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Laboratory Diagnostics > Tests > Flashcards

Tests Flashcards

1
Q

Anticoagulant for general Haematology

A

Sodium, Potassium, EDTA (ethylendiaminetetraaceticacid)

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2
Q

How does anticoagulation work?

A

irreversible binding of ca ions

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3
Q

Heparin

A

used for plasma anticoagulation via antithrombin lll - blocks fibrinogen - fibrin

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4
Q

Anticoagulant for blood clotting parameters

A

Na2Citrate - reversible Ca2 binding

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5
Q

Blood Smear anticoagulant

A

Na2Citrate - least damage to blood

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6
Q

Evaluation of perfusion

A
  • Crt
  • colour mucous mem.
  • pulse strength
  • Bp
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7
Q

Evaluation of hydration

A
  • skin tugor
  • muc. mem.
  • sunken eyes
  • skin around oral, anal cavity
  • bw changes
  • urine output
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8
Q

Evaluation of volume disturbances

A
  • Clinical signs
  • Pcv, Ht
  • Hb cc
  • plasma Tp, Alb
  • MCV
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9
Q

Pcv,Ht methods

A
  • Mikrohematokrit - microcapill.,centrifuge,check ht scale
  • Handheld hct meter- species spec, one drop, uses reflectance
  • automated cell counter - mcv/number
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10
Q

Additional info. after centrifug. blood

A
  • colour
    • red - haemolysis
  • -white - hyperlipid.
  • -dark yellow - hyperbilirubinaem.
    • chocolate brown - methaem.
  • buffy coat
  • -wbcs
  • microfilaria larvae
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11
Q

Samples for osmolality invest.

A

hep. plasma , serum

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12
Q

Osmolality methods

A
  • mathematical
    • =2(Na+K)+urea+glucose
  • osmometer
  • measures freezing point compared to water
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13
Q

Electrolyte invest. anticoag.

A

heparinised full blood - since others interfere with the ion cc

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14
Q

Ion cc method

A

using ion selective electrodes

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15
Q

Inorganic p measurement

A

spectrophotometric from serum heparinised sample

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16
Q

resp. function invest. sample

A
  • Ca-equilibriated, Li-heparinised syringe
  • arterial samples needed - no air contamination
  • -astrup method
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17
Q

Method of resp. func. invest.

A

ionselective electrodes to measure ph & CO2

based on these Hco3- and ABE and others are calculated

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18
Q

routinely used acid base parameters

A
  • ph - 7.35-7.45
  • pCo2 - 40mmHg
  • HCo3- 21-24mmol/l
  • ABE - +-3.5mmol/l
  • TCo2 - 23-30mmol/l
  • SBE - +-3mmol/l
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19
Q

Parameters for blood gas analysis

A
  • pO2 - 88-118mmHg
  • pCO2 - 35-45 mmHg
  • SAT - v:75-80% a:90-100%
  • FiO2 - 20,9% >0.5 risk of O2 toxicity
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20
Q

Tests performed by side of animal in case of haemostasis analysis

A
  • check for skin abnormalities anaemia, petechia, ecchymosis,
  • cap. resistance
  • bleeding time
  • app. of first fibrin strand
  • app. of clot
  • clot retraction time
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21
Q

Tests for CT

A
  • fibrin strand - 1-2 min
  • CT on watch glass - 7-15min
  • CT in plastic syringe - 10-12 min
  • CT in glass tube - 4-5min
  • CT in act - containing SiO2 - activates factor 12 - 3min
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22
Q

Platelet count test

A
  • imp. if Bt is inc. use Na,K EDTA blood
  • put sample in saline sol. and let sediment then put in bürker chamber
  • estimate using blood smear
  • automated cell counter - aggregates can be taken as larger cells
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23
Q

Phys. platelet count

A

200-800 *10^9/l

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24
Q

Reagent for PT

A

contains rat uterus as a tissue factor

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25
Q

PT method

A

using a coagulometer

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26
Q

Phys. Pt

A

10-15sec

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27
Q

Factors in Pt

A

7,10,5,2,1,13

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28
Q

APTT contsins

A

as platelet factor 3

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29
Q

Phys APTT

A

20-30 sec

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30
Q

Factors in APTT

A

9 , 11 , 8 , 10 , 5 , 2 , 1 , 13

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31
Q

Reagents in TT

A

decalcinated plasma + thrombin only

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32
Q

What is D-Dimer a derivate of

A

only from Fibrin not fibrinogen and thus a better way to check for incr. fibrinolysis

