellular space.

A

In the cytosol.

36
Q

The assembled cytoplasmic intermediate filaments have no polarity (ends are the same). At what stage in the assembly of these intermediate filaments is this seen?

Trimer.

Dimer.

Tetramer.

Monomer.

A

tetramer

37
Q

Which of the following has a specific role in microtubule nucleation at the centrosome?

α-tubulin.

ε-tubulin.

β-tubulin.

γ-tubulin.

A

γ-tubulin

38
Q

Microtubule growth at the plus end occurs when the plus end has:

GDP-tubulin dimers.

GTP-tubulin dimers.

ATP tubulin dimers.

ADP-tubulin dimers

A

GTP-tubulin dimers

39
Q

Which statement best describes an actin filament?
Thirteen strands in a cylinder.

Eight strands in a helical array.

Two strands in a helix.

Two strands in a coiled-coil.

A

Two strands in a helix

40
Q

Which of the following proteins can move towards the plus end of microtubules?

Myosin I.

Cilium.

Cytoplasmic dynein.

Kinesin.

A

Kinesin

41
Q

Which of the following are found in an animal extracellular matrix?

Collagen.

Both Glycosaminoglycans and Collagen.

Cellulose.

Glycosaminoglycans.

A

Both Glycosaminoglycans and Collagen

42
Q

Which feature of glycosaminoglycans allows the extracellular matrix in cartilage to resist compression? Glycosaminoglycans …

expand the cell to resist tension and provide cushion.

are interwoven with cellulose microfibrils and other polysaccharides to form a complex matrix.

have negative charges that attract cations, which in turn draw a large amount of water into the matrix.

form stiff rods in the extracellular matrix.

A

have negative charges that attract cations, which in turn draw a large amount of water into the matrix.

43
Q

In a columnar epithelium, which of the following cell junctions is responsible for connecting a bundle of actin filaments in one cell with a bundle of actin filaments in the adjacent cell?
Group of answer choices

Tight junctions

Hemidesmosomes

Desmosomes

Adherens junctions

A

Adherens junctions

44
Q

Which of the following is NOT a transmembrane protein(s) involved in cell junctions?

Fibronectins

Integrins

Cadherins

Connexons

A

Fibronectins

45
Q

Which of the following is typically present in plants, but not in animals?
Group of answer choices

Tight junctions.

Desmosomes.

Gap junctions.

Plasmodesmata.

A

Plasmodesmata

BIO130 (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions