Texbook Flashcards

1
Q

Why were pea plants ideal for Mendel’s experiments?

A

They have distinct traits, a short generation time, self-pollinate naturally, and can be easily cross-pollinated.

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2
Q

What are the three key principles Mendel discovered?

A

The Law of Segregation, the Law of Independent Assortment, and the Principle of Dominance.

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3
Q

What is the Law of Segregation?

A

During gamete formation, the two alleles for each gene separate, so each gamete gets only one allele.

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4
Q

How does meiosis relate to Mendel’s Law of Segregation?

A

Homologous chromosomes separate during anaphase I of meiosis, ensuring each gamete receives one allele.

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5
Q

What is the Law of Independent Assortment?

A

Genes for different traits assort independently of one another during gamete formation.

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6
Q

How does genetic linkage affect independent assortment?

A

Linked genes, located close together on the same chromosome, are inherited together and do not assort independently.

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7
Q

What is a dihybrid cross?

A

A genetic cross between two individuals heterozygous for two traits.

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8
Q

What phenotypic ratio results from a dihybrid cross of two heterozygous individuals (AaBb × AaBb)?

A

9:3:3:1.

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9
Q

What is the purpose of a Punnett square?

A

To predict the genotypic and phenotypic outcomes of a genetic cross.

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10
Q

What is the product rule in genetics?

A

The probability of two independent events occurring together is the product of their individual probabilities.

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11
Q

What is the sum rule in genetics?

A

The probability of either of two mutually exclusive events occurring is the sum of their probabilities.

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12
Q

How does a branching diagram simplify multihybrid cross predictions?

A

It breaks each gene’s inheritance into individual probabilities and combines them at the end.

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13
Q

Why do Punnett squares become impractical for multihybrid crosses?

A

The number of boxes increases exponentially with more traits, making it cumbersome to analyze.

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14
Q

What inheritance pattern does Huntington’s disease follow?

A

Dominant inheritance.

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15
Q

What inheritance pattern does cystic fibrosis follow?

A

Recessive inheritance.

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16
Q

How can a pedigree help determine if a trait is dominant or recessive?

A

Dominant traits appear in every generation, while recessive traits can skip generations.

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17
Q

Why are recessive alleles often associated with nonfunctional proteins?

A

They usually result from mutations that cause a loss of function in the encoded protein.

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18
Q

What is epistasis?

A

When one gene’s expression masks or modifies the effect of another gene.

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19
Q

Provide an example of epistasis in animals.

A

Coat color in Labrador Retrievers, where one gene determines pigment and another gene determines pigment deposition.

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20
Q

What is the biochemical role of the Sbe1 gene in Mendel’s peas?

A

It encodes an enzyme that converts unbranched starch to branched starch, affecting seed shape.

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21
Q

What does the Sgr gene control in Mendel’s pea experiments?

A

It controls the breakdown of chlorophyll, affecting seed color.

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22
Q

How did Mendel use statistical methods to validate his hypotheses?

A

He analyzed large sample sizes to observe consistent patterns that matched predicted ratios.

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23
Q

Why was Mendel’s approach revolutionary?

A

He applied quantitative analysis and statistics to biological inheritance, which was novel at the time.

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24
Q

What was the main goal of the Human Genome Project?

A

To sequence the entire human genome and identify all its genes.

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25
Q

How did the Human Genome Project advance genetics?

A

It improved understanding of Mendelian and complex traits, aiding in genetic counseling and personalized medicine.

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26
Q

What is genetic linkage?

A

The tendency of genes close together on a chromosome to be inherited together.

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27
Q

How does crossing over affect genetic linkage?

A

It creates recombinant offspring by exchanging DNA between homologous chromosomes.

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28
Q

How do deviations from Mendel’s ratios occur?

A

Through phenomena like linkage, epistasis, or polygenic inheritance.

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29
Q

What are polygenic traits?

A

Traits controlled by multiple genes, such as height or skin color in humans.

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30
Q

Why must eukaryotic DNA be compacted?

A

Because each cell contains about 2 meters of DNA, it must be tightly packed to fit into a tiny nucleus (~6 µm).

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31
Q

What is the fundamental unit of chromatin compaction?

A

The nucleosome, which is DNA wrapped around a core of eight histone proteins (H2A, H2B, H3, H4).

32
Q

What is the role of histone H1?

A

Histone H1 helps stabilize the DNA where it enters and exits the nucleosome, further compacting the chromatin.

33
Q

What forms after nucleosomes coil more tightly?

A

The 30 nm fiber, an additional level of compaction created by coiling nucleosomes together.

34
Q

What are condensins?

A

Protein complexes that use ATP to loop and condense chromosomes during mitosis, making them visible under a microscope.

35
Q

How does heterochromatin differ from euchromatin?

A

Heterochromatin is tightly packed and usually transcriptionally inactive, while euchromatin is loosely packed and actively transcribed.

36
Q

What is Position-Effect Variegation (PEV)?

A

Variegated gene expression caused when a gene moves near heterochromatin, resulting in its random silencing in some cells.

37
Q

What is X-chromosome inactivation?

A

In female mammals, one X chromosome is silenced (forms a Barr body) to balance X-linked gene expression with males.

38
Q

What role does the Xist gene play in X-chromosome inactivation?

A

Xist produces a long noncoding RNA that coats the X chromosome, recruiting proteins that silence it.

39
Q

What are histone modifications?

A

Chemical tags (like acetylation or methylation) added to histone tails that can loosen or tighten chromatin to regulate gene expression.