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33
Q

What do you check for with D-Dimer and fdp test

A

DIC

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34
Q

DIC signs

A 
CT: incr.
BT: Incr.
Platelet count: decr. 
PT: incr.
APTT: incr.
TT: incr. 
FDP: incr.
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35
Q

Tests for TP

A

Biuret, ultrasensitive tp analysis, refractrometry

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36
Q

Reagent for Biuret test

A

KNaSCN, CuSO4, KI, NaOH

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37
Q

Colour in biuret test

A

co-nh + cu+alkaline=purple colored complex

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38
Q

Ultrasensitive total protein analysis reagent

A

Na-molibdate, pirogallol red , binds proteins

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39
Q

Albumin measurements

A

spectrophotometry, serum electrophoresis

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40
Q

Reagent for alb spectrophotometr.

A

bromocresol green, binds to alb @ph4.2 and forms blue-green complex

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41
Q

Globulin analysis

A
  • calculated

- electrophoresis

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42
Q

How to calculate Globulin

A

difference of Tp and Alb cc in serum

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43
Q

What is the decr. of Alb/Glob. ratio most often caused by

A

the incr. of glob. - inflammatory process, neoplastic process

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44
Q

Classifications of Globs. on the basis of electrophoresis

A
  • alb
  • alpha1-glob.
  • alpha2-glob
  • beta glob
  • gamma glob
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45
Q

The two most commonly used forms of protein electrophoresis

A
  • Sodium docecyl sulfate polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis (SDS-PAGE)
  • Isoelectric focusing
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46
Q

Major protein fractions of serum and plasma

A

Serum: 60% alb, 40%glob
Plasma: 50%alb, 30%glob, 20%fibrinogen

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47
Q

Broad based peak in the beta and or gamma region of electrophoresis

A

Polyclonal Gammopathy

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48
Q

What does a monoclonal gammopathy look like

A

sharp spike in beta or gamma region

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49
Q

Most common cause for monoclonal gammopathy

A

multiple myeloma

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50
Q

Calculating Fibrinogen cc

A

plasma and serum tp difference

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51
Q

Which test indirectly gives info about fibrinogen

A

TT

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52
Q

Most frequent measurement of Glucose

A

handheld glucometer

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53
Q

When to perform glucose tolerance test IV

A

at the suspect of latent DM or insulinoma

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54
Q

When to perform oral glucose tolerance test

A

at the suspect of chronic bowel disease, epi

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55
Q

Evaluation of constant hyperglycaemia

A

at some point glucose binds itself to various proteins
these aggregates are too large to be excreted by the kidney and circulate longer in the blood - ketoamines are formed e.g. fructosamine
its cc represents gluc average 2-3 weeks prior

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56
Q

Glycated haemoglobin

A

serves as a marker for glucose level over the previous 2-3 months

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57
Q

Detection of ketone bodies

A

Ross reagent

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58
Q

Ross reagent

A

1g of nitroprussid-Na
100g of (NH4)2SO4
50g Na2CO3

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59
Q

Colour change of ross reagent with ketone bodies

A

white to purple

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60
Q

Samples for ketone body detection

A

plasma, urine milk

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61
Q

Diff. chylomicrons from other lipids in plasma

A
  • freeze-warm-centrifuge-chylomicrons coagulate
  • if layer under fat is clear - post prqnd. lipidaem.
  • if layer is not clear - fat mob.
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62
Q

Lipid abs. test

A

at suspect of malabsorption, maldigestion, chronic bowel disease

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63
Q

what are cholesterol measurements used for

A

detection of incr. fat mobilisation - in this case total cholesterol incr.

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64
Q

Hgb measurements

A

Spectrophotometric (Drabkin) method

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65
Q

Reagents in Drabkin method

A

whole blood , K3Fe(SCN)6 , KCN

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66
Q

Would there be a notable incr. in Hgb in iv haemolysis

A

No

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67
Q

What causes right shift in the Hgb oxy.sat. curve

A
  • incr. 2,3 DPG in RBCs
  • incr. pCO2
  • decr. ph
  • incr. temp. of blood
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68
Q

What causes left shift in Hgb oxy sat curve

A
  • decr. 2.3 DPG
  • decr. p CO2
  • incr. ph
  • decr. temp. o blood
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69
Q

Rough estimation of Hgb

A

PCV/3*1000=Hgb

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70
Q

Methods of RBC count

A
  • Bürker chamber
  • estimated RBC count
  • automated cell counter
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71
Q

how to estimate rbc count

A

Ht/5100=Rbc count10^12

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72
Q

phys RBC count

A

4-8*10^12/l

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73
Q

How would a non regenerative anaemia look like in a histogram

A

a sharp spike signifying that the RBCs are more uniform in size

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74
Q

How would a regenerative anaemia would look like n a histogram

A

a broad hill thats lower than a normal histogram - the broadness indicates a large spectrum of size in RBCs pointing to new rbcs being produced

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75
Q

What would a right shift in a RBC histogram signify

A

macrocytic anaemia

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76
Q

Calculating MCH

A

hgb/(rbccount*10^12) = MCH

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77
Q

What would one call incr. and decr. MCH

A

hypo- , hyper- chromasia

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78
Q

Calculating MCV

A

PCV/rbcc *1000 = MCV

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79
Q

Do Adults or new borns have larger RBCs

A

New Borns

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80
Q

Name 2 dog species with physiological extremely sized RBCs

A

Akita - 55-65fl small

Poodle - 75-80fl large

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81
Q

Calculating MCHC

A

Hgb/PCV = MCH/MCV*1000 = MCHC

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82
Q

What happens to MCHC in haemolysis

A

very high

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83
Q

What does microcytosis and hypochromasia point towards?

A

regenerative anaemia

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84
Q

Normocytic, normochromic

A

non regenerative anaemia

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85
Q

microcytic , hypochromic

A

iron, copper, piridoxine, def. anaemia , liver fail. , portosyst. shunt

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86
Q

Staining reticulocytes

A

brylliant cressil green

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87
Q

What can be seen in stained reticulocytes

A

asophil punctuates which are rna remnants

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88
Q

rbcs unable to carry oxygen

A

nucleated rbcs, too young

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89
Q

Why do we count reticulocytes and not nucleated rbcs

A

because in case of def. some nucleated rbcs might never reach functional status of reticulocytes

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90
Q

Invest. of osmotic resistance

A
  • make dilution of Saline sample from 0.3 to 0.25% , drip blood in different tubes - check for haemolysis
  • similar but with a control group, a hypotonic solution and a phys. saline solution
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91
Q

Interpretation if osmotic resistance test shows haemolysis in only the hypotonic solution but not saline solution

A

Membrane defect of rbcs

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92
Q

Interpretation if osmotic resistance test shows haemolysis in the hypotonic solution and saline solution

A

intravasal haemolytic crisis

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93
Q

Stainings for RBC smear

A

may grünwald, giemsa, diff quick..

smears must be prepared using fresh samples

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94
Q

Things to check for in a rbc bloodsmear

A
  • intensity of rbc staining
  • size of rbcs
  • rbc type
  • incl. bodies
  • parasites
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95
Q

Name all RBC types

A
  • young and nucleated
  • reticulocytes
  • spherocyte
  • stomatocyte
  • acanthocyte
  • schystocyte
  • anulocyte
  • codocyte
  • echynocyte
  • sickle cell
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96
Q

Name all incl. Bodies of rbcs

A
  • heinz body
  • howell joly body
  • basophilic punctuates
  • hb inclusions
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97
Q

Name all Rbc Parasites

A

-haemobartenella canis, felis, bovis
-babesia spp.
-ehrlichia canis…
-dirofilaria immitis
-anaplasma marginale
…..

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98
Q

Possible findings in haemolysis

A
  • PCV decr.
  • reticulocytes incr. (reg.)
  • polychromasia, poikilocytosis
  • leukocytosis
  • sphercytosis
  • total BR incr.
  • indirect BR incr.
  • lactate dehydrogenase incr.
  • haptoglobin decr.
  • rbc osmotic resistance decr.
  • jaundice
  • hyperchromic stool
  • urobilinogen and hgb in urine incr.
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99
Q

Whats most important for WBC counting

A

blood smear analysis

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100
Q

Methods for counting WBCs

A
  • bürke chamber

- hematology analyser

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101
Q

What is the very first sign of acute inflammation

A

APPs

102
Q

When does Neutropenia occur and what is it caused by

A
  • during the first period of the inflammatory process

- caused by migrating factors

103
Q

other tests to examine inflammatory processes

A

Glutaric aldehyde test
erythrocyte sedimentation test
crp

104
Q

Explain the glutaric aldehyde test

A
  • method used to examine the incr. of fibrinogen and globulin in plasma
  • fibrinogen - app - incr. during inflamm.
  • glutaric aldehyde solution causes rapid coagulation if there is an incr. of these proteins - which would be the case in an acute inflamm.
105
Q

explain esr in inflamm.