40
Q

What is the function of telomerase?

A

Telomerase adds repetitive DNA to telomeres, helping certain cells maintain chromosome ends and avoid premature aging.

40
Q

Why are telomeres important?

A

They protect the ends of linear chromosomes and prevent them from being recognized as DNA breaks.

41
Q

What is the centromere?

A

A specialized region on a chromosome where kinetochores form and spindle fibers attach during cell division.

42
Q

How do cohesin complexes help in cell division?

A

They hold sister chromatids together until anaphase, ensuring accurate segregation of chromosomes.

43
Q

What is FISH (Fluorescence In Situ Hybridization)?

A

A technique that uses fluorescent DNA probes to locate specific sequences on chromosomes under a fluorescence microscope.

44
Q

What is G-banding?

A

A karyotyping technique using Giemsa stain to produce light and dark bands on chromosomes, aiding in their identification.

45
Q

Why is DNA replication considered semi-conservative?

A

Each new double helix contains one original (parent) strand and one newly synthesized (daughter) strand.

45
Q

What is the leading strand in DNA replication?

A

The strand synthesized continuously in the 5’→3’ direction as the replication fork opens.

46
Q

What is the lagging strand?

A

The strand synthesized discontinuously in short Okazaki fragments, also in a 5’→3’ direction but moving away from the replication fork.

47
Q

What is the role of the shelterin complex?

A

It binds and protects telomeres at chromosome ends, preventing them from being recognized as DNA breaks.

48
Q

What are Okazaki fragments?

A

Short stretches of DNA synthesized on the lagging strand during replication.

49
Q

Why are centromeres often composed of satellite DNA?

A

These repetitive sequences, combined with special histones, form the unique structure required for kinetochore assembly and spindle attachment.

50
Q

What are the four main classes of chromosomal rearrangements?

A

Deletions, duplications, inversions, and translocations.

51
Q

What is a deletion in a chromosome?

A

The loss of a segment of chromosomal DNA, removing genes from that region.

52
Q

How can deletions affect an organism?

A

They can cause haploinsufficiency, unmask recessive alleles, or be lethal if essential genes are lost.

53
Q

What is a duplication?

A

A repeat of a chromosomal segment, resulting in extra copies of certain genes.

54
Q

Give an example of a duplication-related phenotype.

A

The Bar-eye phenotype in Drosophila, caused by tandem duplications on the X chromosome.

55
Q

What is an inversion?

A

A segment of a chromosome is flipped 180° within the same chromosome.

56
Q

How do inversions affect fertility in heterozygotes?

A

Inversion loops form during meiosis, often creating unbalanced gametes and reducing fertility.

57
Q

What is a translocation?

A

A segment of one chromosome is attached to a nonhomologous chromosome.

58
Q

How do reciprocal and Robertsonian translocations differ?

A

Reciprocal translocation: segments swap between two nonhomologous chromosomes.
Robertsonian translocation: two acrocentric chromosomes fuse into one.

59
Q

What is the Philadelphia chromosome?

A

A reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22 that can cause chronic myelogenous leukemia.

60
Q

Why might rearrangements reduce fertility?

A

They lead to abnormal pairing and unbalanced gametes during meiosis, causing inviable or missing genes in offspring.

61
Q

What are some techniques to detect chromosomal rearrangements?

A

FISH (Fluorescence In Situ Hybridization), chromosome painting, and genomic sequencing methods.

62
Q

What is haploinsufficiency?

A

When one functional gene copy is not enough for a normal phenotype, leading to disorders if the other copy is deleted/mutated.

63
Q

What causes position-effect variegation?

A

A gene being relocated (often by inversion) near heterochromatin, resulting in variable gene silencing in different cells.

64
Q

What is aneuploidy?

A

An abnormal number of chromosomes (e.g., monosomy = 2n−1, trisomy = 2n+1) rather than a full set.

65
Q

Which aneuploidy leads to Down syndrome in humans?

A

Trisomy 21 (having three copies of chromosome 21).

66
Q

Why are sex chromosome aneuploidies generally more tolerable than autosomal aneuploidies?

A

Because of X-inactivation (in females) and the relative lack of genes on the Y chromosome.

67
Q

What is polyploidy?

A

Having more than two complete sets of chromosomes (e.g., 3n, 4n).

68
Q

What are the two main types of polyploidy?

A

Autopolyploidy: extra sets of chromosomes from the same species.
Allopolyploidy: chromosome sets from different species.

69
Q

Why is polyploidy significant in plant evolution?

A

It can lead to new species formation, increased genetic diversity, and sometimes larger, more vigorous plants.

70
Q

What is the major difference between aneuploidy and polyploidy?

A

Aneuploidy involves gains/losses of individual chromosomes, while polyploidy involves extra entire sets of chromosomes.

71
Q

How does nondisjunction lead to aneuploidy?

A

Chromosomes or chromatids fail to separate properly during meiosis, creating gametes with extra or missing chromosomes.

72
Q

What is unequal crossing-over and how does it relate to duplications?

A

Misalignment of homologous chromosomes during meiosis can result in one chromosome gaining extra segments (duplication) and the other losing them (deletion).

73
Q

Why can deleting one copy of a gene be more harmful in some cases than losing two copies?

A

In haploinsufficiency, a single functional gene copy can’t produce enough protein for normal function, causing an abnormal phenotype.

74
Q

How do rearrangements sometimes drive evolution?

A

By rearranging genes, creating new gene dosage patterns, or generating novel gene fusions, organisms can adapt or evolve new traits.