A
  • apps and globulins might attach to rbcs

- quicker sedimentation

106
Q

Good indicator for inflammatory process

A

CRP

107
Q

How to obtain ruminal fluid

A
  • by orogastric tube

- by ruminal puncture

108
Q

physical examination of ruminal fluid

A
  • Odor
  • Color
  • Consistency
  • Sedimentation
109
Q

What could a milky grey colour in the ruminal fluid point towards

A

grain overfeeding, lactic acidosis

110
Q

Biochemical examination of ruminal fluid

A
  • ph
  • vfa -hplc
  • tests for reduction capacity
111
Q

Name the main VFAs

A
  • acetic acid
  • propionic acid
  • butyric acid
112
Q

haematological findings in acute pancreatitis

A
  • polycythemia
  • degrad. of rbcs (schysiscytosis, acanthocytosis)
  • anaemia
  • leukocytosis
  • neutrophilia , left shift
113
Q

Determination of pancreatic enzymes in the plasma

A
  • alpha amylase activity
  • lipase activity
  • phospholipase a2 activity
  • trypsinogene, trypsin cc
  • elastase cc
  • pancreas specific lipase - best
114
Q

Determination of substrates in acute pancreatitis

A
  • glucose cc
  • c of electrolytes
  • alpha 2 macroglobulin cc
  • alpha1 antitrypsine cc
  • triacylglycerol cc
  • Ca cc
115
Q

alpha amylase detection meth.

A
  • starch digestion test

- p-nitrophenol meth.

116
Q

Cases of increased alpha amylase activity

A
  • acute pancreatitis
  • acute kidney failure
  • FIP
  • lymphoma
  • DM
  • ileus
  • gastric perforation
  • parotitis
  • chronic enteritis
117
Q

How to measure lipase

A

ELISA - pancreas specific lipase

118
Q

Determination of lipase activity

A

turbidimetric method

119
Q

Why can’t we use alpha amylase , lipase activity alone to diagnose pancretitis

A

Because these enzymes are incr. in case of kidney failure aswell as the excretion is mainly done by kidney

120
Q

What is the diagnosis in case of urine amylase and cretinine incr. and plasma amylase incr. but plasma cratinin stays the same (or incr.)

A

Pancretitis

121
Q

Diagnosis when urine amylase and creatinine decr. and plasma amylase and creatinin incr.

A

Kidney failure

122
Q

Examination of EPI

A
  • TLI cc
  • BT-BAPA test
  • dyed agar gel digest., schwachmann filmtest
  • lipid absorption test
  • faecal elastase test
  • examination of undigested faecal particles
123
Q

Which faecal smears should be prepared when examining EPI

A
  • giemsa - for undig. striated muscle fiber
  • lugol - for undig. starch
  • sudan - for undigested lipid part.
  • gram staining may be helpful
124
Q

What does finding 1 thromb. in a 1000x view signify

A

20*10^9/l

125
Q

Phys. platelet count

A

200-800 * 10^9

126
Q

Phys. PT time

A

10-15 sec

127
Q

Phys. APTT

A

20-30 sec.

128
Q

list intrinsic pathway problems

A
  • haemophilia a-factor Vlll def.

- haemophilia B - factor lX def.

129
Q

list extr. pathway problems

A
  • factor VII def

- dicumarol tox.

130
Q

list common pathway problems

A
  • liver hyp.func. - decr. in coag.fac. prod.
  • DIC
  • factor : X / V / II / I / XIII def.
131
Q

Couls cause DIC

A

septicaemia, pancreatitis, wide spread burn, necrosis of big tumors, shock…

132
Q

How to test the ruminal fluid reduction potential test?

A
  • Nitrite red. test

- Methylene blue red. test

133
Q

How to perform Nitrite red. test

A

KNO2 with rum. fluid - heat -add Griess Ilosvay

-in presence on nitrite - pink colour - phys. nitrite should be reduced to nothing

134
Q

phys. rumen pH

A

6,3 - 7

135
Q

VFA intratuminal

A

acetate, proprionate, butyrate

136
Q

What’s unconj. BR bound to

A

Alb

137
Q

How does UBG get made

A

bacterially reduced BR

138
Q

Blood Br measurements

A

van den bergh

  • sulphanilic acid and NaNO2
  • sample - serum
139
Q

Why can’t Br1 not be filtered by kidney

A

is bound to Alb - too large

140
Q

Gmelin test

A
  • HNO3 layered under urine
  • condensed material on surface of glass - acidic urea
  • yellow - urine
  • white - protein
  • purple - indicane
  • green - biliverdin
  • brown - UBG
  • HNO3
141
Q

What is the BSP retention test based on

A

-administration of brom sulphalein and the excretion cap- of hepatocytes

142
Q

incr. BSP retention

A
  • liver cirrhosis
  • liver tumor
  • hep. lipidosis
  • right sided heart failure - perfusion issue
  • shunt
  • blockage of portal vessels
143
Q

What is the entero-hepatical circulation

A

nearly 90% of conjugated bile acids get reabsorbed and transported back to the liver - faecal loss 2-5%

144
Q

Good liver function test

A

simple ammonia cc

145
Q

Ammonia metab.

A

prod. in int. by bb. - abs. to portal v. - liver detoxifies it via ornitin cycle

146
Q

Ammonia measurement

A
  • Spectrophotometrically - NH3 + alpha ketoglutaric acid +NaDH+h+ - GLDH - change in absorbancy
  • port.ammonia checker - reflectometric method
  • Ammonia tolerance test
147
Q

Drugs with incr. parasympathomimetic effect of int. mot.

A

Neostigminum, methysulphuricum, physostigminum

148
Q

Drugs with parasymp.lyt. effect on int. mot.

A

Atropinum-sulphuricum, N-butil scopolamine bromide

149
Q

Methods of examining int. absorption

A
  • Glucose tolerance test - test for DM or insulinoma
    blood glucose should be normalised within 30-60 minutes - IV
  • oral gluc. - blood gluc should be doubled by 30 min and normalised at 120 min
  • BT-PABA test - n-benzoil-l-tyrozil-paraaminobenzoic acid given orally - check cc
  • Corn Oil test
  • Lactulose - Rhamnose test
150
Q

How are lactulose and rhamnose absorbed

A
  • Lactulose paracellularly

- Rhamnose transcellularly

151
Q

Evaluation of EPI

A
  • TLI cc (trypsin like immunoreactivity)
  • BT-PABA test
  • dyed agar-gel digestion and schachmann filmtest
  • lipid absorption test
  • examining undig. faecal particles
152
Q

How can TLI cc diagnose pnacreatitis

A

in case of pancreatitis more trypsinogen or active trypsin enters the bloodstream

153
Q

Which are the Coag. fact. prod. by liver

A

2, 7, 9, 10

154
Q

Ways of sampling bile acids

A
  • after 12 hours of starvation

- postprandialy

155
Q

Sampling for ammonia

A
  • starving for 24h

- EDTA anticoag. - taken without air contam.

156
Q

Ammonia eval.

A
  • spectrophotometric
  • refractometric - portable ammonia checker
  • ammonia tolerance test
157
Q

List the potential liver damage enzymes

A
  • AST - aspartate-aminotransferase
  • ALT - alanine-aminotransferase
  • GLDH - glutamate dehydrogenase
  • ALKP - AP-Alkaline-Phosphatase
  • GGT - gamma glutamyl transferase
158
Q

What’s the basis of the liver enzyme spectrophotometric determination

A

NADH+H+ -> NAD

causes dicoloration

159
Q

which ALKP appears in blood

A

bone and liver orig.

160
Q

What to measure ( liver damage enzymes)

A 
Dog: ALT,ALKP,GGT
Cat: ALT, ALKP (acute), GGT
Ru:AST, GLDH
Eq: AST, GGT
Su: AST, GGT, ALKP
161
Q

how does each urea test start

A

splitting Urea into two NH3 molecules

162
Q

Urea tests

A
  • urea color test

- enzymatic urea test

163
Q

How to evaluate Creatinine cc

A

Jaffe method using picric acid - evaluated spectrophotometrically

164
Q

Calculating creatinine clearance

A

C=U* V/P
u= creatinine in urine
V= urine output/min
P=Creatinine cc in plasma

165
Q

essential indicator for glomerular dysfunction

A

Proteinuria

166
Q

What’s the urine Creatinine cc based on

A

spec gravity

167
Q

Tests for tubular function

A
  • Spec Gravity
  • water depr test
  • Urine osmolality
  • fractional electrolyte clearance for Na
168
Q

What particles may be in the urine in case of tubular damage

A

Enzymuria - ALKP, GGT

169
Q

Methods of evaluating Glucose in blood

A
  • Handheld glucometer - via electrical conductance
  • GOD/POD - enzymatic method
  • Gluc. tolerance test IV/oral
170
Q

Constant hyperglycaemia check for

A
  • Fructosamine since the longer circulating glucose forms ketoamines - shows gluc. cc from 2-3 weeks
  • Glycated haemolobin - 2-3 months prior gluc. cc
171
Q

Checking for Ketone bodies

A

Ross reaction test strips

172
Q

What do we use CHolesterol measurements for

A

detection of incr. fat mob.

173
Q

What is spec. gravity an indicator of

A

conc. func. of tubules

174
Q

what is decr. ADH prod a sign of

A

Central diabetes insipidus

175
Q

What is decr. response to ADH a sign of

A

Peripheral diabetes insipidus

176
Q

How does Hyposthenuria relate hyperadrenocorticism

A

incr. Aldosterone func./prod. means that more Na+ remains in the body and thus the urines Spec. Grav. decr.

177
Q

What does medullary washout result in

A

the loss of the concentrating ability of the kidney despite the right endocrine conditions

178
Q

How does the water deprivation test help in detailing kidney problems

A

differentiating between (with desmopressin test) CDI, PDI , PP

179
Q

What can be evaluated with a urine test strip

A
  • Specific Gravity
  • pH
  • Proteinuria
  • Pus - best checked microscopically
  • Haematuria
  • Glucosuria
  • Ketonuria
  • Nitrite
  • Bilirubin, UBG
180
Q

How does paradoxical aciduria work

A

in vomiting Na+ is reabsorbed with HCO3- decr. HCO3 excr. urine pH becomes more acidic

181
Q

Pseudoproteinuria

A

protein in urine not bc of kidney failure but from lower urogenital tract

182
Q

What are bence jones proteins

A

paraproteins appearing as a spike in beta or gamma globulin region - neoplastic indicator

183
Q

CAuses of proteinuria

A
  • glomerulonephropathy
  • tubular transport defect
  • inflammation
  • haematuria
184
Q

Real and fake proteinuria

A
  • prerenal
    • neonates
  • -exercise
  • -extreme thermal cond.
  • renal=real
  • -glom./tub. def.
  • -really high prot. cc
  • spuria =fake
  • -lower ug tract
185
Q

How to determine WBC in urine

A

microscopically, test strip

186
Q

Benzidine test

A
  • test to show presence of blood hgb or myoglob.

- brown to green

187
Q

Organic urine sediments

A
  • Rbcs
  • cells from lower UG tract
  • Viral incl. bodies
  • microbes
  • mucin
  • casts
188
Q

Inorganic urine sediments in alkaline urine

A
  • Struvite
  • Calciumcarbonite
  • Calciumphosphate
  • Amourphousphosphate
  • NH3 ureate
189
Q

Inorganic urine sediments in acidic urine

A
  • calcium oxalate
  • uric acid
  • Cystine
  • Br
  • Sulphonamides
190
Q

causes for fluid acc in cavities

A
  • incr. in vascular pressure
  • decr. in colloid onc. pressure
  • incr. permeability due to inflamm. causes
191
Q

Types of fluid

A
  • transudate
  • exudate
  • mod. transudate
  • blood
  • chylus
192
Q

What to measure in cavity fluid

A
  • Alb/glob - FIP
  • Creatinine - Bladderrupture
  • Alphaamylase -Lipase - gall bladder rupt./ duoden. perf./ abscess rupt.
  • LDH - neoplasia
193
Q

What to check in body cavity fluid cytological analysis

A
  • inflamm or not
  • septic or not
  • non iflamm - reactive or neoplastic
194
Q

Exudate

A

inflammatory causes

195
Q

mod. transudate

A

long term stasis of fluid

196
Q

Where to sample CSF samples

A

occipital zone, lumbosacral zone

197
Q

What’s considered the best test in thyroid evaluation

A

Thyroid stim. test

198
Q

How to perform thyroid stim. test

A

collect t4 sample - give TSH - check t4 after 6 h

199
Q

Common cause for feline hyperthyroidism

A

thyroid neoplasia

200
Q

Causes for Hyperadrenocorticism

A
  • incr. acth prod from a pituitary lesion

- andrenocortical tumour

201
Q

How does Low dose dexamethasone suppression test work

A

Dex. suppresses pituitary gland, but not in hyperadrencort.

-can help differentiate betw. Adrenal and pituitary hyp.ad.cort.

202
Q

High dose dexamethasone suppression test is used for?

A

differentiating pituitary and adrenal causes

203
Q

Serum osmolality

A

270-300 mOsm/kg

204
Q

What is the difference between Hyperaldosteronism and Hyperadrenocorticism

A

Hyperaldosteronism is an excess production of Aldosteron while hyperadrenocorticism is a hyperfunction of the adrenal glands in general

205
Q

How do the clinical signs differ between hyperald. and hyperadren.

A

In hyperald. only aldosteron is prod. in excess so there would be an Incr. in Na and a decr. in K while in hyperadrenocorticism the whole adrenal gland is hyperfunctioning which leads to an incr. in Glucocorticoids as well - polyphagia, weight gain, pu/pd , alopecia, lethargy

206
Q

Is Cl an ec enzyme

A

Yes

207
Q

What does abomasal displacement cause

A

Hypochloraemia

208
Q

Name the Electrolytes most important for muscle function

A

Ca, Mg, K

209
Q

Mg and Ca are Ec or IC electrolytes

A

EC

210
Q

Name the blood smear evaluation stains

A

May Grünwald, Giemsa, Diff quick

211
Q

Name the forms of leukemia

A

ac. lymphoblastic leukemia, ac. myeloblastic leukemia, ac. erythroblastic leukemia, lymphoma stage V

212
Q

What effect do glucocorticoids have on immune cells

A

suppresses them

213
Q

What will be found in acute leukemia

A

blast cells

214
Q

What can be found in chronic leukemia

A

mature differentiated cells in huge nr.

215
Q

Name the WBCs and their frequency

A 
Neutrophil granulocytes (60-77%)
Lymphoid cells (12-30%)
Eosinophil granulocytes (2-10%)
Basophil Granulocytes (1%)
Monocytes (1-5%)
216
Q

Explain the platelet aggregation test

A

@ prospect of thrombocytopathy - put platelets together with ADP and epinephrine - speed and rate of coagulation analysed by spectrophotometer

217
Q

What sample is used for coagulation test

A

centrifuge then use plasma

218
Q

Which factors are used in PT

A

7, 10, 1, 2, 13, 5

219
Q

Why is 3 not used in PT

A

because it is supplied in the reagent

220
Q

Which factors are used in APTT

A

8, 9, 10, 1, 2, 13, 5, 11

221
Q

What can Alb be measured with

A

Spectrophotometrically with bromocresol green or serum electrophoresis for TP measurement

222
Q

What disease could be expected if a polyclonal gammopathy is present

A

chronic inflammatory disease - liver disease, FIP, occult heartworm disease

223
Q

What could be expected if a monoclonal gammopathy is present

A

neoplastic disease - multiple myeloma, lymphoma, chronic lmphocytic leukemia
non neoplastic disease - occult heartworm disease, FIPV, ehrlichia canis, lymphoplasmacytic enteritis

224
Q

What is a leukemoid reaction

A

Sometimes after a great stimulus enormous number of WBC in blood

225
Q

What is the glutaric aldehyde test

A

inflammatory test - causes rapid coagulation of the APP fibrinogen and labile globulins the speed of coagulation is correlating with the inflammation

226
Q

Name possible tests to check intestinal absorption

A

iv, oral glucose test
Bt-BAPA test
corn oil test
lactulose rhamnose test

227
Q

Name the causes for metabolic acidosis

A
  • loss of HCO3 - diarrhoea, ileus
  • hyperkalaemia - H/K pump
  • incr. acid prod. - anaerobic glycolysis - lactic acid
  • incr. acid intake
  • incr. ketogenesis
  • renal failure - decr. acid excr.
228
Q

What is the anion gap useful for?

A

diff. between the causes for met. acidosis

229
Q

How can the anion gap diff. between met. acidosis causes

A
  • if HCO3 is lost and Cl replaces it -> primary HCO3 loss like diarrhoe
  • if HCO3 is lost and Cl stays the same - the unmeasured anions must incr. -> cause met. acidosis
230
Q

Name the causes for a met. acidosis where the anion gap stays normal

A
  • diarrhoea - hco3 loss
  • early kidney failure - H+ retention
  • renal tubular acidosis
  • acidifying substances
231
Q

Name the causes for met. acidosis where teh anion gap is incr.

A
  • azotaemia, uraemia
  • lactacidosis - shock, hypovolaemia, tissue necr.
  • ketoacidosis - diabetic
  • toxicosis
232
Q

Name the reasons for met. alkalosis

A
  • incr. acid loss - vomiting, abomasal displacement
  • hypokalaemia - H/K pump
  • intake of rotten/alkaline food
  • decr. hepatic ammonia synth.
233
Q

Name the causes for resp. acidosis

A
  • pulmonary oedema
  • pleural effusiun, pneumothorax
  • airway obstruction
  • depression of central control of respiration
  • resp. muscle weakness
234
Q

Name the causes for decr. Albumin

A
  • decr. intake of proteins
  • decr. synthesis - liver failure, acute inflammation
  • incr. utilisation - phys. conditions - pregnancy, work, exercise, production
  • incr. loss
  • via kidneys - PLN
  • via enteral - PLE
  • skin - burn
  • whole blood loss
  • sequestration
235
Q

What can we largely say about the protein fractions

A

alpha glob. - APPs
beta globulins - immunoglobulins (IgA, IgM)
gamma globulins - immunoglobulins (IGG)

236
Q

How to avoid in vitro catabolism of Gluc

A
  • store the sample cooled
  • seperate plasma from blood quickly
  • coagulate rbc with trichloric acetic acid
  • take blood samples with NaF tubes
237
Q

Name some causes for microcytosis

A
  • chronic blood loss
  • iron, copper deficiency
  • portosystemic shunt
238
Q

Name the causes for macrocytosis

A
  • mostly regenerative anaemias
  • polycythaemia absoluta vera
  • vit. b12, folic acid, cobalt deficiency
  • erythroleukemia
239
Q

Name the causes for hypochromasia

A
  • newborns
  • reg. anaemia
  • iron def anaemia
240
Q

Name the causes for hyperchromasia

A
  • erythroleukemia (polycythaemia absoluta vera)
  • Vit. b12, folic acid, cobalt def.
  • immunhemolytic anaemia
  • lead poisoning
  • splenectomy
241
Q

What could microcytic and hypochromic RBCs point towards

A

decr. HB synthesis

242
Q

What could cause a decr. HB synth.

A

-iron, copper, piridoxine def. anaemia, liver failure, portosystemic shunt

243
Q

How to stain reticulocytes

A

brylliant cresil green

244
Q

What are gross signs that could be seen in a blood smear evaluation

A
  • rouleau formation - coin arrangement
  • RBC aggregates
  • large cells
  • thrombocyte aggregates
245
Q

List the laboratory findings of Hemolysis

A
  • PCV decr.
  • Reticulocytes incr. (reg.)
  • polychromasia, poikilocytosis
  • leukocytosis
  • spherocytes
  • total BR incr.
  • BR 1 incr.
  • LDH incr.
  • Haptoglobin decr.
  • RBC osmotic resistance decr.
  • jaundice
  • hyperchromic stool
  • UBG and HGB in urine incr.
246
Q

When can we expect to see a right shift in WBC

A

=many segmented and hypersegmented old neutrophils

  • chronic inflamm.
  • effect of glucocorticoid
247
Q

What is a stress leukogram

A

right shift, leukocytosis, neutrophilia, lymphopenia and eosinophilia together

248
Q

Name the “other” inflammation tests

A

glutaric aldehyde test
esr test
c reactive protein test

249
Q

Which sample do we use for acid base analysis

A

arterial non air contaminated sample

ca equilibrated, li heparinised

250
Q

Why do we need Astrup samples in acid base analysis

A

bc we measure the partial CO2 pressure and thats volatile

251
Q

What could hyperkalaemia cause in regards to acid/base

A

met. acidosis

Laboratory Diagnostics (1 decks)

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